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ENDO-RENAL QUIZIZZIT

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The following are common characteristics of diabetes insipidus except

a)

Decrease of ≥75% AVP action or secretion

b)

24-hr urine volume >40 ml/kg body weight

c)

Overt clinical signs of dehydration

d)

None of the above

2.

Primary deficiency of AVP secretion is usually caused by which of the following

a)

Neurohypophysis agenesis

b)

Schizophrenia 

c)

Multiple sclerosis 

d)

All of the above

3.

A px presents w/ urinary frequency, nocturia, and enuresis. His 24-hr urine volume is <40 ml/kg with an osmolarity of >300 mosm/L. As the physician what should be your course of action?

a)

Test for basal plasma AVP

b)

Repeat 24-hr urine collection

c)

GU evaluation

d)

Send the patient home

4.

Pituitary bright spot is almost always present in px w/ primary polydipsia.

A trial of desmopressin therapy may be used to differentiate pituitary DI, nephrogenic DI, and primary polydipsia

a)

Only the 1st statement is correct

b)

Only the 2nd statement is correct

c)

Both statements are wrong 

d)

Both statements are correct

5.

In patients w/ craniopharyngoma: DI can occurs in 90% of patients

Transsphenoidal resection is the procedure of choice

a)

Only the 1st statement is correct

b)

Only the 2nd statement is correct

c)

Both statements are wrong 

d)

Both statements are correct

6.

Primary polydipsia can be treated safely with DDAVP and antidiuretics DDAVP acts selectively at V1 receptors to increase urine concentration.

a)

Only the 1st statement is correct

b)

Only the 2nd statement is correct

c)

Both statements are wrong 

d)

Both statements are correct

7.

The most common genetic form of cranial DI is transmitted in a semirecessive X-linked manner

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Tralse  

d)

None of the above

8.

During pregnancy, DI may be caused by

a)

Increased plasma AVP metabolism

b)

Lack of AVP secretion

c)

All of the above

d)

None of the above

9.

Which of the following can be used in the management of nephrogenic DI

a)

Thiazide diuretics

b)

Low sodium diet 

c)

Indomethacin  

d)

All of the above

10.

Which of the following is a diagnostic feature of adamantinomatous craniopharyngoma?

a)

Spongy reticulum

b)

Cysts and fibrosis

c)

Wet keratin  

d)

Solid sheets of cells & papillae lined by well-differentiated squamous epithelium

11.

Which of the following is a sign of thyrotoxicosis?

a)

Hyperactivity 

b)

Heat intolerance

c)

Lid lag 

d)

All of the above

12.

Which laboratory test is most useful in confirming early hyperthyroidism?

a)

TSH

b)

TPO

c)

Free T3

d)

Free T4

13.

Which of the following differential diagnosis for hyperthyroidism would present with decreased radioactive iodine uptake?

a)

Hydatidiform mole

b)

Thyroid cancer 

c)

Amiodarone-induced hyperthyroidism 

d)

Hamburger thyrotoxicosis

14.

Lid lag seen in Graves’ disease is also known as

a)

Von Graefe’s sign

b)

Dalrymple sign

c)

Kurt’s sign 

d)

None of the above

15.

The preferred antithyroid drug for pregnant and breastfeeding women

a)

Methimazole 

b)

PTU

c)

Beta blockers

d)

Any of the above

16.

The following are RAI treatment contraindications except

a)

Desires to conceive soon (<6 mo) 

b)

Large goiter (>50 g)

c)

Severe reactions to antithyroids

d)

None of the above

17.

In a pregnant patient with hyperthyroidism in whom antithyroid medications cannot be used, when is the best time to perform surgery?

a)

1st trimester

b)

2nd trimester

c)

3rd trimester

d)

Surgery is contraindicated in pregnant women 

18.

Which of the following oncogenes is/are associated with papillary thyroid cancer

a)

RET

b)

MET

c)

Ras

d)

A & C

e)

All of the above

19.

In the Bethesda classification, which of the following is associated with 15-30% risk of malignancy?

a)

Follicular neoplasm 

b)

AUS 

c)

FLUS

d)

B & C

20.

Which of the following is a long-term complication of radioactive iodine therapy?

a)

Sialadenitis 

b)

Cerebral edema

c)

Pulmonary fibrosis 

d)

A & C

e)

All of the above

21.

Which type of pyelonephritis is most common in children?

a)

Acute pyelonephritis

b)

Chronic pyelonephritis

c)

Uncomplicated pyelonephritis

d)

Complicated pyelonephritis

22.

All of the following are Gram-positive bacteria that can cause UTI except:

a)

Staphylococci

b)

Enterococci

c)

Group B streptococci

d)

Pseudomonas

23.

Fever is the only manifestation of pyelonephritis

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

SOMETIMES

d)

WHEN WE TOUCH, THE HONESTY IS TOO MUCH

24.

Which of the following imaging study is the method of choice in diagnosing pyelonephritis?

a)

Ultrasonography

b)

Computerized Tomography scan

c)

MRI

d)

Voiding cystourethrography

25.

5. Which drug is the first choice in the treatment of acute pyelonephritis?

a)

Ciprofloxacin

b)

Trimethoprim

c)

Ceftriaxone

d)

Piperacillin-tazobactam

26.

All of the following are symptoms present in cystitis except:

a)

Malodorous urine

b)

Suprapubic pain

c)

Dysuria

d)

Temperature > 38C

27.

Which type of cystitis may present with irritative voiding symptoms but a negative urine culture?

a)

Acute hemorrhagic cystitis

b)

Adenovirus cystitis

c)

Eosinophilic cystitis

d)

Interstitial cystitis

28.

All of the following are risk factors for UTI except?

a)

Constipation

b)

Voiding dysfunction

c)

Malodorous urine

d)

NOTA

29.

What can be a possible treatment for a severe acute cystitis?

a)

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) (5-7 mg TMP/kg/day in 3-4 divided doses)

b)

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) (5-7 mg TMP/kg/day in 2 divided doses)

c)

Nitrofurantoin (5-7 mg/kg/24 hr in 3-4 divided doses)

d)

Amoxicillin (100 mg/kg/24 hr in 3-4 divided doses)

30.

Which of the following common contaminants found in the urine culture  of a px diagnosed with UTI may not be found?

a)

Lactobacilli

b)

Enterococci

c)

Group-B streptococci

d)

Coagulase-positive staphylococci

31.

Which of the following individuals would be most prone to VUR?

a)

16 month old Caucasian female

b)

56-year old Caucasian they/them

c)

14 month old African-American female

d)

11 month old African-American male

32.

Secondary VUR may be caused by the following except?

a)

Genetic predisposition

b)

Functional bladder obstruction

c)

Posterior urethral valves

d)

Congenital ureteral duplication

33.

The statement: “There are no specific signs or symptoms for VUR” is:

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

MAYBE

d)

THIS TIME IT'LL BE LOVIN' THEY'LL FIND

34.

Which of the following imaging tests is the test of choice for VUR?

a)

Ultrasonography

b)

Computerized Tomography scan

c)

MRI

d)

Voiding cystourethrography

35.

Which severity classification of VUR describes the visibility of some tortuousity of the ureter

a)

Grade II

b)

Grade III

c)

Grade IV

d)

Grade V

36.

A 7-yr old, female with fever, conjunctival suffusion, and myalgia of 3 days duration was brought for consult. His mother informed you that prior to getting these symptoms, the child played in the rain with his friends and some areas in their residence was flooded. Upon doing the PE, vital signs were normal except for T of 38oc. PMH showed that the patient is allergic to penicillin. What drug would you give to the patient?

a)

Erythromycin 

b)

Azithromycin dihydrate

c)

Doxycycline

d)

Ceftriaxone

37.

2. A 35-yr old male typhoon rescuer was brought to the ER wheelchair-borne. Patient presented with myalgia, jaundice and hemoptysis for more than 1 week. Upon PE, patient is febrile and tachycardic. Labs showed elevated BUN, creatinine, and LFTs. Chest x-ray showed bilateral pulmonary infiltration. What would be your next step?

a)

Initiate renal replacement therapy immediately

b)

Start antibiotics

c)

Give methylprednisolone and start antibiotics

d)

Proceed to ECMO right away

38.

What is the antibiotic of choice for the patient?

a)

Penicillin G 1.5 million units IV q6h for 7 days

b)

Doxycycline 100 mg IV q6h for 10 days

c)

Ceftriaxone 1.5 million units IV q6h for 7 days

d)

Erythromycin 1gm IV q8h for 10 days

39.

4. If the same patient has GCS=9, would you give invasive ventilation?

a)

YES

b)

NO

c)

MAYBE

d)

NOW WE CAN BE MORE THAN JUST FRIENDS

40.

If you are to collect a specimen for a leptospiral test, what would be the most appropriate specimen and test to do to establish a definitive diagnosis given the duration of the illness?

a)

Heparinized blood

for PCR

b)

CSF for culture

c)

Urine for culture

d)

Serum for

serologic tests

41.

To diagnose AKI in the patient, what should you look for?

a)

Rise from baseline SCr concentration of at least 0.3 umol/L w/in 48 hr

b)

Rise from baseline SCr concentration of at least 50% higher than baseline within 1 week

c)

Reduction in urine output to <0.5 mL/kg/h for longer than 5h

d)

AOTA

42.

T or F. Ischemia alone is not sufficient to cause severe AKI.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

 NSAIDs:inhibiting afferent vasodilation :: ACE inhibitors & ARBs: _________

a)

Limiting renal afferent dilation

b)

Limiting renal efferent vasoconstriction

c)

Promoting renal afferent vasodilation

d)

Promoting renal efferent vasoconstriction

44.

9. The kidneys have internal autoregulatory mechanisms in order to maintain GFR. This usually fails once:

a)

SBP <80 mmHg

b)

SBP <90 mmHg

c)

SBP and DBP <80 mmHg

d)

SBP and DBP <90 mmHg

45.

10. Endogenous nephrotoxins that can cause intrinsic parenchymal disease include all of the ff. EXCEPT:

a)

Hemolysis,

b)

Rhabdomyolysis

c)

Intratubular

crystals

d)

Iodinated contrast

46.

11. BUN/Crea= 23; FENa = 0.5%; Urine osmolality=500 mOsm/Kg H20 are suggestive of:

a)

Pre-renal

b)

Intrinsic 

c)

Post-rena

47.

I. All azotemic patients are uremic.

II. Not all uremic patients are azotemic.

a)

I is true. II is false.

b)

I is false. II is true.

c)

Both statements are true.

d)

Both statements are false.

48.

13. Urine sediments of the patient are positive for pigmented “muddy brown” granular casts and tubular epithelial cell casts. 

a)

Glomerulonephritis

b)

Acute Tubular Necrosis

c)

Pyelonephritis

d)

Vasculitis

49.

The following management are done in the setting of AKI with hyperkalemia EXCEPT:

a)

Thiazide diuretics to promote urinary potassium loss

b)

Potassium binding ion-exhange resin (sodium polystyrene sulfonate)

c)

Insulin (10 units regular) and glucose (50 mL of 50% dextrose) to promote entry of potassium intracellularly

d)

NOTA

50.

15. A 60-year old Filipino male has been diagnosed with CKD. His eGFR is 40 mL/min/1.73m2. Albumin to creatinine ratio is at 28 mg/g. What is the classification of the patient in the KDIGO classification of CKD? 

a)

Low risk

b)

Moderately increased risk

c)

High risk

d)

Very high risk

51.

16. This is a condition unique to CKD patients which consists of progressive subcutaneous induration, especially on the arms and legs.

a)

Deposition of retained pigmented metabolites or urochromes

b)

Uremic fetor

c)

Nephrogenic fibrosing dermopathy

d)

Tumoral sclerosing dermopathy

52.

17. This is an absolute indication for the urgent initiation of dialysis or for intensification of the dialysis prescription in those already receiving dialysis

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Calciphylaxis

c)

Nephrogenic fibrosing

dermopathy

d)

Uremic pericarditis

53.

18. Clear indications for initiation of renal replacement therapy for patients with CKD include the ff. EXCEPT:

a)

Evidence of malnutrition

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Encephalopathy

d)

Intractable muscle

cramping

54.

19. Major complications of peritoneal dialysis include all of the ff. EXCEPT:

a)

Hypotension

b)

Peritonitis

c)

Catheter-associated nonperitonitis infections

d)

Weight gain

55.

20. Patient presents with edema, hyperlipidemia, proteinuria and hypoalbuminemia

a)

Nephrotic syndrome

b)

Nephritic syndrome