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Benchmark Review

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 2hrs 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A child rides a wagon down a hill. Eventually, the wagon comes to a stop. Which is most responsible for causing the wagon to stop?
a)
gravity acting on the wagon
b)
the mass of the wagon
c)
friction acting on the wagon
d)
the mass of the child
2.
Which best describes the force of gravity?
a)
a pushing force
b)
a pulling force
c)
a change in mass
d)
a change in speed
3.
Four different students take turns pushing a large, heavy ball on the school parking lot. What is the best way to determine which student used the most force to push the ball?
a)
compare the sizes of the students
b)
compare the ages of the students
c)
compare the distances that the ball rolled
d)
compare the number of times the ball was rolled
4.
Two identical balls are pushed with the same force. One ball is pushed along a flat surface and the other ball is pushed down a slanted surface. Which ball will travel faster and why?
a)
the ball on the flat surface, because of increased friction
b)
the ball on the flat surface, because of decreased gravity
c)
the ball on the slanted surface, because of increased gravity
d)
the ball on the slanted surface, because of decreased friction
5.
Sam is building a car to race down a ramp. The car weighs 100 grams. Which could Sam do to increase the speed of the car?
a)
increase the mass of the car
b)
decrease the mass of the car
c)
increase the friction on the ramp
6.
Jan has two identical magnets on her metal cabinet. She hangs a drawing using Magnet 1. She tries to hang a calendar using Magnet 2, but the calendar falls to the floor.
Which best explains why Magnet 1 can hold up the drawing but Magnet 2 is unable to hold up the calendar?
a)
The area near Magnet 1 has extra metal.
b)
The calendar is longer than the drawing.
c)
The area under Magnet 2 has more gravity.
d)
The calendar has a greater mass than the drawing.
7.
The gravitational force of the Sun is strong enough to hold all the planets of our solar system in orbit many millions of miles away. Which best describes why objects having far less mass on the surface of these planets are not pulled off and into the Sun?
a)
The objects have too little mass to be affected by the Sun.
b)
The objects have more mass on the planets than on the Sun.
c)
The objects are held by the greater combined gravity of all the planets.
d)
The objects are more strongly affected by the gravity of the planet on which they are found.
8.
What keeps the Moon orbiting Earth?
a)
the Sun’s gravity
b)
the Moon’s rotation
c)
Earth’s rotation
d)
Earth’s gravity
9.
Which is the best explanation of why the Moon revolves around Earth?
a)
The Moon has a thinner atmosphere than Earth.
b)
The Moon is too large to move away from Earth.
c)
The Moon is attracted by the gravity of Earth.
d)
The Moon has a smaller gravitational force than Earth
10.
Which is the best example of a pushing force that reduces the speed of an object?
a)
a bat hitting a baseball
b)
a brake rubbing against a wheel
c)
a pedal turning the wheels of a bicycle
d)
a skateboard wheel rolling against pavement
11.
A helicopter traveled 200 miles in one hour. During the next hour, it traveled another 200 miles. Which best describes the average speed of the helicopter during the second hour?
a)
slower than the first hour
b)
faster than the first hour
c)
about the same as the first hour
d)
exactly the same as the first hour
12.
A news truck traveled 60 miles in one hour on Thursday and 240 miles in four hours on Friday. Which best describes the average speed of the truck? (speed = distance ÷ time)
a)
The truck drove more slowly on Friday.
b)
The truck drove more slowly on Thursday.
c)
The truck drove the same speed on both days.
13.
Michelle drove 300 miles in 6 hours. What was Michelle’s speed?
(speed = distance ÷ time)
a)
30 miles per hour
b)
50 miles per hour
c)
60 miles per hour
d)
80 miles per hour
14.
The Great Smoky Mountain Railroad travels 26 km between Bryson City and Dillsboro. The trip takes 50 minutes. How fast is the train moving?
a)
0.52 km/min
b)
1.9 km/min
c)
24 km/min
d)
76 km/min
15.
Which information is needed to determine the speed of an object?
a)
the weight of the object and the the pull of gravity on the object and the amount of time it travelsdistance it travels
b)
the pull of gravity on the object and the amount of time it travels
c)
the inertia of the object and the amount of force that is pushing it
d)
the distance the object travels and the time it takes to travel that distance
16.
Which tools will be most helpful to a scientist measuring motion?
a)
a measuring tape, a stopwatch, and a thermometer
b)
a compass, a stopwatch, and a measuring tape
c)
a stopwatch, a scale, and a thermometer
d)
a scale, a compass, and a stopwatch
17.
Car W is traveling at 70 miles per hour. Car X is traveling 65 miles per hour. Which statement is true about the movement of the two cars?
a)
Car W will travel farther than Car X in the same amount of time.
b)
Car X will travel farther than Car W in the same amount of time.
c)
Both Car X and Car W will travel the same distance in the same amount of time.
18.
How long would it take a car traveling 60 miles per hour to get from Charlotte, NC to Atlanta, GA if the two cities are 240 miles apart? (speed = distance ÷ time)
a)
2 hours
b)
4 hours
c)
6 hours
19.
Suzy’s trip to the store takes 30 minutes. She stays inside the store for 10 minutes before returning home. She follows the exact same route home, making her total trip time one hour and twenty minutes. Which statement best describes Suzy’s motion?
a)
She slows down on the return trip.
b)
She speeds up on the return trip.
c)
Her speed remains constant.
d)
Her speed gains momentum.
20.
About how long would it take for an airplane traveling at 500 miles per hour to travel nonstop from San Francisco, CA to Myrtle Beach, SC if the distance between these two cities is 2,800 miles? (speed = distance ÷ time)
a)
between 5 and 6 hours
b)
between 3 and 4 hours
c)
between 1 and 2 hours
21.

How would you describe the motion of the object for the first 3 seconds?

a)

Constant, fast

b)

Gradual then stopped

c)

Constant then stopped

d)

Constant, slow

22.

How would you describe the motion of the object in the left and right graphs?

a)

Left: constant, fast

Right: Constant, slow

b)

Left: gradual increasing speed

Right: gradual decreasing speed

c)

Left: constant, slow

Right: Constant, fast

d)

Left: gradual decreasing speed

Right: gradual increasing speed

23.

At what time is the person going AWAY from home?

a)

seconds 0-1

b)

seconds 1-3

c)

seconds 3-4

d)

seconds 4-5

e)

seconds 5-8

24.

Which car is going faster?

a)

Car A

b)

Car B

c)

Both are going the same speed

d)

Can not tell from the graph

25.

Which describes the motion of the train?

a)

the train traveled at a constant speed for 300 miles in 1 hour, stopped for an hour, then returned to its original train station

b)

The train accelerates for 1 hour, has a constant speed for 1 hour, and the decelerates back to its original train station for an hour

c)

the train travels at a constant speed for 1 hour, stops for an hour, and then decelerates back to its original trains station for an hour

d)

the train decelerates for 300 miles in 1 hour, stops for 1 hour, and decelerates back to its original train station

26.

How will freezing air temperatures most likely affect rain as it falls through the air?

a)

It will change to fog

b)

It will change to hail

c)

It will change to sleet

d)

It will continue to flal as rain

27.

Which best describes how changes in air pressure can affect the development of a hurricane?

a)

Cooling ocean water causes air pressure to drop. This causes high winds and rain to develop, which may become a hurricane.

b)

Cooling ocean water causes air pressure to rise. This causes light winds and snow to develop, which may become a hurricane.

c)

Warming ocean water causes air pressure to rise. This causes light winds and sleet to develop, which may become a hurricane.

d)

Warming ocean water causes air pressure to drop. This causes high winds and thunderstorms to develop, which may become a hurricane.

28.

The graphic shows a sea breeze. What will most likely happen to the wind after the sun goes down?

a)

The wind will continue to blow in the same direction

b)

The wind will blow in the opposite direction

c)

The wind will increase in speed

d)

There will be no wind

29.

A student states the weather is the same as the climate. Which response best tells the student the difference between weather and climate?

a)

Weather is about the wind and the rain, but climate is about the clouds.

b)

Weather is the conditions in one day, but climate is the conditions over a long time.

c)

Weather is measured with tools like thermometers, but climate is measured with tools like forecasts.

d)

Weather is recorded on charts, but climate is recorded on world maps.

30.

The graphic shows a common daily wind pattern. Which term best describes the wind pattern in the graphic?

a)

sea breeze

b)

land breeze

c)

trade wind

d)

coriolis effect

31.

Which is generally considered to be least important in determining the local weather conditions of an area?

a)

precipitation

b)

wind speed

c)

landforms

d)

temperature

32.

Which conditions will result in high winds?

a)

presence of cirrus clouds

b)

heavy rains over several days

c)

increase in evaporation rates

d)

large differences in air pressure

33.

Which best describes the type of weather associated with low air pressure?

a)

clear and dry

b)

sunny and cold

c)

sunny with high winds

d)

cloudy with precipitation

34.

On a cold, cloudy day, the local weather forecaster predicts that a high-pressure system will be moving into the area in the next 24 hours. Which weather conditions will this system most likely bring to the area?

a)

stormy

b)

snowy

c)

sunny

d)

hot

35.

Which type of weather is usually associated with a cumulus cloud?

a)

fair

b)

humid

c)

foggy

d)

stormy

36.

Ohio often has the weather that Indiana recently had because weather in the United States tends to move from

a)

north to south

b)

south to north

c)

west to east

d)

east to west

37.

Which type of clouds are called fog when they are near the ground?

a)

cirrus

b)

stratus

c)

cumulus

d)

altocumulus

38.

Which type of cloud is most often visible during fair weather?

a)

altostratus

b)

stratus

c)

cirrus

d)

cumulonimbus

39.

Read the weather chart. Based on the information in the weather chart, the weather most likely is

a)

snowy

b)

windy

c)

rainy

d)

sunny

40.

The morning temperature in a city is 41°F. If a sunny, mild day is forecast, which temperature is most likely for 2:00 pm?

a)

32°F

b)

41°F

c)

78°F

d)

96°F

41.

Which information would be most helpful in determining the climate of a particular area?

a)

a news report of yesterday's weatehr

b)

today's data from a school weather station

c)

temperature records from the previous month

d)

local weather station weather records from the last ten years

42.

Which instrument is used to record average precipitation?

a)

rain gauge

b)

barometer

c)

anemometer

d)

wind vane

43.

Which weather pattern has the most influence on the weather in North Carolina?

a)

polar easterlies

b)

polar westerlies

c)

prevailing easterlies

d)

prevailing westerlies

44.

Which conditions are needed for a hurricane to form?

a)

warm, dry air rising over warm areas on the land

b)

warm, dry air rising over warm areas in the ocean

c)

warm, moist air rising over warm areas on the land

d)

warm, moist air rising over warm areas in the ocean

45.

Which is most responsible for moderating weather along the North Carolina coast?

a)

La Niña

b)

the jet stream

c)

the Gulf Stream

d)

prevailing westerlies

46.

Which affects the coast of North Carolina, causing it to receive less snow than the rest of the state?

a)

El Niño

b)

La Niña

c)

the jet stream

d)

The Gulf Stream

47.

Which of these actions causes wind?

a)

rotation of Earth on its axis

b)

movement of air from water to land

c)

uneven heating of Earth’s surface

d)

air passing Earth as it revolves around the Sun

48.

The diagram shows the movement of air. Which factor is MOST responsible for the movement of the air shown?

a)

uneven heating of the air

b)

imbalance in organisms breathing the air

c)

sunlight getting blocked by the land

d)

different levels of liquid in the air

49.

Which polar jet stream path would bring unusually warm weather to the Great Lakes region in winter?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

50.

Mrs. Anderson gave her class a quiz about the Gulf Stream. The first question asked students to draw the path of the current. Four of the maps are below. Which student drew the path correctly?

a)

Tomas

b)

Cecily

c)

Humberto

d)

Zavia

51.

Study the map of the polar jet stream below. What type of weather would MOST likely appear at the location marked X?

a)

cold and dry

b)

cold and wet

c)

warm and dry

d)

warm and wet

52.

What do ocean currents carry that MOST affects climates?

a)

salt

b)

ships

c)

fish

d)

heat

53.
Which is an example of a single-celled organism?
a)
amoeba
b)
insect
c)
fish
d)
worm
54.
Why do multicellular organisms need transport systems?
a)
Most have cells that are unable to grow and survive in their environment.
b)
Most have cells that are not able to exchange gases with the outside
environment.
c)
Most have cells that need food from sources outside their environment.
d)
Most have cells that require more energy to survive than single-celled
organisms.
55.
Which is a function of the cardiovascular system?
a)
to move water throughout the body
b)
to provide structural support for the body
c)
to eliminate waste from the body
d)
to transport gases throughout the body
56.
Which body system sends electrical signals to all other body systems?
a)
circulatory system
b)
digestive system
c)
muscular system
d)
nervous system
57.
Which statement best describes a bacterial cell?
a)
It contains more than one cell.
b)
It is a complete organism.
c)
It is part of a larger organism.
d)
It contains different kinds of cells.
58.
Which characteristic do single-celled organisms and multicellular organisms have in common?
a)
Both have cells with specialized functions for each life process.
b)
Both perform all life processes within one cell.
c)
Both have a way to get rid of waste materials.
d)
Both are able to make food from sunlight.
59.
Which system of the human body provides protection to most of the major organs?
a)
skeletal system
b)
circulatory system
c)
respiratory system
d)
muscular system
60.
Which example best shows structures that make up the digestive system in the human body?
a)
heart, blood, vessels
b)
nose, trachea, lungs
c)
brain, spinal cord, nerves
d)
esophagus, stomach, intestines
61.
A scientist is trying to decide whether an organism is unicellular or multicellular. Which information would help the scientist most to make her decision?
a)
size of the cells of the organism
b)
what the organism eats
c)
how many types of cells are in the organism
d)
how fast the organism grows
62.
Which body system processes foods into a useable source of energy?
a)
circulatory
b)
digestive
c)
nervous
d)
skeletal
63.
Over time, iron becomes rust when it combines with water and oxygen. Which type of change must occur for rust to form?
a)
chemical
b)
mechanical
c)
nuclear
d)
physical
64.
Leslie places 5 pounds of ice in a 1 pound bucket with a lid. The next day, she notices all the ice has melted. When she weighs the bucket with the melted ice, what will itmost likely weigh?
a)
4 pounds
b)
6 pounds
c)
7 pounds
65.
Lisa bought a box of candles weighing 30 ounces. There were 5 candles in the box. Lisa left the box in her car, and the candles melted together, forming one piece of wax. How much will the box of candles most likely weigh after this change?
a)
5 ounces
b)
6 ounces
c)
25 ounces
d)
30 ounces
66.
A piece of wood is sawed into several small pieces. This is an example of what kind of change? 
a)
physical
b)
chemical
c)
electrical
d)
mechanical
67.
Which is a physical change involving an egg? 
a)
frying an egg
b)
boiling an egg
c)
breaking an egg
68.
Which best describes what happens when water condenses on a glass? 
a)
A physical change occurs, because the water changes form. 
b)
A physical change occurs, because the water changes color.
c)
A chemical change occurs, because the water gives off light.
d)
A chemical change occurs, because the water forms a new substance. 
69.
Campers burned logs in a campfire.
How would the campers know that a chemical change has taken place?
a)
The logs changed shape.
b)
The rocks glowed when heated.
c)
The wood became a different substance.
d)
The ground absorbed heat from the coals.
70.
Which describes a chemical change?
a)
sugar dissolving in tea
b)
sunshine warming a sidewalk
c)
scissors cutting paper into pieces
d)
acid in the stomach digesting food
71.

Which example best describes a chemical change?

a)

wax melting

b)

an apple turning brown

c)

a piece of paper being cut into small pieces

72.

Which best explains why burning leaves is a chemical change?

a)

The leaves emit light during the change.

b)

The temperature of the leaves increases.

c)

The shape of the leaves changes.

d)

The leaves turn to ash and gas as smoke is released

73.

Which example best describes a physical change?

a)

baking a pie

b)

burning a candle

c)

making a paper airplane

d)

lighting a match

74.

Sarah boiled some water to cook spaghetti. The water boiled because of

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

transpiration

75.

Popping popcorn on a hot stove is heat transfer through...

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

condensation

76.

A piece of gum has a mass of 2 grams. What type of data is this?

a)

qualitative

b)

quantitative

77.
Which is a producer?
a)
an owl
b)
a tree
c)
a mouse
d)
a worm
78.
Which group includes only decomposers?
a)
spider, fungi, and grass
b)
ladybug, spider, and deer
c)
sunflower, tree, and grass
d)
fungi, bacteria, and worms
79.
What type of organisms are responsible for recycling the remains of a dead plant or animal to the soil?
a)
producers
b)
consumers
c)
herbivores
d)
decomposers
80.
Which best describes grasses, shrubs, and trees?
a)
consumers
b)
decomposers
c)
omnivores
d)
producers
81.
Which best explain the function of producers in a forest ecosystem?
a)
Producers provide energy for consumers in the ecosystem
b)
Producers provide energy for decomposers in the ecosystem
c)
Producers provide energy for other producers in the ecosystem
d)
Producers provide energy for consumers and other producers in the ecosystem
82.
How is a deer in a forest ecosystem most similar to a rabbit in the same ecosystem?
a)
both are decomposers
b)
both are consumers
c)
both are carnivores
d)
both are producers
83.
An energy pyramid shows that less food and energy is available moving from the bottom to the top.  Based on this model, where would producers be located on the energy pyramid?
a)
level 1
b)
level 2
c)
level 3
d)
level 4
84.
How are consumers generally classified?
a)
by the amount of food they eat
b)
by the size of their tracks
c)
by the type of food they eat
d)
by the way they digest their food
85.
In a forest ecosystem, which has the most direct access to the main energy source?
a)
producer
b)
consumer
c)
decomposer
d)
scavenger
86.
Bacteria are released into the Gulf of Mexico to help clean up oil spills.  What role do the bacteria serve in the marine ecosystem?
a)
decomposers
b)
consumers
c)
producers
d)
predators
87.
Which factor do forest and grassland ecosystems most likely have in common?
a)
the type of climate
b)
the amount of trees
c)
The soil composition
d)
the variety in organisms
88.
Which are the most common ecosystems in North Carolina?
a)
estuary, grassland, rainforest
b)
deciduous forest, estuary, ocean
c)
grassland, ocean, temperate forest
d)
deciduous forest, ocean, desert
89.
Which terrestrial ecosystem has warm, humid conditions and a large variety of plants and animals?
a)
estuary
b)
grassland
c)
deciduous forest
d)
tropical rainforest
90.
The American grassland are home to which types of animals?
a)
elephants, lions, and zebras
b)
foxes, prairie dogs, and rabbits
c)
lizards, tortoises, and weasels
d)
wolves, deer, and bears
91.
Which best describes a freshwater ecosystem?
a)
an ocean environment with living organisms
b)
an inland water environment with no living organisms
c)
an ocean environment with living organisms and nonliving parts
d)
an inland water environment with living organisms and nonliving parts
92.
Which can be concluded about the trees that grow in a temperate deciduous forest?
a)
The trees require constant direct sunlight to survive
b)
The trees grow only during the warm months of the year
c)
The trees have adapted to survive the change of seasons
d)
The trees are unable to grow in climates that have constant rainfall
93.
Compared to the large number of plant species found in a forest ecosystem, which best explains why a desert ecosystem is unable to support a greater variety of plants?
a)
A desert ecosystem is located too high above sea level for most plants to grow.
b)
There are fewer animals in a desert, which decreases the need for large varieties of plants.
c)
There is not enough space available in a desert ecosystem for some plant varieties to grow.
d)
Most plants that live in a desert ecosystem must be able to conserve water for long periods of time.
94.
Which marine ecosystem would be best for organisms that can adapt to both salt water and fresh water?
a)
Estuary
b)
Lake
c)
Pond
d)
River
95.
Which type of ecosystem best removes pollutants from water?
a)
forest
b)
desert
c)
estuary
d)
grassland
96.
Which could be a challenge for a small animal living in a grassland ecosystem?
a)
The frozen ground is too hard to serve as shelter
b)
The flat terrain makes it easy for predators to spot prey
c)
The extreme temperatures require thick skin and heavy fur
d)
The high amounts of precipitation create excess water resources

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