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Worksheets

Theories FAR

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

expenses used up assets; since decreases in assets are recorded by credits, expenses are recorded by credits to the expense account

a)

true

b)

false

2.

Gains and losses on the purchase and resale of treasury stock may be only be reflected in

a)

Income and paid-in capital accounts

b)

Paid-in capital accounts

c)

Income, paid-in capital and retained earnings

d)

Paid-in capital and retained earnings accounts

3.

Taxable temporary difference is the

I. Temporary difference that will result in future taxable amount in determining taxable income of future periods when the carrying amount of the asset or liability is recovered or settled.

II. Temporary difference that will result in future deductible amount in determining taxable income of future periods when the carrying amount of the asset or liability is recovered or settled.

a)

Both I and II

b)

I only

c)

II only

d)

Neither I nor II

4.

The process of analyzing event and transaction whether or not they will be recognised

a)

Classifying

b)

Summarizing

c)

Identifying

d)

Communicating

5.

Gain or loss from disposal of investment property is the difference between the___________

a)

Fair value and carrying amount of the asset

b)

Gross disposal proceeds and carrying amount of the asset

c)

Net disposal proceeds and carrying amount of the asset

d)

Gross disposal proceeds and fair value of the asset

6.

The following are components of assurance engagement risk EXCEPT

a)

detection risk

b)

business risk

c)

inherent risk

d)

control risk

7.

Profit is the residual amount that remains after expenses have been deducted from income.

a)

true

b)

false

8.

Which of the following statements is the BEST description of a “condition”?

a)

A term which must be satisfied before a contract can come into existence.

b)

A tern in a contract, the consequence of breach of which cannot be determined until after the breach has occurred and the seriousness of the effects of the breach can be ascertained.

c)

A term in a contract which provides that the contract will terminate on the happening of a particular event.

d)

A term in a contract, non-performance of which may result in rescission of the contract and/or damage to the plaintiff.

9.

Which is least likely beneficial in adequately planning an audit of financial statements?

a)

Assist in coordination of work done by auditors of components and experts

b)

Aid the auditor to identify and resolve potential problems on a timely basis

c)

Aid the auditor to devote appropriate attention to all areas ofthe audit

d)

Assist in the selection of engagement team members with appropriate levels of capabilities and competence

10.

Expenses are recognized when the goods or services (efforts) make their contribution to revenue

a)

true

b)

false

11.

Business enterprise assumed to have a long life is a violation of conservatism.

a)

true

b)

false

12.

Information about the sources and uses of an enterprise’s cash and cash equivalents is provided in the:

a)

Statement of financial position

b)

Cash flow statement

c)

Statement of changes in equity

d)

C Income statement

13.

According to the conceptual framework, which of the following statements conforms to the realization concept?

a)

Equipment depreciation was assigned to a production department and then to product unit costs

b)

An impaired asset was sold for cash

c)

Product unit costs were assigned to cost of goods sold when the units were sold

d)

Cash was collected on accounts receivable

14.

the ability to bring together for the purpose of noting points of likeness and difference. Implicit in comparability is consistency, which requires that the accounting methods and practices should be applied on a uniform basis from period to period

a)

Understandability

b)

Timeliness

c)

Verifiability

d)

Comparability

15.

The going-concern assumption justifies the valuation of assets on a liquidation basis

a)

false

b)

true

16.

Some costs which give rise to future benefits cannot be directly associated with the revenues they generate.Such costs are allocated in a rational and systematic manner to the periods expected to benefit from thecost

a)

true

b)

false

17.

Relevance is the capacity of information to make a difference in a decision by helping users form predictions about the outcome of past, present, and future events

a)

true

b)

false

18.

the contract between the bondholders and the borrower or issuing entity

a)

stock certificate

b)

bond indenture

c)

Junk bonds

d)

callable bonds

19.

Conservatism is best described as selecting an accounting alternative that

a)

Has the least favorable impact on owners' equity

b)

Is least likely to mislead users of financial information

c)

Overstates, as opposed to understates, liabilities.

d)

Understates assets and/or net income

20.

PAS 7 prescribes the requirements in the requirements in the presentation of

a)

Equity Report

b)

Financial Position

c)

Statement of Cash Flow

d)

Financial Performance

21.

bonds issued whereby another party promises to make payment if the borrower fails to do so

a)

Callable bonds

b)

Convertible bonds

c)

Junk Bonds

d)

Guaranteed Bonds

22.

Transaction costs are defined as fees and commissions paid to agents, advisers, brokers, and dealers.

a)

true

b)

false

23.

Income tax payable is not a financial liability

a)

true

b)

false

24.

The concept of accounting entity is applicable*

a)

only to the economic aspects of business organizations

b)

only to business organizations.

c)

whenever accounting is involved

d)

only to be legal aspects of business organizations

25.

Lease payment sahll be discounted using

a)

incremental borrowing rate

b)

purchase option

c)

initial direct costs

d)

interest rate implicit

26.

Many accountants are employed in business enterprises in various capacity as accounting staff/ chief accountant or controller. These accountants are said to be engaged in*

a)

private accounting

b)

financial accounting

c)

public accounting

d)

government accounting

27.

Per PAS 1, in the absence of a Standard or Interpretation that specifically applies to a transaction or event, management shall develop and apply accounting policy that results in relevant and faithfully represented information. Which of following is the least likely source of such alternative?

a)

The definition, recognition criteria and measurement concepts for assets, liabilities, income andexpenses in the Framework

b)

Most recent pronouncements of other standard setting bodies that use a similar conceptual framework todevelop accounting standards and accepted practice

c)

Textbooks and other accounting literature to the extent that these do not conflict with existing Standardsand Interpretations

d)

The requirements and guidance on Standards /Interpretations on similar and related issues

28.

Which of the following statements is/are true about equity?

I. Equity is defined as the difference between assets and liabilities

II. Increases and decreases in equity (other than from transactions with owners of the enterprise) represent income and expenses

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

Both I and II

d)

Neither I nor II

29.

Which entities are required to apply deferred tax accounting?

I. Public Entities

II. Nonpublic entities

a)

I only

b)

Neither I nor II

c)

II only

d)

Both I and II

30.

any contract that evidences a residual interest in the assets of an entity after deducting all of its liabilities

a)

preference share

b)

equity instrument

c)

ordinary share

d)

Trade instrument

31.

Which of the following would be matched with current revenue on a basis other than association of cause and effect?

a)

cost of goods sold

b)

sales commission

c)

warranty cost

d)

goodwill

32.

Which of the following is not among the economic resources of a business enterprise?

a)

products or output of the enterprise

b)

ownership interest in other enterprises

c)

money

d)

obligations to pay money

33.

The measurement basis “net realizable value” is best described as

a)

Time adjusted cash flow

b)

An asset’s selling price or a liability’s settlement amount

c)

Unamortized historical cost

d)

Unadjusted initial cost

34.

Why are certain costs of doing business capitalized when incurred and then depreciated or amortized over subsequent accounting cycles?

a)

to reduce the income tax liability

b)

to adhere to the accounting concept of conservatism

c)

to match the costs of production with revenue as earned

d)

to aid management in the decision making process

35.

The main function is to establish and improve accounting standards that will be generally accepted in the Philippines

a)

Board of Accountancy

b)

ASC

c)

PICPA

d)

PRC

36.

The revaluation model means that property, plant and equipment are carried at revalued carrying amount

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

37.

the amount of cash or cash equivalent paid and the fair value of the other consideration given to acquire and asset at the time of acquisition or construction

a)

Expense

b)

Cost

c)

Revenue

d)

Income

38.

Residual value is the estimated net amount currently obtainable if the asset is at the end of the useful life

a)

true

b)

false

39.

Which statement is incorrect concerning liabilities?

a)

A decision by the management of an enterprise to acquire assets in the future in itself does not give rise to a present obligation

b)

obligation may be legally enforceable as a consequence of a binding contract or statutory requirement

c)

An essential characteristic of a liability is that the enterprise has a present obligation

d)

If an enterprise decides as a matter of policy to rectify faults in its products even henthese become apparent after the arranty period has e#pired/ the amounts that aree#pected to be e#pended in respect of goods already sold are liabilitie

40.

It is the process of analyzing, recording, classifying, summarizing and communicating all involving the receipt and disposition of government funds and property and interpreting thereo

a)

Government Budgeting

b)

Government Accounting

c)

Government Auditing

d)

Accounting

41.

"Epenses are recognized when

a)

!t is probable that a reliably measurable outflow of future economic benefits hasoccurred

b)

The outflow of future economic benefits can be measured reliably

c)

!t is probable that an outflow of future economic benefits has occurred

d)

It is possible that a reliably measurable outflow of future economic benefits has occurred

42.

Obligations which exist at the end of reporting period although their amount is indefinite

a)

Provisions

b)

Liabilities

c)

Estimated Liabilities

d)

Warranty

43.

The property, plant and equipment are tangible assets, meaning with physical substance

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

44.

Which of the following is most likely to prepare the most accurate financial forecast for a corporate enterprise based on empirical evidence?

a)

investors using statistical models to generate forecasts

b)

independent CPAs

c)

corporate management

d)

financial analysts

45.

the absolute monetary amount of the net assets contributed by shareholders and the amount of the increase in net assets resulting from earnings retained by the entity

a)

Physical Capital

b)

Financial Capital

46.

The restatement of historical peso financial statements in terms of current prices results in presenting assets at

a)

costs adjusted for purchasing power changes

b)

current replacement cost

c)

lower of cost or market value

d)

current appraisal value

47.

summary of the terms and concepts that underlie the preparation and presentation of financial statements for external users

a)

GAAP

b)

Accounting Standards

c)

Conceptual Framework

d)

PFRS

48.

PAS 37 paragraph 10 defines

a)

Provision

b)

Warranty

c)

Contingent Liability

d)

Liability

49.

Publishing yearly financial reports is a sample of the periodicity assumption

a)

true

b)

false

50.

Revenue is generally recognized at point of collection

a)

false

b)

true

51.

A business owned and operated by two or more persons who bind themselves to contribute money, property or industry to a common fund, with the intention of dividing the profits among themselves

a)

Partnership

b)

Sole Proprietorship

c)

Corporation

d)

MSME

52.

it is also known as future exchange price

a)

Current cost

b)

Future value

c)

Present value

d)

Realizable value

53.

Realizable value is also known as "current sale exchange price"

a)

true

b)

false

54.

Admission fees are recognized as revenue when the event takes place

a)

true

b)

false

55.

Subscription fees should not be recognized as revenue on a straight line basis over the subscription period

a)

true

b)

false

56.

Installation fees are recognized as revenue over the period of installation by reference to the stage of completion

a)

false

b)

true

57.

Revenues represent other items that meet the definition of income and do not arise in the course of the ordinary regular activities of an entity

a)

true

b)

false

58.

Obligations may be legally enforceable as a consequence of binding contract or statutory requirement

a)

true

b)

false

59.

Which of the following enhances the usefulness of financial information?

a)

Going concern

b)

Time period

c)

Verifiability

d)

Accounting entity

60.

Which of the following is not subject to depreciation

a)

Land

b)

Machinery

c)

Equipment

d)

Building

61.

Amounts owned by a business are referred to as

a)

Capital

b)

Expenses

c)

Equities

d)

Assets

62.

Which of the following is an intangible assets?

a)

Patents

b)

Trademarks

c)

Copyrights

d)

All of the above

63.

An expense involves the outflow of money, the use of other assets, or the incurring of a liability

a)

true

b)

false

64.

An expense related to use of borrowed funds

a)

Insurance Expense

b)

Supplies Expense

c)

Interest Expense

d)

Uncollectible Accounts Expense

65.

Property, plant and equipment are intangible assets that are held by an enterprise for use in the production or supply of goods or services.

a)

false

b)

true

66.

The entity issuing the check is the payee while the receiver is the payor

a)

true

b)

false

67.

A credit memorandum is a form used by the seller to notify the buyer that his/her account is being decreased due to errors or other factors requiring adjustments

a)

true

b)

false

68.

Purchase requisition is an authorization made by the buyer to the seller to deliver the the merchandise as detailed in the form.

a)

true

b)

false

69.

It is a formal notice to the debtor detailing the accounts already due

a)

Statement of account

b)

Purchase order

c)

Checks

d)

Sales invoice

70.

A document issued by the carrier (a trucking, shipping or airline) that specifies contractual conditions and terms of delivery such as freight terms, time, place and the person named to receive the goods

a)

Statement of account

b)

Sales invoice

c)

Deposit slps

d)

Bill of lading

71.

Direct verification means verifying an amount or other representation through direct observation, for example, by counting cash.

a)

False

b)

true

72.

Verifiability implies consensus

a)

true

b)

false

73.

Comparability requires that financial information must be comprehensive or intelligible if it is to be useful

a)

true

b)

false

74.

The primary accounting objective is fair presentation of the financial performance of the entity

a)

Entity

b)

Proprietary

c)

Residual equity

d)

Fund

75.

Classifying preference dividends as expense is an application of what concept?

a)

Fund

b)

Residual equity

c)

Proprietary

d)

Entity

76.

The T-account is sometimes called the book of original entry

a)

true

b)

false

77.

Office supplies are also classified as expenses

a)

true

b)

false

78.

Prepaid are expenses paid for by the business in advance. These include insurance and rent

a)

true

b)

false

79.

It is any kind of medium exchange that a bank will accept for deposit at pace value

a)

Cash

b)

Notes receivable

c)

Accounts receivable

d)

Cash equivalents

80.

Which of the following is an internal user of financial information?

a)

Board of Directors

b)

Shareholder in the entity

c)

Holder of the entity's bonds

d)

Creditor with long-term contract with the entity

81.

These users require information on risk and return on investment

a)

Customers

b)

Lenders

c)

Investors

d)

Employees

82.

The credit balance in the income summary account represents

a)

Capital

b)

Liability

c)

Net income

d)

Net loss

83.

What function do general ledgers serve in the accounting process?

a)

Summarizing

b)

Reporting

c)

Recording

d)

Classifying

84.

If an entity uses special journal, in which journal would the sale of merchandise for cash be

a)

Cash disbursement journa

b)

Cash receipt journal

c)

General journal

d)

Sales journal

85.

An example of nominal and contra account is

a)

Accumulated depreciation

b)

Freight out

c)

Sales return

d)

Freight in

86.

Which of the following types of accounts measures economic flows over a period of time?

a)

Nominal accounts

b)

Real accounts

c)

Mixed accounts

d)

Contra accounts

87.

Which of the following accounts would be increased by a debit?

a)

Notes payable

b)

Accounts payable

c)

Dividend

d)

Share capital

88.

Persons who have agreed to take and pay for original, unissued shares of a corporation formed or to be formed

a)

Corporators

b)

Subscribers

c)

Incorporators

d)

Promoters

89.

Small share dividends are dividends in which the additional shares issued are less than 10% of the previously outstanding shares

a)

false

b)

true

90.

Adjusting entries are made at the beginning of every accounting period in order to split mixed accounts or to bring the accounts up to date

a)

true

b)

false

91.

A journal where all checks issued for payment are recorded

a)

Voucher register

b)

Mixed accounts

c)

Voucher

d)

Check register

92.

These are also known as permanent accounts because they are carried from one accounting period to another

a)

Mixed Accounts

b)

Trial Balance

c)

Nominal accounts

d)

Real accounts

93.

What is another term for equity?

a)

Net assets

b)

Liability

c)

Net loss

d)

Revenue

94.

It is the residual interest in the assets of the entity after deducting all of its liabilities

a)

Expense

b)

Equity

c)

Net Income

d)

Income

95.

This arises in the course of ordinary regular activities of the entity and is referred to by a variety of different names including sales, fees, interest, dividends, royalties and rent

a)

Gain

b)

Income

c)

Profit

d)

Revenue

96.

Outstanding share capital are issued shares acquired by the corporation but not retired and are therefore, awaiting to be reissued at a later date

a)

false

b)

true

97.

This share gives its owners certain advantages over ordinary shareholders

a)

Ordinary Share

b)

Issued Share Capital

c)

Treasury Stock

d)

Preference Share

98.

A share of stocks represents the interest or right of a shareholder in a corporation and is evidenced by a certificate of stock

a)

true

b)

false

99.

The partners capital account is debited for the debit account balance of the drawing account at the end of the period

a)

true

b)

false

100.

A partnership with a capital of P3,000 or more is valid even if it is unregistered with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)

a)

false

b)

true

101.

The term recognized is synonymous with the term

a)

Matched

b)

Recorded

c)

Allocated

d)

Realized

102.

Gains on assets unsold are identified, in a precise sense, by the term

a)

Unrecorded

b)

Unrecognized

c)

Unrealize

d)

Unallocated

103.

Which of the following measurement attributes is not currently used in practice

a)

Inflation-adjusted cost

b)

Present value

c)

Net realizable value

d)

Current replacement cost

104.

It is the amount of cash that could currently be obtained by selling the asset in orderly

a)

Present Value

b)

Realizable Value

c)

Market Value

d)

Fair Value

105.

It is the ability to bring together for the purpose of noting similarities and dissimilarities

a)

Comparability

b)

Relevance

c)

Reliability

d)

Understandability

106.

Which of the following term best describes information that influences the economic decisions of users

a)

Understandable

b)

Understandable

c)

Relevant

d)

Prospective

107.

Fiduciary accounting is an application of

a)

Proprietary Theory

b)

Fund Theory

c)

Entity Theory

d)

Residual Equity Theory

108.

The primary accounting objective is fair presentation of the financial performance of the entity

a)

Residual equity

b)

Fund

c)

Proprietary

d)

Entity

109.

When a parent and subsidiary relationship exists, consolidated financial statements are prepared in recognition of

a)

Legal Entity

b)

Economic Entity

c)

Stable monetary unit

d)

Time period

110.

Financing accounting is the area of accounting that emphasizes reporting to

a)

Regulatory bodies

b)

Management

c)

Internal auditors

d)

Creditors and Investors

111.

These are the events that affect the entity and in which other entities participate

a)

External Events

b)

Current Events

c)

Current Events

d)

Internal Events

112.

A partnership is created by mere agreement of the partners.

a)

true

b)

false

113.

A partnership with a capital of less than P3,000 is void if it is unregistered with the Securities and Exchange Commission.

a)

true

b)

false

114.

The essence of partnership is that each partner must share in the profits or losses of the venture.

a)

true

b)

false

115.

One advantage of a partnership over corporate form of organization is the unlimited liability of partners.

a)

false

b)

true

116.

In a partnership, there is a right of succession. In a corporation, there is no right of succession.

a)

false

b)

true

117.

The one who takes vital role in the business but is not known to be a partner by external parties.

a)

Industrial partner

b)

Secret partner

c)

Silent partner

d)

Capitalist partner

118.

It is designated to wind up or settle the affairs of the partnership cessation.

a)

General partner

b)

Dormant partner

c)

Liquidating partner

d)

Limited partner

119.

It may be dissolved by the admission, insolvency, death, incapacity, withdrawal of a partner.

a)

Limited Life

b)

Unlimited Liability

c)

Partner's Equity Accounts

d)

Income Taxes

120.

It cannot be a partnership without donation of money, property or industry.

a)

Mutual Contribution

b)

Mutual Agency

c)

Division of Profit or Losses

d)

Co-ownership of contributed Assets

121.

The partner who can lose only what he has invested in a business.

a)

Limited partner

b)

General partner

c)

Employee

d)

Sole Proprietor

122.

The persons who assumes full co-ownership of a partnership including the unlimited liability is a

a)

Limited Partner

b)

Shareholder

c)

General Partner

d)

Sole Proprietor

123.

Each partner is personally liable for all debts of the partnership

a)

true

b)

false

124.

There is no income tax imposed on partnership

a)

true

b)

false

125.

A disadvantage of partnerships over corporations is the partner's unlimited liability

a)

false

b)

true

126.

Assets invested in the partnerships should be recorded at their cost to the partner

a)

true

b)

false

127.

A partnership may be established for charity

a)

true

b)

false

128.

A limited partnership must have at least one general partner

a)

true

b)

false

129.

A partner's capital account is debited to reflect assets permanently withdrawn

a)

true

b)

false

130.

A silent partner takes active part in the business of the partnership and is not known by outsiders to be a partner

a)

false

b)

true

131.

In a limited partnership, none of the partners has unlimited liability for the business debts

a)

false

b)

true

132.

In a contract of partnership, two or more persons bind themselves to contribute money, property or industry to a common fund, with the intention of dividing the profit among themselves

a)

true

b)

false

133.

When a business entity receives payment before delivering goods, the unearned revenue account is

a)

Not affected

b)

Debited

c)

Credited

d)

Debited and credited

134.

Amounts owed to others for unpaid expenses

a)

Notes Payable

b)

Accrued Liabilities

c)

Unearned Revenues

d)

Accounts Payable

135.

These are claims against customers arising from sale of services or goods on credit.

a)

Accounts Receivable

b)

Cash Equivalent

c)

Notes Receivable

d)

cash

136.

Expenses are increases in assets, or decreases in labilities, that result in decreases in equity, other than those relating to distributions to holders of equity claims.

a)

true

b)

false

137.

Expenses should be recognized in the accounting period in which goods and services are used up to produce revenue and not when the entity pays for those goods and services

a)

true

b)

false

138.

This principle states that acquired assets should be recorded at their actual cost and not at what management thinks they are worth as at reporting date

a)

Historical Cost

b)

Revenue Recognition Principle

c)

Objectivity Principle

d)

Expense Recognition Principle

139.

An efficient business in one that provides goods and services at low costs relative to their selling prices

a)

false

b)

true

140.

It involves the use of of resources to design, produce, distribute and market goods and services

a)

Investing Activities

b)

Operating Activities

c)

Financing Activities

141.

A business owned by its stockholders

a)

Corporation

b)

Partnership

c)

Sole proprietorship

142.

Journal is a chronological record of the entity's transactions

a)

true

b)

false

143.

When an owner deposits cash in an account in the name of the business, it is an increase to

a)

Cash and Accounts Payable

b)

Cash and Withdrawals

c)

Cash and Accounts Receivable

d)

Cash and Capita

144.

The following can be found in an income statement except

a)

Expenses

b)

Assets

c)

Income

d)

Profit or Loss

145.

Revenue or income, is the outflow of money or other assets that results from sales of goods or services, or from the use of money and property.

a)

false

b)

true

146.

This accounts records long-term debt of the business entity for which the business entity has pledged certain assets as security to the creditor.

a)

Bonds Payable

b)

Mortgage Payable

c)

Notes Payable

d)

Capital Leases

147.

It is a written pledge that the customer will pay the business a fixed amount of money on a certain date.

a)

Accounts Receivable

b)

Notes Receivable

c)

Cash Equivalents

d)

Prepaid Expenses

148.

It means that information is available to decision-makers in time to be capable of influencing their decisions.

a)

Understandability

b)

Verifiability

c)

Timeliness

d)

Comparability

149.

One Person Corporation (OPC) is a corporation with a single bondholder, who may be a natural person, a trust or an estate.

a)

false

b)

true

150.

Assets are expected to be realized for more than one accounting period

a)

false

b)

true