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CV Summa 1

Total questions: 36

Worksheet time: 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In the primitive heart (around 18-19 days)  the primitive ventricle is on top of the primitive atrium

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Which do all cardiac veins empty into the coronary sinus EXCEPT?

a)

great cardiac vein

b)

anterior cardiac vein

c)

posterior cardiac vein

d)

middle cardiac vein

3.

If there is a fracture in the surgical neck of the humerus which artery is at risk for rupture?

a)

a. subscapularis

b)

a. circumflexa humeri posterior

c)

a. circumflexa humeri anterior

d)

a. profunda brachii

4.

a. epigastrica superficialis is NOT derived from which artery ?

a)

a. femoralis

b)

a. poplitea

c)

abdominal aorta

d)

a. glutes superior

5.

glutes inferior supplies superior gluteal muscles

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Fenestrated capillaries appears on? EXCEPT

a)

Kidney

b)

small intestine

c)

endocrine gland

d)

bone marrow

7.

Right lymphatic duct collect lymph from the upper right quadrant of the body?

a)

True

b)

False

8.

The epicardium is composed of endothelium and subendocardium connective tissue

a)

True

b)

False

9.

The degree of fiber stretch as a result of quantity of the blood in the ventricle prior to contraction

a)

Afterload

b)

Preload

c)

Resistance

d)

Contractility

10.

Rising phase of action potential within the pacemaker is cells is caused by?

a)

Ca2+

b)

Na+

11.

Parasympathetic effects on the pacemaker cells?

a)

Increased permeability of the potassium

b)

Binding of the epinephrine to b1 adrenergic receptor

c)

Increased frequency of action potential

d)

Increased contractility

12.

what happened if there are enough acetyl coa from beta oxidation of fatty acids?

a)

pyruvate dehydrogenase inhibited so glycolysis is not performed

b)

citrate is inhibited so phosphofructokinase can produce pyruvate

c)

lactate will be produced because it is a sign of anoxia

d)

chylomicrons containing LDL will not be taken from blood

13.

where does vldl come from?

a)

lipid in the diet packed into apo B

b)

lipogenesis of excess sugar in the liver

c)

failure in regulation of coagulation cascade

d)

oxidative stress of endothelium

14.

How is lactate produced, and why is it used?

a)

in anoxic condition, NADH reduces pyruvate to lactate so that glucose is used in vital organs

b)

beta oxidation produces 1 acetyl coa and a fatty acyl group

c)

Dehydrogenation of fatty acyl coa creates FADH2 and a fatty acyl group. This causes lactic acidosis thus lactate is uptaken by liver

d)

so that brain can use lactate as energy

15.

CK-MB is increased 6 hours after heart attack and regress in 24 hours

a)

True

b)

False

16.

LDL not captured by liver via apoB 100 will be taken by tissues to make hormones

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Blood flow in capillary beds has a higher velocity than in the aorta because the diameter of all capillary beds combined is greater than in the aorta

a)

True

b)

False

18.

blood flow is determined by ohm’s law

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Which is the formula of mean arterial pressure?

a)

diastolic pressure + ⅓ systolic pressure

b)

diastolic pressure + ½ pulse pressure

c)

diastolic pressure + ⅓ pulse pressure

d)

diastolic pressure + ⅓ cardiac output

20.

You are given two blood vessels. radius in blood vessel A is 1 cm and blood vessel b is 2 cm. Assuming the length of two blood vessels is the same and the viscosity of blood is constant, which statement below is correct?

a)

The resistance in blood vessel A is 4 times higher than in blood vessel B

b)

The resistance in blood vessel A is 16 times higher than in blood vessel B

c)

The flow in blood vessel A is 16 times higher than in blood vessel B

d)

The flow in blood vessel B is 4 times less than in blood vessel A

21.

What is the physiological response in humans if blood pressure is high?

a)

rate of firing in afferent nerves increased, activating cardiovascular center, decreasing sympathetic nerve activity to decrease heart rate and stroke volume

b)

rate of firing in afferent nerves decreased, deactivating cardiovascular center, decreasing sympathetic nerve activity to increase heart rate and stroke volume

c)

rate of firing in afferent nerves decreased, deactivating cardiovascular center, decreasing sympathetic nerve activity to increase preload and vasoconstrict the blood vessels

d)

rate of firing in afferent nerves decreased, deactivating the cardiovascular center, decreasing sympathetic nerve activity to increase contractility and vasodilate the blood vessels

22.

Which of the following is NOT an ischemic heart disease?

a)

Angina pectoris

b)

Myocardial infarction

c)

Tetralogy of Fallot

d)

Sudden cardiac death

23.

Rheumatic heart disease is caused by the same pathogen as post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Which of the following is NOT host factors of infective endocarditis?

a)

Malignancy

b)

DM

c)

Obesity

d)

Immunodeficiency

25.

Women are more likely to get atherosclerosis than men

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Which is true regarding Buerger's disease?

a)

Develop before 40 years of age

b)

One of the symptoms is a pain in the shoulder

c)

inflammation is present in small and medium arteries

d)

accompanied by mild pain at rest

27.

What defines heart failure?

a)

a clinical syndrome in a patient due to inherited or acquired abnormality of structures or function of the heart develop clinical symptoms (dyspnea and fatigue) and signs (edema and rales)

b)

Damage or death of an area of cardiac muscle (myocardium) due to blockage of blood supply to that area

c)

inflammation that causes thickening and hardening of artery walls caused by deposits of cholesterol-lipid-calcium plaque in the lining of vessel wall

d)

When you get rejected by your crush

28.

What is the golden standard of acute myocardial infarction lab diagnosis?

a)

BNP

b)

Increased ASTO

c)

Troponin

d)

Benedict test

29.

A patient was brought to RS Bunda Margonda because she felt in pain lately. She was diagnosed with congestive heart failure and it was found that she was suffering from dyspnea and anginal pain. She has physical activity limitations but she is still comfortable when she rests. What is the classification of her condition?

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class III

d)

Class IV

30.

A patient did a laboratory test because he was kepo. Turns out, his CTN level is 0.60 ng/ml. What does it mean?

a)

High risk of AMI

b)

Intermediate risk of AMI

c)

High risk of Arteriosclerosis

d)

Intermediate risk of Arteriosclerosis

31.

Which one is the correct outline process of atherosclerosis?

a)

Initial lesion → fatty streak → intermediate lesion → atheroma → fibroatheroma → complicated lesion

b)

Fatty streak → Initial lesion → intermediate lesion → atheroma → fibroatheroma → complicated lesion

c)

Fatty streak → atheroma → fibroatheroma →Initial lesion → intermediate lesion → complicated lesion

d)

Atheroma → fibroatheroma → fatty streak → Initial lesion → intermediate lesion → complicated lesion

32.

In patients who have had heart valve surgery, the incidence of S. aureus, S. epidermidis, and gram-negative bacilli infections is higher.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

The incidence rate of infective endocarditis in women is 2-3x higher than in men

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Pathogens such as Coxiella burnetii, brucella. and chlamydia psittaci do not require serology test

a)

True

b)

False

35.

How to do a blood culture in a severely ill infective endocarditis patient?

a)

2 sets of blood cultures were collected over a 1-2 hour period

b)

3 sets of blood cultures were collected over 24 hours

c)

3 sets of blood cultures were collected over a 1-2 hour period

d)

2 sets of blood cultures were collected over 24 hours

36.

S. aureus is the most common cause of endocarditis in people who have never had cardiac surgery

a)

True

b)

False