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Vet science quiz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 3hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The term for lying on the side is

a)

Cranial

b)

Ventral

c)

Dorsal

d)

Lateral recumbency

2.

The term for toward the nose

a)

Medial

b)

Distal

c)

Rostral

d)

Proximal

3.

The term caudal means

a)

Toward the head

b)

Toward the nose

c)

Toward the stomach

d)

Toward the tail

4.

A sheep is called a

a)

Bovine

b)

Porcine

c)

Caprine

d)

Ovine

5.

The term anorexia means

a)

tired or inactive

b)

to create a new opening

c)

difficulty urinating

d)

Vomiting

6.

The suffix –stomy means

a)

to make an incision

b)

to create a new opening

c)

to suture to

d)

to remove

7.

The term cysto- refers to the

a)

urinary bladder

b)

urine

c)

urinalysis

d)

uterus

8.

Which description demonstrated direct supervision?

a)

The supervisor only needs to be physically on the premises.

b)

The supervisor needs to be on the premises and near enough to be of assistance.

c)

The supervisor doesn’t need to be on the premises, just familiar enough with the animal to have left instructions for its care.

d)

The supervisor needs to be in the same room.

9.

What is the definition of “ethics”?

a)

Laws passed by the government

b)

Any behavior that is acceptable to you and your friends

c)

Your religious beliefs

d)

Rules and principles that govern proper conduct

10.

Which of the following statements are true regarding confidentiality of medical records and cases?

a)

Medical records and cases are ethically considered confidential

b)

It is ok for information to be shared with anyone associated with the hospital

c)

It is ok to share medical information with your own family members

d)

Veterinary medical records and case information are not confidential, only human medical records are confidential.

11.

Which of the following is NOT a breach of contract between a veterinarian and a client?

a)

A client refuses to pay for services that were approved in a consent form.

b)

A boarding dog escapes from the hospital premises.

c)

A veterinarian guarantees a cure and the patient dies.

d)

All of the above are breaches in contract.

12.

Which federal agency is responsible for overseeing the manufacture and distribution of drugs used in animals?

a)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

b)

Animal Welfare Administration (AWA)

c)

Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)

d)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

13.

The jugular vein is located

a)

On the inside of the front leg

b)

Inside the thigh on the rear leg

c)

on either side of the neck

d)

In the neck

14.

The gestation length for a dog is

a)

30

b)

63

c)

72

d)

96

15.

Which of the following is a bacterial disease?

a)

Leptospirosis

b)

Coccidiosis

c)

ringworm

d)

giardiasis

16.

Which of the following is a viral disease?

a)

Coccidiosis

b)

Tetanus

c)

rabies

d)

rocky mountain spotted fever

17.

A parasite that lives on hair is called....

a)

Flea

b)

Tick

c)

Mite

d)

Lice

18.

Cats have an average of ______________muscles in the body....

a)

100

b)

200

c)

300

d)

400

19.

_________can build up in the cat’s stomach due to excessive grooming....

a)

Bacteria

b)

Hairballs

c)

antibodies

d)

weight

20.

Cats go through a polyestrous cycle every _____days....

a)

5-7

b)

10-14

c)

14-21

d)

15-16

21.

The total number of eggs in a nest at one time is called a:

a)

Brood

b)

Flock

c)

group

d)

clutch

22.

What is used to determine the gender of a bird?

a)

Feather sample

b)

Blood sample

c)

DNA test

d)

All of the above

23.

“Wet tail” causes the following in hamsters:

a)

Weight loss

b)

Diarrhea

c)

nasal discharge

d)

all of the above

24.

Which of the following is NOT a ruminant?

a)

Sheep

b)

Bison

c)

elk

d)

ostrich

25.

The term for a cow or dairy animal in labor is called?

a)

Freemartin

b)

Freshening

c)

springing

d)

heifer

26.

What is the gestation length of a cow?

a)

180

b)

283

c)

195

d)

205

27.

Which of the following diseases is a reproductive disease that may cause sterility and abortion in cattle?

a)

Leptospirosis

b)

Bovine viral diarrhea

c)

brucellosis

d)

displaced abomasum

28.

Which of the following metabolic conditions causes low blood sugar?

a)

Ketosis

b)

Bloat

c)

grass tetany

d)

mastitis

29.

Which of the following diseases is tested with a Coggins test?

a)

Equine herpes virus

b)

Equine encephalomyelitis

c)

Equine Infectious Anemia

d)

tetanus

30.

What is the gestation length of a horse?

a)

365 days

b)

283 days

c)

340 days

d)

300 days

31.

What age should a horse have all of its adult teeth in place?

a)

5 years

b)

2 years

c)

6 years

d)

4 years

32.

Which of the following diseases is caused by Clostridium?

a)

Rabies

b)

Swamp fever

c)

Influenza

d)

Tetanus

33.

Which of the following is NOT a part of the horse?

a)

Fetlock

b)

Shank

c)

poll

d)

pastern

34.

What areas of the teeth may need routine floating?

a)

Cups

b)

Molars

c)

wolf teeth

d)

points

35.

A common procedure that is used for the purpose of identification is....

a)

Tail docking

b)

Ear notching

c)

snaring

d)

castration

36.

A reproductive disease in swine that is highly contagious and has no cure is:

a)

Brucellosis

b)

Leptospirosis

c)

dermatitis

d)

pseudo rabies

37.

What is the gestation length of sheep?

a)

148-150 days

b)

140-142 days

c)

135-138 days

d)

114-116 days

38.

Which type of digestive system do goats have?

a)

Monogastric

b)

Ruminant

c)

non-ruminant

d)

avian

39.

What is the gestation length of goats?

a)

100-135 days

b)

168-171 days

c)

148-151 days

d)

90-100 days

40.

What is the incubation time of chickens?

a)

11 days

b)

21 days

c)

18 days

d)

15 days

41.

What disease causes respiratory distress that may make a bird twist its neck?

a)

Marek’s disease

b)

Infectious bronchitis

c)

Newcastle disease

d)

Avian influenza

42.

The study of the functions of the human body is called....

a)

Anatomy

b)

Physiology

c)

pathology

d)

histology

43.

The type of tissue that lines internal organ structures and serves as a protective layer is called....

a)

Connective

b)

Nervous

c)

muscular

d)

epithelial

44.

What type of joint rotates around a fixed point?

a)

Ball and socket joint

b)

Fibrous joint

c)

hinge joint

d)

pivot joint

45.

Which of the following is part of the appendicular skeleton?

a)

Skull

b)

Mandible

c)

Femur

d)

Ribs

46.

Which of the following is the name of the second cervical vertebra?

a)

Axis

b)

Cervix

c)

atlas

d)

coccyx

47.

Which of the following fractures is characterized by a break in a bone that stays in place?

a)

Compound

b)

Subluxation

c)

comminuted

d)

simple

48.

The elbow is an example of what type of joint?

a)

Fibrous

b)

Pivot

c)

ball & socket

d)

hinge

49.

Hip dysplasia is common in which dog breed?

a)

German Shepherd

b)

Poodle

c)

beagle

d)

pug

50.

Intervertebral disc disease is common in which dog breed?

a)

Corgi

b)

Spaniels

c)

bichon

d)

Dalmatian

51.

Which of the following animals is NOT a ruminant?

a)

Pig

b)

Bison

c)

Goat

d)

Cow

52.

Herbivores would eat which of the following

a)

Corn

b)

Chicken

c)

Beef

d)

Pork

53.

Wavelike motion of the digestive tract....

a)

Papillae

b)

Mucosa

c)

peristalsis

d)

fundus

54.

Substance created by the liver....

a)

bile

b)

mucosa

c)

glucose

d)

trypsin

55.

A condition resulting from fluid loss in the body is?

a)

digestion

b)

peristalsis

c)

dehydration

d)

diabetes

56.

A swollen and painful abdomen is a sign of?

a)

Bloat

b)

constipation

c)

overeating

d)

dehydration

57.

The thin inner layer of heart muscle is called?

a)

myocardium

b)

endocardium

c)

epicardium

d)

pericardium

58.

A condition characterized by a lack of oxygen and blood reaching the tissues is?

a)

shock

b)

arrhythmia

c)

cardiac arrest

d)

myocardial infarction

59.

Inflammation of the lungs is a characteristic of?

a)

pneumonia

b)

asthma

c)

bordetella

d)

heaves

60.

A tear in the chest muscle allowing muscle to protrude through is called?

a)

pleural friction rub

b)

heaves

c)

diaphragmatic hernia

d)

roaring

61.

A respiratory infection caused by transport of livestock is called?

a)

bordetella

b)

shipping fever

c)

asthma

d)

heaves

62.

Which of the following is a building block of protein that forms in chains?

a)

Fatty acids

b)

Lipids

c)

amino acids

d)

enzymes

63.

Which of the following is an example of a mineral?

a)

B12

b)

Sunlight

c)

D

d)

Iron

64.

Which of the following organs produces bile?

a)

Liver

b)

Kidney

c)

Gallbladder

d)

Pancreas

65.

Which of the following diets is used for an animal that is showing or hunting?

a)

Maintenance diet

b)

Reproduction diet

c)

growth diet

d)

work diet

66.

Which of the following is a type of roundworm?

a)

Trichuris vulpine

b)

Toxocara cati

c)

ancylostoma caninum

d)

dirofilaria immitis

67.

Which of the following parasites can cause a skin condition in humans called cutaneous larval

migrans?

a)

Roundworm

b)

Whipworm

c)

Hookworm

d)

Heartworm

68.

A parasite that is flat and segmented, living in the small and large intestine is called?

a)

Strongyles

b)

Coccidian

c)

giardia

d)

tapeworm

69.

A parasite known to cause Lyme disease is

a)

Tick

b)

Mite

c)

Flea

d)

Fly

70.

Which animal is at the greatest risk of developing West Nile Virus from the bite of a mosquito?

a)

Cat

b)

Horse

c)

Goat

d)

Dog

71.

Which of the following is the most common source of coccidian?

a)

water contamination

b)

Food contamination

c)

Rabbit Droppings

d)

Bird Droppings

72.

Which of the following adult parasites is visible to the naked eye?

a)

Roundworm

b)

Whipworm

c)

Hookworm

d)

Tapworm

73.

Which of the following insects spread heartworm disease?

a)

Ticks

b)

Fleas

c)

Mosquitos

d)

Flies

74.

Which of the following types of behaviors is used to teach a young horse to lift its feet by

touching and handling the feet shortly after birth?

a)

Modeling

b)

Imprinting

c)

Instinctive

d)

Conditioning

75.

Which of the following is a term for when an animal eats its own waste materials?

a)

Coccidian

b)

Maternal

c)

pheromone

d)

coprophagia

76.

What type of aggression is displayed when an animal protects its owner?

a)

Dominance aggression

b)

Territorial aggression

c)

Fear Aggression

d)

redirected aggresion

77.

Which of the following factors should be considered when handling animals?

a)

Temperature

b)

Stress

c)

Teamwork

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

78.

Which of the following is the most common source of coccidian?

a)

Water Contamination

b)

Food Contamination

c)

Bird Droppings

d)

Rabbit Droppings

79.

Which of the following is the most common source of coccidian?

a)

RoundWorm

b)

Whipworm

c)

hookworm

d)

Coccidian

80.

Which of the following insects spread heartworm disease?

a)

Ticks

b)

Fleas

c)

Mosquitos

d)

Flies

81.

Which of the following types of behaviors is used to teach a young horse to lift its feet by

touching and handling the feet shortly after birth?

a)

Modeling

b)

Imprinting

c)

Instinctive

d)

conditioning

82.

Which of the following is a term for when an animal eats its own waste materials?

a)

Coccidian

b)

Maternal

c)

pheromone

d)

coprophagia

83.

A parasite known to cause Lyme disease is

a)

Tick

b)

Flea

c)

Mite

d)

Fly

84.

Which animal is at the greatest risk of developing West Nile Virus from the bite of a mosquito?

a)

Cat

b)

Horse

c)

Goat

d)

Dog

85.

Which of the following is the typical time a mercury thermometer needs to be in the rectum until

reading?

a)

1 Minute

b)

30 Seconds

c)

60 Seconds

d)

Both A and C

86.

Which of the following is a term for hair loss?

a)

Alopecia

b)

Anorexia

c)

anastomosis

d)

atrophy

87.

Which of the following is the definition of arrhythmia?

a)

Difficulty breathing

b)

Swishing sound within the heart

c)

abnormal heart beat

d)

sound of cellophane within the heart

88.

Which of the following is also the heart rate?

a)

Temperature

b)

Pulse

c)

respiration

d)

weight

89.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of stress?

a)

Change in diet

b)

Change in environment

c)

infectious disease

d)

all of the above cause stress

90.

Which of the following is the definition of hyperplasia?

a)

Increased amounts of tissue

b)

Decreased amounts of tissue

c)

lack of tissue

d)

abnormal tissue

91.

Which of the following is a term for a vaccine?

a)

Biological

b)

Pharmaceutical

c)

supplemental

d)

nosocomial

92.

Which of the following is a purpose for bandaging?

a)

Protection

b)

Prevention of movement

c)

immobilization

d)

all of the above

93.

Which of the following size syringes should be used to administer a 1 ml amount of substance?

a)

10 ml syringe

b)

3 ml syringe

c)

12 ml syringe

d)

6 ml syringe

94.

Which of the following is NOT a sign of pain?

a)

Vocal

b)

Restless

c)

eating and drinking well

d)

chewing at incision

95.

Which of the following is NOT a route of giving medications?

a)

By Mouth

b)

Aural

c)

ophthalmic

d)

Dram

96.

Which of the following defines the term efficacy?

a)

The amount of a drug

b)

The strength and life of a drug

c)

the trade name of a drug

d)

the dosage of a drug

97.

Which of the following animals may get ear mites?

a)

Dogs

b)

Rabbits

c)

Cats

d)

All of the above

98.

Which of the following is a site for an IM injection?

a)

Quadricep muscles

b)

Hamstring muscles

c)

pectoral muscles

d)

all of the above

99.

Which of the following is the reason for aspirating the syringe prior to injection?

a)

To remove air bubbles

b)

to not produce pain

c)

to make certain the syringe is not in a blood vessel

d)

All of the above

100.

Which of the following is the reason for tapping the end of the syringe after filling it?

a)

To remove air bubbles

b)

To read the syringe level

c)

to mix the syringe contents

d)

all of the above

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