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Exam 5 - meningitis, STI, HIV, TB

Total questions: 34

Worksheet time: 2hrs 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which STI is incorrectly matched to its primary causative pathogen?

a)

Chlamydia - Chlamydia trachomatis

b)

Gonorrhea - Neisseria meningitidis

c)

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease - Chlamydia sp. + Neisseria sp.

d)

Syphilis - Treponema pallidum

2.

TJ is a 24 yr old presenting with cervicitis who is tested with a bacterial dual NAAT vaginal swab. Which two conditions is TJ most likely being tested for?

a)

Bacterial vaginosis and trichomoniasis

b)

Syphilis and Chlamydia

c)

Gonorrhea and Chlamydia

d)

Trichomoniasis and chlamydia

3.

TJ's NAAT for Chlamydia shows up as positive, all other tests negative. Which of the following is not implicated in Chlamydia?

a)

Cervicitis

b)

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

c)

Infertility

d)

Ano-rectal infection

4.

FB has tested positive for both gonorrhea and chlamydia on the dual NAAT. They are experiencing uncomplicated moderate urethritis with inflammation and pain. FB is unlikely to be adherent to anything over once a day. How should they be treated? Weight: 180 lbs

a)

Doxycycline 100 mg BID + Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM x1

b)

Azithromycin 1000 mg po x1 + Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM x1

c)

Ceftriaxone 1000 mg IM x1 + Azithromycin 1000 mg po x1

d)

Ceftriaxone 1000 mg IM x1 + Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM x1

5.

Which of the following are true of Gonorrhea or Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

a)

Activates major inflammatory cascade similarly to Chlamydia

b)

One of the major causes of septic joints in younger adults

c)

Can often be treated with fluoroquinolones

d)

If present during birth, apply prophylactic erythromycin ophthalmic ointment to the baby's eyes

6.

On rotation, you're involved in a team evaluating a patient for pelvic inflammatory disease. You're able to positively identify cervical motion tenderness and abnormal discharge along with some hyperthermia. The physician would like to hold antibiotics until they have the gold standard - positive ultrasound or biopsy. What do you say?

a)

The patient is qualified to receive ceftriaxone+doxycycline+metronidazole empirically while waiting on those tests

b)

Good idea, let's also draw a CRP/ESR and get a vaginal WBC sample

c)

We have everything we need, start Vanc + Zosyn

d)

Discharge the patient, nothing seems wrong

7.

Which two of the following are true of bacterial vaginosis (BV)?

a)

Typically caused by abnormal microbes for the vaginal area

b)

Diagnosed by presence of clue cells on gram stain

c)

Treated with topical/systemic fluconazole

d)

Treated with topical/systemic metronidazole

8.

What is true of trichomoniasis?

a)

Could be treated with a single oral metronidazole dose in some patients

b)

Diagnosed by NAAT

c)

All sexual partners who may have it must be treated at the same time

d)

Could be treated with a single oral fluconazole dose

9.

What are the pathogens of concern in neonatal (<1 mo) meningitis?

a)

Escherichia coli

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

c)

Streptococcus agalactiae (GBS)

d)

Oxacillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

10.

A patient is admitted with meningitis. They are 66 years old and are up to date on recent vaccines - including a recent PCV15, PPSV23, and meningococcal shots. They are negative for recent trauma and surgery. What is the most likely bacterial pathogen for this patient?

a)

MRSA

b)

Staphylococcus pneumoniae

c)

Listeria monocytogenes

d)

Haemophilus influenzae type B

11.

What is the suspected most common bacterial cause of general community-acquired meningitis?

a)

Streptoccocus pneumoniae

b)

MRSA

c)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d)

HSV

12.

What type of meningitis is most implicated by the following lumbar puncture (LP) results?

Opening pressure elevated --- WBC leukocytosis with neutrophilic pleocytosis

Protein elevated --- glucose 60 mg/dl

Blood glucose 180 mg/dl

a)

Bacterial

b)

Viral

c)

Fungal

d)

Amoebic

13.

A neonate has developed suspected bacterial meningitis. The care team wasn't able to get a vaginal GBS colonization test, but empiric bread spectrum treatment is needed anyway. What two regimens could you start them on?

a)

Ampicillin + Gentamicin

b)

Ampicillin + Cefotaxime

c)

Vancomycin + Zosyn

d)

Vancomycin + Rifampin

14.

A 21 year old is admitted for traumatic head trauma requiring neurosurgery. They develop post-surgery bacterial meningitis. The care team has identified risk factors for possible MDR Klebsiella. What empiric treatment should they be started on?

a)

Vancomycin + Zosyn

b)

Vancomycin + Meropenem

c)

Ampicilllin + gentamicin

d)

Ceftriaxone + Cefotaxime

15.

What is the best time to give a dose of corticosteroids for bacterial meningitis?

a)

Upon presentation or first suspecting meningitis

b)

When the patient is showing clinical improvement

c)

When the 3rd-7th doses of antibiotics are given

d)

When the first dose of antibiotic is given

16.

An inpatient with HSV encephalitis has been prescribed acyclovir IV 10 mg/kg q8h. What should the care team be watchful for?

a)

Obstructive AKI

b)

Burning Mouth Syndrome

c)

Altered mental status

d)

Burning Man Syndrome

17.

How is vulvovaginal candidiasis treated?

a)

Oral fluconazole tablets, typically one dose

b)

Nystatin 5000 units/day swish & spit

c)

Ibrexafungerp in all patients who aren't allergic

d)

Sirolimus topical cream applied to the area TID

18.

Which of the following are Treponemal-specific tests?

a)

RPR

b)

VDRL

c)

TPA

d)

TP-PA

19.

What description best matches primary syphilis?

a)

Infection of the subendothelium, presence of a single ulcer

b)

Dissemination through lymph and blood vessels

c)

Gummatous disease

d)

Presence of paresis and tabes dorsalis

20.

What best describes secondary syphlis?

a)

Dissemination through the lymph and blood after ~4-10 weeks

b)

Dissemination to the cardiovascular system

c)

Presence of general paresis and tabes dorsalis

d)

Persistent infection lasting 10-30 yrs

21.

What syphilis-suspected patient would best qualify for a lumbar puncture?

a)

Joey, who is presenting for triple-presentation of chlamydia, gonorrhea, and with secondary syphilis

b)

Evan, being seen for med rec on HIV meds and notes a single genital ulcer

c)

Karl, who had a genital ulcer a couple weeks ago and is now having some hearing problems

d)

Michael, who received a penicillin G benzathine IM shot a few days ago

22.

What is the purpose of giving probenecid with penicillin for syphilis?

a)

Inhibiting bacterial beta lactamase

b)

Inhibiting tubular secretion

c)

Increasing meningeal permeability

d)

Directly attacking bacteria

23.

Alek is a 32 year old presenting with secondary syphilis. He previously had a single genital ulcer a few months ago but is now presenting with body rash, including on their palms and soles. What treatment is best for Alek?

a)

Penicillin G Benzathine IT x1

b)

Penicillin G Benzathine IM x1

c)

Penicillin G benzathine IV x1

d)

Penicillin G IV 6 doses per day for 10 days

24.

Which statement regarding HIV pathology is incorrect?

a)

gp120 and gp41 on the envelope interact with R5 and X4 on CD4 cells

b)

Most strains start off using the R5 receptor and will switch to X4

c)

pol is used to evade lymphocyte recognition of the virions

d)

gp proteins on the envelope are responsible for virion to CD4 cell interaction

25.

Your friend/classmate Jamie comes into your rotation site. Jamie's been the victim of a needle stick while caring for an HIV suspected patient yesterday. They would like to be tested for HIV. What should you do to help them?

a)

Take an ELISA test and send them out

b)

Their practice site is unlikely to require the patient to get an HIV test, so it's important to test Jamie now

c)

Take a viral load/NAT test now, they can probably get the results before they leave the clinic.

d)

Advise them to find a at-home HIV antibody test. They can come in later for a Western Blot staining

26.

Which patient is incorrectly using a test for HIV based on the information given?

a)

Julius, who visited a clinic for an ELISA test after realizing they were exposed to HIV 5 weeks ago

b)

Marisol, who is getting a blood antibody test to keep up with work site requirements

c)

Klay, who opened a prepackaged needle and stuck himself before preparing an admixture for an HIV + patient

d)

Ian, who used oral swab POCT for HIV in case they were exposed at least two weeks ago

27.

Select all of the following that are likely in the primary/acute HIV syndrome.

a)

10% asymptomatic and will not have a clinical viral syndrome

b)

Swollen lymph nodes, headaches, muscle and joint aches

c)

Disseminated rash, malaise, hepatosplenomegaly

d)

Coagulopathy and ascites

28.

Which of the following are short-term goals of HIV treament?

a)

1 log drop of viremia in the first 4-6 weeks

b)

Viral undetectability of <50 c/ml, normally within 12-24 weeks

c)

Increasing CD4 lymphocyte count, minimum >200 c/mm3

d)

Increasing quality of life and minimizing toxicity

29.

Emilia is a woman with HIV who was started on Emtricitabine + Abacavir + Dolutegravir 8 days ago. She has developed a full body rash and respiratory depression, warranting an emergency department visit. What is this attributable to?

a)

Emtricitabine

b)

HIV flare

c)

Abacavir

d)

Darunavir

30.

What drug cannot be abruptly discontinued in HIV-HBV coinfection due to Hep B flare?

a)

Emtricitabine

b)

Indinavir

c)

Efavirenz

d)

Nevirapine

31.

You're in the middle of a med rec with your patient Maeve who has been taking Tenofovir (disoproxil fumarate) + Zidovudine + Darunavir for a while now. They said they've been having good results on their viral tests, but their osteomalacia tests have been getting worse. Their doctor also told them they are losing a lot of electrolytes and other materials in their urine. What drug is this most attributable to?

a)

Zidovudine

b)

Tenofovir

c)

Daltegravir

d)

Darunavir

32.

Jason is an HIV patient who now requires hemodialysis due to renal dysfunction. Which NRTI was purposely studied in hemodialysis to ensure its dosing would not need to be adjusted in HD?

a)

Emtricitabine

b)

Lamivudine

c)

Tenofovir

d)

Abacavir

33.

Your patient AD is identified for empiric treatment of PCP due to a CD4 count <200, increased LDH, fever, productive cough, and a history of a slow onset. AD is currently experiencing moderate symptoms and has a sulfa allergy. While waiting on respiratory staining and a direct fluorescent antibody test, what treatment can you start them on?

a)

Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim 7.5 mg/kg BID

b)

Clindamycin 450 mg po q8h + Primaquine 30 mg po qd

c)

Emtricitabine 200 mg po qd

d)

Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim 20 mg/kg qd

34.

A patient presents to your ED with suspected Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. They have a productive cough that has increased over the past few days, leukocytosis, fever, and a positive DFA. Their CXR is positive for ground glass appearance. Their current PaO2 is under 70 mmHg. Their weight is 100 kg. What should you treat them with?

a)

SMX/TMP 1875/375 mg IV 4 times/day

plus glucocorticoid

b)

SMX/TMP 800/160 mg DS tablets TID

c)

SMX/TMP 1500mg IV qd plus glucocorticoid