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Quizziz #17.5 - MP3 Bonus Quiz

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following is a true statement about natural selection?
a)
it is goal directed
b)
individuals evolve
c)
variation exists in a population
d)
acquired characteristics
2.
Using the cladogram:  a common ancestor of amphibians and ray-finned fish would have
a)
a bony skeleton
b)
four limbs
c)
scaly skin
d)
eggs with shells
3.
The condition in which there are barriers to successful interbreeding between individuals of different species in the same community is referred to as 
a)
sexual dependency
b)
reproductive isolation
c)
geographic isolation
d)
adaptive radiation
4.
The wing of a bat and a humans' arm have different functions and appear very different.  Yet, the underlying anatomy is basically the same.  therefore, these structures are examples of
a)
geographic isolation
b)
analogous structures
c)
homology
d)
reproductive isolation
5.
In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of a particular recessive allele a is .4.  What is the percentage of the population heterozygous for this allele?
a)
4 percent
b)
16 percent
c)
32 percent
d)
48 percent
6.
The population of peppered moths in England changed from white to black in 50 years
a)
stabilizing selection
b)
sexual selection
c)
directional selection
d)
disruptive selection
7.
The differences in sparrow songs among sympatric species of sparrows are examples of
a)
geographic isolation
b)
convergent evolution
c)
behavioral isolation
d)
mechanical isolation
8.
Two allopatric species of sparrows have very similar niches when compared to two sympatric species of sparrows.  What would be a good explanation for this?
a)
The allopatric species have no competition with one another so therefore can occupy similar niches
b)
The sympatric species are usually mechanically isolated from one another
c)
The sympatric species diverged from a common ancestor
d)
The allopatric species are behaviorally isolated from one another
9.
Darwin's finches are an example of 
a)
adaptive radiation
b)
divergent evolution
c)
founder effect
d)
convergent evolution
10.
The establishment of a genetically unique population through genetic drift
a)
adaptive radiation
b)
divergent evolution
c)
founder effect
d)
convergent evolution
11.
The Tasmanian devil is a marsupial that resembles the North America wolf, which is a placental mammal.
a)
adaptive radiation
b)
divergent evolution
c)
founder effect
d)
convergent evolution
12.
variations in a population are maintained by
a)
mutations
b)
genetic recombination
c)
gene flow
d)
all of the above
13.
which of the following is NOT a requirement for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
a)
small population
b)
no gene flow
c)
no mutations
d)
no selection
14.
What is speciation?
a)
combining of tow species to form one with different traits
b)
isolation that affects mating behaviors
c)
timing of mating that prevents normal sexual selection
d)
divergence of two or more species from an existing one
15.
a bird that can easily outcompete other birds for food and that can produce many eggs has a high
a)
sexuality
b)
mutation rate
c)
fitness
d)
adaptability
16.
Mutations are important because they bring about
a)
death of the organism in which they develop
b)
genetic variation needed for a population to evolve
c)
benefits for the individual, not for the population
d)
Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a population
17.
Which of the following statements is correct based on the information shown in this cladogram?
a)
the turtle and the frog are more similar to each other than the turtle and the bass
b)
frogs have existed for a longer time that bass
c)
the frog is more closely related to the bass than to the leopard
d)
the bass is exinct
18.
Which of the following evolutionary forces can introduce new genetic variation into a population?
a)
natural selection and non-random mating
b)
natural selection and genetic drift
c)
mutation and genetic drift
d)
mutation and gene flow
19.
In peas, the trait for tall plants is dominant (T) and the trait for short plants is recessive (t).  The trait for yellow seeds is dominant (Y) and the trait for green seeds is recessive (y).
A cross between two plants results in 292 tall, yellow plants and 103 short, green plants.  What are the most likely genotypes of the parents?
a)
TtYY x Ttyy
b)
TTYy x TTYy
c)
TTyy x TTYy
d)
TtYy x TtYy
20.

Suppose that in sheep, a dominant allele (B) produce black hair and a recessive allele (b) produce white hair. If you saw a black sheep, you would be able to identify

a)

its phenotype for hair color

b)

its genotype for hair color

c)

the genotype of only one of its parents

d)

the phenotype of both of its parents

21.

If 2n = 48 for a particular cell, then the chromosome number in each cell after meiosis would be

a)

96

b)

48

c)

24

d)

12

22.

In garden peas, a single gene controls stem length. The recessive allele (t) produces short stems when homozygous. The dominant allele (T) produces long stems. A short-stemmed plant is crossed with a heterozygous long-stemmed plant. Which of the following represents the expected phenotypes of the offspring and the ratio in which they will occur?

a)

3 long-stemmed plants: 1 short-stemmed plant

b)

1 long-stemmed plant: 1 short-stemmed plant

c)

1 long-stemmed plant: 3 short-stemmed plants

d)

Long-stemmed plants only

23.

In most vertebrates, the sperm cell normally contributes which of the following to the new organism?

a)

Many mitochondria

b)

Significant amounts of RNA

c)

A haploid complement of chromosomes

d)

Most of the cytoplasm of the zygote

24.

The process depicted in the image above is best summarized by which of the following descriptions?

a)

During the synthesis phase of the cell cycle, DNA molecules replicate to generate identical daughter cells

b)

Centromeres align specific gene sequences of homologous chromosomes during mitotic divisions.

c)

The spindle apparatus attaches at chiasma during metaphase of mitosis.

d)

During meiosis, crossing over leads to recombination of alleles between homologous chromosomes

25.

Meiosis results in ______.

a)

4 genetically unique haploid gametes

b)

4 genetically unique diploid cells

c)

2 genetically identical cells

d)

4 genetically identical cells

26.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.  
a)
homozygous 
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
27.
In humans, if a non-disjunction event leads to an individual that is XXY, they would
a)
be female because they have 2 X chromosomes
b)
be male because they have a Y chromosome
c)
not survive
d)
have both male and female characteristics
28.
Chromosomes that do NOT play a role in determining the sex of an individual are called
a)
sex chromosoems
b)
X and Y
c)
autosomes
d)
A and B are correct
29.
A person with Turner syndrome has only one X chromosome. This means one of their gametes was missing a chromosome.
Which of the following is why gametes sometimes lack a complete chromosome?
a)
Incomplete dominance
b)
Nondisjunction
c)
Inversion mutation
d)
Substitution mutation
30.
What fraction of offspring from the cross AaBB x Aabb will be heterozygous for both traits?
a)
1/16
b)
4/16
c)
8/16
d)
3/16
31.

What is recombinant DNA

a)

DNA from 2 different organisms combined

b)

DNA from 2 different ribosomes

c)

DNA that is separated out from a vector

32.

Which of the following could be used as a vector for a human gene?

a)

Bacterial Plasmid

b)

Bacteria

c)

A mitochondria

d)

mRNA

33.

A circular piece of DNA, found in bacteria, is called:

a)

A plasmid

b)

mRNA

c)

Ribosome

d)

Nucleotide

34.
Gel electrophoresis enables scientists to
a)
separate DNA fragments.
b)
combine DNA fragments.
c)
count the genes in DNA.
d)
insert DNA in cells.
35.
Polymerase chain reaction is used to
a)
determine the sequence of DNA.
b)
make copies of a DNA sequence.
c)
selectively breed plants and animals.
d)
produce mutations in bacteria.
36.
Which is used to cut DNA molecules at specific points?
a)
gel electrophoresis
b)
PCR analysis
c)
a restriction enzyme
d)
recombinant DNA
37.
Transgenic organisms contain
a)
genes from other species.
b)
cells of another organism.
c)
genes of only one parent.
d)
one or more human genes.
38.
Genes found on DNA contain the instructions for making  
a)
pyrimidines 
b)
pyrimidines
c)
proteins
d)
purines
39.
Any change or mistake in DNA replication can cause a ________  
a)
cancer cell 
b)
virus
c)
disease
d)
mutation
40.
In humans, what would the blood type of a child be if she inherited type A from Dad and type B from Mom?
a)
O
b)
A
c)
B
d)
AB
41.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
42.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
43.
Seals the Okazaki fragments together
a)
DNA Polymerase
b)
ligase
c)
helicase
d)
primase
44.

This repetitive sequences of DNA on the ends of chromosomes (TTAGGG) for protection.

a)

telomeres

b)

telomerase

c)

Okazaki fragments

d)

primer

45.

How do the leading and the lagging strands differ?

a)

The leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction.

b)

The leading strand is synthesized at twice the rate of the lagging strand.

c)

The leading strand is synthesized in short fragments that are ultimately stitched together, whereas the lagging strand is synthesized continuously.

d)

The leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing strand, and the lagging strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 5? end.

46.
What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the strands that make up DNA?
a)
The twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands.
b)
One strand is positively charged and the other is negatively charged.
c)
The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other strand.
d)
Base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands
47.
What is meant that DNA replication follows a “semi-conservative” model?
a)
After DNA replication, each strand contains one side that is a parental strand and the other side is a daughter strand.
b)
After DNA replication, one completed strand contains only parental DNA while the other contains only daughter DNA.
c)
None of these identify the “semi-conservative” model.
d)
After DNA replication, one completed strand contains a mixture of both parental DNA and daughter DNA dispersed throughout the strand.
48.
Suppose a double-stranded DNA molecule was shown to have 15% adenine bases. What would be the expected percentage of guanine bases in that molecule?
a)
15%
b)
35%
c)
85%
d)
Not enough information
49.
Where does transcription occur in eukaryotic cells?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Rough E.R.
50.
What is the complementary tRNA anticodon to the following mRNA codon: AUG
a)
UAC
b)
TAC
c)
ATG
d)
AAC

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