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Pulmonary

Total questions: 111

Worksheet time: 4hrs 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Vital capacity is sum of which of the following?

a)

Tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume

b)

Inspiratory reserve volume and expiratory reserve volume

c)

Tidal volume and residual volume

d)

Tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, and expiratory reserve volume

2.

Which of the following pressure relationships hold true at the initiation of inspiration? [Palv= alveolar pressure; Patm= atmospheric pressure; Pip= Intrapleural pressure]

a)

Palv < Patm

b)

Palv = Patm

c)

Palv > Patm

d)

Palv + Pip = Patm

3.

Which of the following suggest an obstructive lung disease?

a)

FEV1/FVC=80%

b)

FEV1/FVC=1

c)

FEV1/FVC=55%

d)

FEV1/FVC=90%

4.

What would happen when the elastic recoil of the lung is lost?

a)

Bronchoconstriction

b)

Residual volume would be increased

c)

Reduced lung compliance

d)

Increased surface tension at the air-water interface in alveoli

5.

What would be the expected V/Q ratio value in a patient with pulmonary embolism?

a)

A normal value of 0.8

b)

Higher than normal

c)

Lower than normal

6.

Which sensory mechanisms of respiratory control are responsive to decrease in PaO2?

a)

Central chemoreceptors

b)

Peripheral chemoreceptors

c)

Irritant receptors

d)

Stretch receptors

e)

J receptors

7.

The effect of which of the following describes Bohr’s effect in relationship to shift in the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve?

a)

Effect of changes in hydrogen ion and carbon dioxide

b)

Effect of temperature

c)

Effect of 2,3-BPG

d)

Effect of oxygen on carbon dioxide binding to hemoglobin

8.

Which of the following cause a decrease in airway resistance?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

Histamine

d)

Leukotrienes

9.

Which of the following is an incorrect match between the disease and its characteristic?

a)

Asthma: commonly the disease onset occurs in middle aged adults

b)

Emphysema: destruction of lung parenchyma and loss of elastic recoil

c)

Chronic bronchitis: cough and sputum production for at least 3 months in 2 consecutive years

10.

Opioids are the drugs used as potent analgesics or painkillers. As a mechanism of one of their adverse effects, these drugs inhibit the pre-botzinger complex. Knowing what you have learnt about pre-botzinger complex, what would be the effect of the use of opioids on arterial PO2 and PCO2?

a)

An increase in PO2, a decrease in PCO2

b)

A decrease in PO2, no effect on PCO2

c)

An increase in PO2, no effect on PCO2

d)

A decrease in PO2, an increase in PCO2

11.

Which of the following refers to increase CO2 in arterial blood?

a)

Hypercapnia

b)

Hypoxemia

c)

Hypoxia

12.

Which of the following refers to reduced oxygenation of arterial blood?

a)

Hypercapnia

b)

Hypoxemia

c)

Hypoxia

13.

Which of the following refers to reduced oxygenation of cells in tissues?

a)

Hypercapnia

b)

Hypoxemia

c)

Hypoxia

14.

Which of the following are causes of hypercapnia?

a)

Hypoventilation of the alveoli

b)

Depression of the respiratory center by drugs and diseases of the medulla like infections or trauma

c)

Spinal cord disruption or poliomyelitis and diseases of neuromuscular junction- myasthenia gravis or muscular dystrophy

d)

Thoracic cage abnormalities: chest injury or congenital abnormalities

e)

Tumors that obstruct large airways, sleep apnea, and emphysema

15.

What are the consequences of hypercapnia?

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Somnolence

c)

Coma

d)

Secondary hypoxemia

e)

Compensatory hyperventilation

16.

Which of the following occurs when alveolar hypoventilation results in hypercapnia? Alveolar hypoventilation in relation to the metabolic production of CO2 produces respiratory acidosis by an increase in the concentration of carbonic acid.

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Somnolence

c)

Secondary hypoxemia

d)

Compensatory hyperventilation

17.

What is the compensatory mechanism for respiratory acidosis?

a)

Renal bicarbonate retention

b)

Hydrogen elimination

c)

Renal bicarbonate elimination

d)

Hydrogen retention

18.

What is the best explanation for why V/Q mismatch can lead to hypoxemia?

a)

V/Q matching would not be ideal, leading to inefficiency of gas exchange resulting in less oxygen brought in

b)

V/Q matching would be ideal, leading to efficiency of gas exchange resulting in more oxygen brought in

19.

What are the consequences of hypoxemia?

a)

Respiratory alkalosis

b)

End organ damage

c)

Coma

d)

Pulmonary hypertension leading to right sided heart failure or cor pulmonale

e)

Compensatory hyperventilation

20.

Which of the following are examples of obstructive lung diseases?

a)

Emphysema

b)

Chronic bronchitis

c)

Asthma

d)

Interstitial lung disease

e)

Sarcoidosis

21.

Which of the following are examples of restrictive lung diseases?

a)

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

b)

Pleural diseases

c)

Chest wall diseases

d)

Interstitial lung disease and infiltrative lung disease

e)

Sarcoidosis

22.

What is the normal FEV1/FVC ratio?

a)

0.8

b)

0.7

c)

0.9

d)

1

23.

Obstructive FEV1/FVC ratio is _____ than normal, while restrictive FEV1/FVC ratio is ___________ than normal.

a)

Lower; same or higher

b)

Higher: same or lower

c)

Same or higher; lower

d)

Same or lower: higher

24.

Which type of disease works at a higher lung volume compared to normal?

a)

Obstructive

b)

Restrictive

25.

Which type of disease works at a lower lung volume compared to normal?

a)

Obstructive

b)

Restrictive

26.

Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways in which many cells and cellular elements play a role: in particular, mast cells, eosinophils, T lymphocytes, macrophages, neutrophils, and epithelial cells. In susceptible individuals, this inflammation causes recurrent episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness, and coughing, particularly at night or in the early morning. These episodes are usually associated with widespread but variable airflow obstruction that is often reversible either spontaneously or with treatment. The inflammation also causes an associated increase in the existing bronchial hyperresponsiveness to a variety of stimuli. Reversibility of airflow limitation may be incomplete in some patients with asthma

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Which of the following are common symptoms of asthma?

a)

Wheezing

b)

Breathlessness

c)

Chest tightness

d)

Coughing especially at night or early morning

e)

Many of the symptoms can be related to trigger events

28.

The pathophysiology of asthma includes which cell types and the airway inflammation leading to:

a)

Airflow obstruction: Bronchoconstriction, bronchospasm, edema, mucus hypersecretion

b)

BHR-bronchial hyperresponsiveness

c)

Airway remodeling: in some patients

d)

Mediated by eosinophils, T cells, mast cells, macrophages, epithelial cells fibroblasts, bronchial smooth muscle cells

29.

Certain exposures cause inflammation causes a lot of eosinophils in these airways, which leads to airway _________, resulting in symptoms.

a)

Airway hyperresponsiveness

b)

Airway obstruction

c)

Airway remodeling

30.

Smooth muscle constriction, degranulation of mast cells (release of histamine), mucous plugs, mucus accumulation, and hyperinflation of alveoli describes:

a)

Airway hyperresponsiveness

b)

Airway obstruction

c)

Airway remodeling

31.

When airways change their characteristics to include fibrotic changes, scarring, thickening of basement membrane, epithelial membrane thickened, smooth muscle hypertrophy, and mucus plug formation describes:

a)

Airway hyperresponsiveness

b)

Airway obstruction

c)

Airway remodeling

32.

Decrease in FEV1 (obstruction), antigen exposure -> recognized and immunoglobulins will be formed. These Ig's will bind to mast cells will trigger mast cell degranulate (release histamine = bronchoconstriction) (minutes) describes:

a)

Immediate asthmatic reaction

b)

Late asthmatic reaction

c)

Chronic asthma

33.

After antigen presenting, other immune cells gets involved, such as eosinophils/cytokines. These trigger chemical mediators that result in submucosal edema and hyperresponsiveness (hours) describes:

a)

Immediate asthmatic reaction

b)

Late asthmatic reaction

c)

Chronic asthma

34.

Triggers eosinophilopoesis, makes more eosinophils in bone marrow. Leads to maturation of eosinophils, triggers chemical mediators that result in epithelial cell damage, mucus hypersecretion, and hyperresponsiveness (days) describes:

a)

Immediate asthmatic reaction

b)

Late asthmatic reaction

c)

Chronic asthma

35.

which of the following are characteristics of asthmatic bronchus?

a)

Disturbed organization

b)

Lost epithelial barrier (epithelial shedding)

c)

Eosinophil infiltration

d)

Mucous secretion

e)

Smooth muscle atrophy

36.

Which of the following are associated with chronic bronchitis?

a)

Inflammation of the bronchioles

b)

Small airway disease –airway inflammation and airway remodeling

c)

Defined as presence of cough and sputum production for at least 3 months in each of 2 consecutive years

d)

Destruction of lung parenchyma with a destruction of the alveolar walls

e)

Loss of elastic recoil

37.

Which of the following are associated with emphysema?

a)

Inflammation of the bronchioles

b)

Small airway disease –airway inflammation and airway remodeling

c)

Defined as presence of cough and sputum production for at least 3 months in each of 2 consecutive years

d)

Destruction of lung parenchyma with a destruction of the alveolar walls

e)

Loss of elastic recoil

38.
4 lines
39.

Which of the following account for why lung tissue is destroyed in COPD?

a)

Oxidative stress

b)

Excess proteinaeses

c)

Surfactant deficiency

d)

Release of toxic neurotransmitters

40.

What genetic deficiency has been linked to COPD?

a)

Deficiency of protective antiprotease alpha-1 antitrypsin (AAT)

b)

Surfactant deficiency

c)

Vitamin B complex deficiency

d)

Autosomal recessive inherited disorder

41.

What are the risk factors for COPD?

a)

Cigarette smoking

b)

Environmental exposures and genetic predisposition

c)

Asthma: can compound the risk of developing COPD and factors that affect lung growth during gestation and early childhood

d)

Infection –historical infection association

e)

Socioeconomic status –inversely proportional to risk

42.

What causes cystic fibrosis?

a)

Deficiency of protective antiprotease alpha-1 antitrypsin (AAT)

b)

Surfactant deficiency

c)

Vitamin B complex deficiency

d)

Autosomal recessive inherited disorder. CFTCR gene encodes an epithelial chloride transporter > 1800 mutations known in this gene. Mutations divided into 6 classes based on the severity of disease expressed.

43.

What are the manifestations of RSD?

a)

Signs of RDS appears within minutes of birth including tachypnea, expiratory grunting, intercoastal and subcostal retractions, nasal flaring, and cyanosis

b)

Severity tends to increase over the first 2 days of life

c)

Apnea and irregular respirations occur

d)

Ventilator support is often required

e)

Treatment is using exogenous administration of surfactant within 15-30 minutes of birth

44.

What causes RSD in newborns?

a)

Deficiency of protective antiprotease alpha-1 antitrypsin (AAT)

b)

Surfactant deficiency

c)

Vitamin B complex deficiency

d)

Autosomal recessive inherited disorder. CFTCR gene encodes an epithelial chloride transporter > 1800 mutations known in this gene. Mutations divided into 6 classes based on the severity of disease expressed.

45.

What are the manifestations of CF?

a)

Signs of RDS appears within minutes of birth including tachypnea, expiratory grunting, intercoastal and subcostal retractions, nasal flaring, and cyanosis

b)

Persistent cough, wheeze, excessive sputum production, and recurrent or severe pneumonia

c)

Apnea and irregular respirations occur

d)

Barrel chest develops over time, also digital clubbing

e)

Screening for newborn is common

46.

What is the function of the pleural sac in pulmonary physiology?

a)

Allows the layers to slide over each other as the lungs inflate and deflate during respiration

b)

The outer wall adheres to the chest cavity and the inner wall adheres to the lungs and creates a closed compartment

c)

To form a blood-lung barrier

d)

To aid in the physical movement of inflation and deflation

47.

What is the function of the intrapleural fluid in pulmonary physiology?

a)

Allows the layers to slide over each other as the lungs inflate and deflate during respiration

b)

The outer wall adheres to the chest cavity and the inner wall adheres to the lungs and creates a closed compartment

c)

To form a blood-lung barrier

d)

To aid in the physical movement of inflation and deflation

48.

What is a pneumothorax?

a)

Lungs collapsed when chest wall is opened

b)

Lungs collapsed when chest wall is closed

c)

Lungs expand when chest wall is opened

d)

Lungs expand when chest wall is closed

49.

Made of nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, up until terminal bronchioles. No alveoli or gas exchange. Conduct, clean, warm, and moisten air. “Anatomic dead space” describes:

a)

Conducting zone (upper)

b)

Respiratory zone (lower)

50.

Made of respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, alveoli. Where gas exchange takes place describes:

a)

Conducting zone (upper)

b)

Respiratory zone (lower)

51.

Which of the following are associated with the conducting zone?

a)

Provides low resistance pathway for air to flow

b)

Defends against microbes, toxic chemicals via mucus, cilia, phagocytes

c)

Warms and moistens air

d)

Helps with vocalization – vocal cords

e)

Where gas exchange takes place

52.

List the parts of the lower respiratory tract starting from trachea.

a)

Trachea, primary left and right primary bronchi, secondary bronchioles, tertiary bronchioles, terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, and alveoli

b)

no

53.

How many generations are there in the lower respiratory tract?

a)

23

b)

16

c)

7

d)

30

54.

Describe the features of alveoli that allow efficient gas exchange in the alveoli.

a)

Large surface area to absorb oxygen

b)

Moist surface to allow oxygen to dissolve

c)

Thin lining to allow easy diffusion of gases

d)

Dense network of blood capillaries to allow easy gas exchange

55.

Choose the correct pairs of cells found in alveoli.

a)

Mostly type 1 alveolar cells which have very thin walls to allow for easy gas exchange

b)

Type 2 alveolar cells which secrete surfactants and therefore reduces the surface tension in the alveoli

c)

Type 1 alveolar cells which secrete surfactants and therefore reduces the surface tension in the alveoli

d)

Mostly type 2 alveolar cells which have very thin walls to allow for easy gas exchange

56.

Describe the histological/cellular characteristics of the walls of the respiratory passages in the trachea/bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli.

a)

Trachea/bronchi have large lumen and goblet cells (mucus secretion), columnar cells, capillaries, cartilage, glands

b)

Bronchioles have cuboidal cells and a thin layer of water and mucus

c)

Alveoli have Type and Type II (secrete surfactant) alveolar cells

d)

Bronchioles have squamous cells and a thick layer of water and mucus

e)

Trachea/bronchi have small lumen and goblet cells (mucus secretion), cuboidal cells, capillaries, cartilage, glands

57.

Which of the following are true for MCC?

a)

MCC = mucociliary clearance

b)

It is the innate defense mechanism of the lungs to remove inhaled insoluble particles in the normal host.

c)

Inhaled particles that get stuck in the mucus of the ciliated airways are trapped in a blanket of mucus which covers the epithelium of lungs

d)

MCC can change in certain situations such as when dust, bacteria, and smoke. This will result in reduced MCC.

e)

Movement of mucus depends on chloride secretion (cystic fibrosis = defect in channel = thick mucus).

58.

Facilitates gas exchange, delivers nutrients, reservoir for left ventricle and serves as filtering system. Pulmonary artery divides and enters the lungs at the root branching. Capillary walls fuse with basement membrane of the alveolar septum. Each pulmonary vein drains several pulmonary capillaries. Pulmonary circulation carries deoxygenated blood away from heart to lungs and returns oxygenated back to heart.

a)

Pulmonary circulation

b)

Bronchial circulation

c)

Pulmonary lymphatic capillaries

59.

Part of systemic circulation. Supplies conducting airways, large pulmonary vessels, and pleura. Does not participate in gas exchange. Supplies blood to larger airways of lungs.

a)

Pulmonary circulation

b)

Bronchial circulation

c)

Pulmonary lymphatic capillaries

60.

Role in immune defense. Consists of deep and superficial lymphatic capillaries. Characterized by presence of macrophages.

a)

Pulmonary circulation

b)

Bronchial circulation

c)

Pulmonary lymphatic capillaries

61.

What factors control pulmonary circulation?

a)

Pressures in pulmonary circulation are low

b)

Humoral factors (stuff transported in circulation) control vasoconstriction or relaxation, although ANS nerves also important

c)

Most important cause of pulmonary vasoconstriction is low alveolar PO2 = hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction

d)

Pressures in pulmonary circulation are high

62.

Which of the following are true for how gravity regulates pulmonary blood flow in different parts of the lungs?

a)

The pulmonary blood flow is influenced by the position of the body

b)

If standing/sitting, then there’s a lot more blood at the base of the lungs. Same for lying on side or on back, blood flows to the base of whichever direction. This influences the pressures in the lungs.

c)

Smaller the alveolar shape/more compressed = greater the blood supply/pressure.

d)

Gravity has no affect on pulmonary blood flow in different parts of the lungs

63.

Choose the correct pairs alveoli differences at the apex vs the bottom of the lungs.

a)

At top of lung (apex) = alveoli are much bigger

b)

At bottom of lung = alveoli are much smaller because they are compressed via gravity

c)

At top of lung (apex) = alveoli are much smaller because they are compressed via gravity

d)

At bottom of lung = alveoli are much bigger

64.

Clearance (cough and MCC), secretions (mucus, surfactant, cellular components - lysozyme), cellular defenses (nonphagocytic - epithelium or phagocytic – blood and tissue), and biochemical defenses (proteinase inhibitors, antioxidants) describes:

a)

Nonspecific defenses

b)

Specific defenses

65.

Ab mediated (IgA), Ag presentation to lymphocytes (macrophages and monocytes, dendritic cells, epithelial cells), Cell mediated/T cell dependent response (cytokine mediated and direct cell cytotoxicity), and nonlymphocytic cellular immune response (mast cell dependent and eosinophil dependent) describes:

a)

Nonspecific defenses

b)

Specific defenses

66.

Which muscles participate in inspiration?

a)

Diaphragm

b)

External intercostals

c)

Internal intercostals

d)

Internal obliques

67.

Which are the correct pairs:

a)

Quiet expiration is a passive process that involves when inspiratory muscles relax, and the elastic recoil of the lung forces the air out

b)

Forced expiration is an active process involved with the internal intercostals and abdominal muscles (not used much)

c)

Quiet expiration is an active process involved with the internal intercostals and abdominal muscles (not used much)

d)

Forced expiration is a passive process that involves when inspiratory muscles relax, and the elastic recoil of the lung forces the air out

68.

Which of the following are associated with inspiration?

a)

Steps of inspiration: diaphragm and inspiratory intercostals contract > thorax expands > Pip (intrapleural pressure) becomes sub-atmospheric > (Ptp) transpulmonary pressure > lungs expand > Palv (alveolar pressure) becomes sub-atmospheric > air flows into alveoli

b)

Air moves in and out of lungs due to changes in pressure of alveoli by atmospheric pressure

c)

Inspiration = decrease in alveolar and intrapleural pressure with increase in volume of breath

d)

Air moves in and out of lungs due to lack of change in pressure of alveoli by atmospheric pressure

e)

Inspiration = increase in alveolar and intrapleural pressure with decrease in volume of breath

69.

The magnitude of change in lung volume produced by a given change in transpulmonary pressure is:

a)

Lung compliance

b)

Total lung capacity

c)

Risidual volume

d)

Ventilation

70.

What would be the effect of increase or decrease in lung compliance?

a)

Increase in lung compliance would result in easier to expand lungs

b)

Decrease in lung compliance would result in greater effort needed to be applied to produce lung expansion

c)

Decrease in lung compliance would result in easier to expand lungs

d)

Increase in lung compliance would result in greater effort needed to be applied to produce lung expansion

71.

What factors affect lung compliance.

a)

Surface tension

b)

Stretch ability of lung tissue

c)

Vasoconstriction

d)

Pressures in pulmonary circulation

72.

Which of the following are true for elastic recoil?

a)

Elastic recoil is the elasticity of the lungs (deflates them when they relax)

b)

It is the tendency for something to oppose being stretched or distorted

c)

Elastic recoil affects compliance by being the INVERSE of elastic recoil

d)

Thickening of lung tissue will decrease lung compliance

73.

Refers to the cohesive state that occurs at a liquid-gas interface or liquid-liquid interface. Within the lungs, this occurs at the interface between the alveolar membrane and the airway. Increased ______________ increases cohesion within the alveoli, pulling the alveoli closed. Compliance is more easily achieved by decreasing ____________:

a)

Surface tension

b)

Elastic recoil

c)

Surfactant

d)

Lung compliance

74.

Decreases surface tension, increases alveolar stability, prevents transudation (increased filtration and decreased absorption). Secretion of ________ decreases when breaths are small and constant and is stimulated to be released from stretching of Type II Alveolar cells by deep breathing.

a)

Surface tension

b)

Elastic recoil

c)

Surfactant

d)

Lung compliance

75.

Describe the composition of pulmonary surfactant.

a)

It is a lipoprotein with components dipalmitoyl phosphatidyl choline (DPPC) and surfactant proteins A, B, C, D

b)

It is a lipoprotein with components dipalmitoyl phosphatidyl choline (DPPC) and surfactant proteins W, X, Y, Z

c)

It is a carbohydrate with components dipalmitoyl phosphatidyl choline (DPPC) and surfactant proteins W, X, Y, Z

d)

It is a carbohydrate with components dipalmitoyl phosphatidyl choline (DPPC) and surfactant proteins A, B, C, D

76.

Which of the following statements is false:

a)

Surface tension facilitates/increases elastic recoil

b)

Surfactant reduces elastic recoil

c)

Lung compliance goes up when you reduce surface tension

d)

When you increase surfactant, you decrease surface tension and therefore increase compliance

e)

Surface tension decreases surfactant which increases residual volume

77.

Which of the following are associated with alveolar-blood gas exchange?

a)

Dalton’s law - That a mixture of gases have a pressure that is the sum of the partial pressures of each gas

b)

What determines the gas flow from one site to another? Gas flows from high partial pressure to an area of low partial pressure

c)

Via diffusion across cell membrane from area of high to low concentration. There is diffusion of gas from alveoli to blood by as blood flows through alveolar capillary, there is a diffusion of gases until equilibrium is reached.

78.
4 lines
79.

_____ shift means decreased affinity (WANT) for Hb and ____ shift means increased affinity for Hb

a)

Right; left

b)

Left; right

80.

What factors regulate right and left shift in the oxygen hemoglobin saturation curves?

a)

pH - Lower pH causes shift to right

b)

Temperature - increase in temp shifts to right

c)

BPG - An increase in 2,3 – BPG causes right shift

d)

CO2 - High CO2 levels cause a decrease in pH which shifts curve to right

81.

The shift in oxy-hemoglobin dissociation curve caused by changes in carbon dioxide and [H+] ion in the blood is called:

a)

Bohr's effect

b)

Dalton's Law

c)

Haldane effect

d)

Boyle's Law

82.

What are mechanisms of CO2 transport in the blood?

a)

Physically dissolved in blood

b)

Carbamino compounds (mainly carbamino Hb bc most abundant protein)

c)

Bicarbonate ion (80-90% of CO2 carries as HCO3)

d)

Converted to CO

83.

The ability of deoxygenated hemoglobin to carry more CO2 than in the oxygenated state. It causes venous blood to carry more CO2 than arterial blood and better facilitates CO2 release in lungs is called:

a)

Bohr's effect

b)

Dalton's Law

c)

Haldane effect

d)

Boyle's Law

84.

It measures lung function, specifically the amount and/or speed of air that can be inhaled and exhaled is called:

a)

Spirometer

b)

PulseOx

c)

Peak flow meter

d)

Positive Expiratory Pressure (PEP) device

85.

Choose correct pairs:

a)

Lung volumes are the measure of amount of air for one function (like inhalation or exhalation)

b)

Lung capacities is any two or more lung volumes (like how much can be inhaled from a maximal exhalation)

c)

Lung volumes is any two or more lung volumes (like how much can be inhaled from a maximal exhalation)

d)

Lung capacities are the measure of amount of air for one function (like inhalation or exhalation)

86.

Volume of air entering lungs in normal breathing (~500 mL) describes:

a)

Tidal volume (TD)

b)

Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

c)

Residual volume (RV)

d)

Functional residual capacity (FRC)

87.

The volume expelled by an active expiratory effort below TV describes:

a)

Tidal volume (TD)

b)

Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

c)

Residual volume (RV)

d)

Functional residual capacity (FRC)

88.

The air left in the lungs after a maximal exhalation describes:

a)

Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

b)

Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

c)

Residual volume (RV)

d)

Functional residual capacity (FRC)

89.

Volume of air remaining in the lungs at the end of a quiet expiration. Is sum of RV and ERV (RV + ERV) describes:

a)

Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

b)

Vital capacity (VC)

c)

Residual volume (RV)

d)

Functional residual capacity (FRC)

90.

The air inspired over the TV with a maximal inspiratory effect describes:

a)

Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

b)

Vital capacity (VC)

c)

Residual volume (RV)

d)

Forced vital capacity (FVC)

91.

Maximal amount of air that can be exhaled after a maximal inspiration (= TV + IRV + ERV) describes:

a)

Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

b)

Vital capacity (VC)

c)

Forced expiratory volume (FEV1)

d)

Forced vital capacity (FVC)

92.

The VC when measured on a forced expiration describes:

a)

Total lung capacity (TLC)

b)

Vital capacity (VC)

c)

Forced expiratory volume (FEV1)

d)

Forced vital capacity (FVC)

93.

In the first second, the volume of air exhaled during the first second of the FVC maneuver (usually 80% of FVC) describes:

a)

Total lung capacity (TLC)

b)

Vital capacity (VC)

c)

Forced expiratory volume (FEV1)

d)

Forced vital capacity (FVC)

94.

The sum of residual volume (RV) and the vital capacity (VC). Is the total amount of gas in lungs/thoracic gas describes:

a)

Total lung capacity (TLC)

b)

Vital capacity (VC)

c)

Forced expiratory volume (FEV1)

d)

Forced vital capacity (FVC)

95.

_____________ is the volume of air located in the respiratory tract segments (conducting airways) that are responsible for conducting air to the alveoli and respiratory bronchioles but do not take part in the process of gas exchange itself.

a)

Anatomical dead space

b)

Physiological dead space

96.

_____________ can be thought of as areas of the lung that are well ventilated but poorly perfused; hence, much of the ventilation to those areas is “wasted.” That is, the well-ventilated areas add little to gas exchange for lack of adequate perfusion.

a)

Anatomical dead space

b)

Physiological dead space

97.

What physical factors influence airway resistance?

a)

Airways held open by transpulmonary pressure and lateral traction (wider airways during inspiration)

b)

Airways may be partially or totally occluded by mucus accumulation

c)

Temperature

d)

Diffusion across cell membrane

98.

What chemical factors influence airway resistance?

a)

Parasympathetic nerves = constricts

b)

Adrenergic nerves = dilates

c)

Histamine = constricts

d)

Leukotrienes = constricts

99.

Respiratory center in the brainstem is in the brain stem (medulla) controls respiration by transmitting impulses to respiratory muscles causing them to contract and relax. Composed of several groups of neurons.

a)

True

b)

False

100.

What are the specialized neurons that form the respiratory center?

a)

Dorsal respiratory group (DRG)

b)

Ventral respiratory group (VRG)

c)

Pneumotaxic center

d)

Apneustic center

101.

Which of the following are true about the prebotzinger complex?

a)

It is a neural network responsible for inspiration during respiratory activity

b)

“Respiratory rhythm generator” – cells in the complex are thought to be the pacemakers of the respiratory rhythm

c)

Receives projections from DRG and VRG

d)

Respond to noxious gases, aerosols, and particulate matter

102.

In epithelium of conducting airways. Respond to noxious gases, aerosols, and particulate matter. Trigger cough, bronchoconstriction and increase ventilation rate activates which lung receptor:

a)

Irritant receptors (C fibers)

b)

Stretch receptors

c)

J-receptors

103.

Localized in smooth muscle airways and sensitive to increases in size or volume of lungs. Stimulation results in decrease in ventilation rate and volume activates which lung receptor:

a)

Irritant receptors (C fibers)

b)

Stretch receptors

c)

J-receptors

104.

Located near capillaries in the alveolar septa. Sensitive to increased pulmonary capillary pressure, which stimulates them to initiate rapid, shallow breathing which causes hypotension and bradycardia activates which lung receptor:

a)

Irritant receptors (C fibers)

b)

Stretch receptors

c)

J-receptors

105.

Which of the following are associated with central chemoreceptors:

a)

Regulate minute to minute changes in pH, located near respiratory center, monitor blood pH indirectly by sensing changes in CSF pH (CO2 from blood can diffuse across BBB), responsive to very small changes in pH and therefore changes in PCO2

b)

Inadequate ventilation -> PCO2 increases  CO2 diffusion into CSF increases -> stimulates central chemoreceptor -> stimulates respiratory center to increase the depth and rate of ventilation.

c)

Don’t regulate minute to minute changes in respiration, located in carotid artery and aortic arch, kinda sensitive to changes in PCO2 and pH -> most sensitive to O2 levels in blood. PO2 must fall below 60 mmHg before peripheral chemoreceptors are activated

d)

A decrease in PO2 and pH triggers peripheral chemoreceptors -> signal to respiratory center  increase in ventilation

106.

How is ventilatory rate controlled in response to changes in oxygen and carbon dioxide partial pressures?

a)

As PO2 decreases, ventilation decreases. As PCO2 increases, ventilation rate increases = becoming more acidic.

b)

As PO2 increases, ventilation decreases. As PCO2 decreases, ventilation rate increases = becoming more acidic.

107.

Which gas is the sensory system more responsive to?

a)

CO2

b)

CO

c)

O2

d)

O

108.
4 lines
109.

When CO2 levels are high then that decreases the pH and makes it more acidic and this is sensed by central chemoreceptors. When CO2 levels are high there is increased ventilation, and the central chemoreceptors are activated to increase rate and depth of ventilation in order to expel CO2 faster.

a)

True

b)

False

110.

____________ innervation causes bronchoconstriction. Dilation of pulmonary vessels. Secretion of mucus from bronchioles.

a)

Parasympathetic

b)

Sympathetic

111.

____________ innervation causes bronchodilation. Constriction of pulmonary vessels. Inhibits secretion of mucus from bronchioles.

a)

Parasympathetic

b)

Sympathetic