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Bio exam 3 quiz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The earliest terrestrial plants likely evolved from which one of the following?

a)

Trees

b)

Fungi

c)

Bacteria orFish

d)

Algae

2.

What is the term for small openings found in plants that are involved in gas exchange and water loss?

a)

Phloem

Roots

b)

Xylem

c)

Stomata

d)

Shoots

3.

2. Early plants may have used the base of their stems for anchoring and absorbing functions, or they may have used ___, which are hair-like outgrowths that anchor a plant in place.

a)

Phloem

b)

Stomata

c)

Rhomboids

d)

Rhizoids

4.

The extracellular space that surround the symplast, one that contains everything outside of the plasma membrane, like the cell walls and spaces between cells is known as the:

a)

Symplast

b)

Apoplast

c)

Plasmodesma

d)

Cytosol

5.

1. The cytosol of all the living cells in a plant, as well as the plasmodesmata together is known as the:

a)

None of these answers is correct

b)

Symplast

c)

Cell membrane

d)

Plasma membrane

6.

2. What is the name for a route where water and solutes use a combination of the apoplastic and symplastic modes of transportation to transport things within a plant?

a)

Protoplastic route

b)

Transmembrane route

c)

Apoplastic route

d)

Symplastic route

7.

What do we call the solution of water and solutes that travels through the transport tissues of a plant?

a)

The solute

b)

The sap

c)

The xylem

d)

The plant juice

8.

Which plant tissue is responsible for transporting water up from the roots?

a)

The xylem

b)

The sieve-tube elements

c)

The chloroplast

d)

The phloem

9.

What two forces are the driving factors behind xylem transportation?

a)

Tension and cohesion

b)

Photosynthesis and mitosis

c)

Hydrostatic pressure and temperature

d)

Solutes and sap

10.

A fruit is

a)

a mature ovary.

b)

 a mature ovule.

c)

a seed plus its integuments.

d)

an enlarged embryo sac.

11.

Double fertilization means that

a)

flowers must be pollinated twice to yield fruits and seeds.

b)

every egg must receive two sperm to produce an embryo.

c)

one sperm is needed to fertilize the egg, and a second sperm

is needed to fertilize the polar nuclei.

d)

every sperm has two nuclei.

12.

“Bt maize”

a)

) is resistant to various herbicides, making it practical to

weed rice fields with those herbicides

b)

contains transgenes that increase vitamin A content.

c)

includes bacterial genes that produce a toxin that reduces

damage from insect pests.

d)

is a “boron (B)-tolerant” transgenic variety of maize

13.

Which statement concerning grafting is correct?

a)

Stocks and scions refer to twigs of different species.

b)

Stocks and scions must come from unrelated species.

c)

Stocks provide root systems for grafting.

d)

Grafting creates new species

14.

Some dioecious species have the XY genotype for male and

XX for female. After double fertilization, what would be the

genotypes of the embryos and endosperm nuclei?

a)

embryo XY/endosperm XXX or embryo XX/endosperm XXY

b)

embryo XX/endosperm XX or embryo XY/endosperm XY

c)

embryo XX/endosperm XXX or embryo XY/endosperm XYY

d)

embryo XX/endosperm XXX or embryo XY/endosperm XXY

15.

A small flower with green petals is most likely

a)

bee-pollinated.

b)

bird-pollinated.

c)

bat-pollinated

d)

wind-pollinated.

16.

The black dots that cover strawberries are actually fruits formed from the separate carpels of a single flower. The fleshy and tasty portion of a strawberry derives from the receptacle of a flower with many separate carpels. Therefore, a strawberry is

a)

a simple fruit with many seeds.

b)

both a multiple fruit and an accessory fruit.

c)

both a simple fruit and an aggregate fruit.

d)

both an aggregate fruit and an accessory fruit

17.

 The hormone that helps plants respond to

drought is

a)

auxin.

b)

abscisic acid.

c)

cytokinin.

d)

ethylene.

18.

Auxin enhances cell elongation in all of these ways except

a)

increased uptake of solutes.

b)

gene activation.

c)

acid-induced denaturation of cell wall proteins.

d)

cell wall loosening.

19.

Charles and Francis Darwin discovered that

a)

auxin is responsible for phototropic curvature.

b)

red light is most effective in shoot phototropism.

c)

light destroys auxin.

d)

light is perceived by the tips of coleoptiles.

20.

4. How may a plant respond to severe heat stress?

a)

) by reorienting leaves to increase evaporative cooling

b)

by creating air tubes for ventilation

c)

by producing heat-shock proteins, which may protect the

plant’s proteins from denaturing

d)

by increasing the proportion of unsaturated fatty acids

in cell membranes, reducing their fluidity

21.

The signaling molecule for flowering might be released earlier

than usual in a long-day plant exposed to flashes of

a)

far-red light during the night.

b)

red light during the night.

c)

red light followed by far-red light during the night.

d)

far-red light during the day

22.

If a long-day plant has a critical night length of 9 hours, which 24-hour cycle would prevent flowering

a)

16 hours light/8 hours dark

b)

14 hours light/10 hours dark

c)

4 hours light/8 hours dark/4 hours light/8 hours dark

d)

8 hours light/8 hours dark/light flash/8 hours dark

23.

 A plant mutant that shows normal gravitropic bending but

does not store starch in its plastids would require a reevaluation

of the role of _____________ in gravitropism.

a)

auxin

b)

calcium

c)

 statoliths

d)

differential growth

24.

The body tissue that consists largely of material

located outside of cells is

a)

epithelial tissue.

b)

connective tissue.

c)

muscle tissue.

d)

nervous tissue

25.

Which of the following would increase the rate of heat

exchange between an animal and its environment?

a)

feathers or fur

b)

vasoconstriction

c)

wind blowing across the body surface

d)

countercurrent heat exchanger

26.

Consider the energy budgets for a human, an elephant, a

penguin, a mouse, and a snake. The __________ would have the highest total annual energy expenditure, and the__________ would have the highest energy expenditure per unit mass.

a)

elephant; mouse

b)

elephant; human

c)

mouse; snake

d)

penguin; mouse

27.

Compared with a smaller cell, a larger cell of the same

shape has

a)

less surface area.

b)

less surface area per unit of volume.

c)

the same surface-area-to-volume ratio.

d)

a smaller cytoplasm-to-nucleus ratio.

28.

An animal’s inputs of energy and materials would exceed

its outputs

a)

) if the animal is an endotherm, which must always take in

more energy because of its high metabolic rate.

b)

if it is actively foraging for food.

c)

if it is growing and increasing its mass.

d)

never; due to homeostasis, these energy and material

budgets always balance.

29.

You are studying a large tropical reptile that has a high and

relatively stable body temperature. How do you determine

whether this animal is an endotherm or an ectotherm?

a)

You know from its high and stable body temperature that it

must be an endotherm.

b)

You subject this reptile to various temperatures in the lab

and find that its body temperature and metabolic rate

change with the ambient temperature. You conclude that it

is an ectotherm.

c)

You note that its environment has a high and stable temperature. Because its body temperature matches the environ[1]mental temperature, you conclude that it is an ectotherm

d)

You measure the metabolic rate of the reptile, and because

it is higher than that of a related species that lives in temperate forests, you conclude that this reptile is an endotherm and its relative is an ectotherm.

30.

Which of the following animals uses the largest percentage of its energy budget for homeostatic regulation?

a)

marine jelly (an invertebrate)

b)

snake in a temperate forest

c)

desert insect

d)

desert bird

31.

Fat digestion yields fatty acids and glycerol. Protein digestion yields amino acids. Both digestive processes

a)

occur inside cells in most animals.

b)

add a water molecule to break bonds.

c)

require a low pH resulting from HCl production

d)

consume ATP.

32.

The mammalian trachea and esophagus both connect to the

a)

pharynx

b)

stomach.

c)

large intestine

d)

rectum

33.

Which of the following organs is incorrectly paired with its function?

a)

stomach—protein digestion

b)

large intestine—bile production

c)

small intestine—nutrient absorption

d)

pancreas—enzyme production

34.

Which of the following is not a major activity of the stomach?

a)

storage

b)

HCl production

c)

nutrient absorption

d)

enzyme secretion

35.

If you put the following events in the order they occur in the human digestive system, the third event in the series would be

a)

Cells in gastric pits secrete protons.

b)

Pepsin activates pepsinogen.

c)

HCl activates pepsinogen

d)

Partially digested food enters the small intestine.

36.

After surgical removal of the gallbladder, a person might need to limit his or her dietary intake of

a)

starch

b)

protein.

c)

sugar

d)

fat.

37.

If you were to jog 1 km a few hours after lunch, which stored fuel would you probably tap?

a)

muscle proteins

b)

muscle and liver glycogen

c)

fat in the liver

d)

fat in adipose tissue

38.

Which of the following respiratory systems is not closely associated with a blood supply?

a)

the lungs of a vertebrate

b)

the gills of a fish

c)

the tracheal system of an insect

d)

the skin of an earthworm

39.

Blood returning to the mammalian heart in a pulmonary vein drains first into the

a)

left atrium

b)

right atrium.

c)

left ventricle

d)

right ventricle.

40.

Pulse is a direct measure of

a)

blood pressure.

b)

stroke volume.

c)

cardiac output.

d)

heart rate.

41.

When you hold your breath, which of the following blood gas changes first leads to the urge to breathe?

a)

rising O2

b)

falling O2

c)

rising CO2

d)

falling CO2

42.

One feature that amphibians and humans have in common is

a)

the number of heart chambers

b)

a complete separation of circuits for circulation

c)

the number of circuits for circulation

d)

a low blood pressure in the systemic circuit

43.

f a molecule of CO2 released into the blood in your left toe is exhaled from your nose, it must pass through all of the following except

a)

the pulmonary vein

b)

the trachea

c)

the right atrium

d)

the right ventricle.

44.

Compared with the interstitial fluid that bathes active muscle cells, blood reaching these cells in arterioles has a

a)

higher PO2

b)

higher PCO2

c)

greater bicarbonate concentration

d)

lower pH

45.

Which of these is not part of insect immunity?

a)

enzyme activation of pathogen-killing chemicals

b)

activation of natural killer cells

c)

phagocytosis by hemocytes

d)

production of antimicrobial peptides

46.

An epitope associates with which part of an antigen receptor or antibody?

a)

the tail

b)

the heavy-chain constant regions only

c)

variable regions of a heavy chain and light chain combined

d)

the light-chain constant regions only

47.

Which statement best describes the difference between responses of effector B cells (plasma cells) and those of cytotoxic T cells?

a)

B cells confer active immunity; cytotoxic T cells confer passive immunity

b)

B cells respond the first time a pathogen is present; cytotoxic T cells respond subsequent times.

c)

B cells respond the first time a pathogen is present; cytotoxic T cells respond subsequent times.

d)

B cells carry out the cell-mediated response; cytotoxic T cells carry out the humoral response.

48.

Which of the following statements is not true?

a)

An antibody has more than one antigen-binding site.

b)

A lymphocyte has receptors for multiple different antigens.

c)

An antigen can have different epitopes.

d)

A liver or muscle cell makes one class of MHC molecule.

49.

Which of the following should be the same in identical twins?

a)

the set of antibodies produced

b)

the set of MHC molecules produced

c)

the set of T cell antigen receptors produced

d)

the set of immune cells eliminated as self-reactive

50.

Vaccination increases the number of

a)

different receptors that recognize a pathogen

b)

lymphocytes with receptors that can bind to the pathogen

c)

epitopes that the immune system can recognize

d)

MHC molecules that can present an antigen

51.

Which of the following would not help a virus avoid triggering an adaptive immune response?

a)

having frequent mutations in genes for surface proteins

b)

infecting cells that produce very few MHC molecules

c)

producing proteins very similar to those of other viruses

d)

infecting and killing helper T cells

52.

Unlike an earthworm’s metanephridia, a mammalian nephron

a)

is intimately associated with a capillary network.

b)

functions in both osmoregulation and excretion

c)

receives filtrate from blood instead of coelomic fluid

d)

has a transport epithelium

53.

Which process in the nephron is least selective?

a)

filtration

b)

reabsorption

c)

active transport

d)

secretion

54.

Which of the following animals generally has the lowest volume of urine production?

a)

vampire bat

b)

salmon in fresh water

c)

marine bony fish

d)

freshwater flatworm

55.

The high osmolarity of the renal medulla is maintained by all of the following except

a)

active transport of salt from the upper region of the ascending limb

b)

the spatial arrangement of juxtamedullary nephrons.

c)

diffusion of urea from the collecting duct.

d)

diffusion of salt from the descending limb of the loop of Henle

56.

In which of the following species should natural selection favor the highest proportion of juxtamedullary nephrons?

a)

a river otter

b)

a mouse species living in a temperate broadleaf forest

c)

a mouse species living in a desert

d)

a beaver

57.

African lungfish, which are often found in small stagnant pools of fresh water, produce urea as a nitrogenous waste. What is the advantage of this adaptation?

a)

Urea takes less energy to synthesize than ammonia

b)

Small stagnant pools do not provide enough water to dilute ammonia, which is toxic

c)

Urea forms an insoluble precipitate

d)

Urea makes lungfish tissue hypoosmotic to the pool

58.

Which of the following is not an accurate statement?

a)

Hormones are chemical messengers that travel to target cells through the circulatory system.

b)

Hormones often regulate homeostasis through antagonistic functions.

c)

Hormones of the same chemical class usually have the same function

d)

Hormones are often regulated through feedback loops.

59.

The hypothalamus

a)

synthesizes all of the hormones produced by the pituitary gland

b)

influences the function of only one lobe of the pituitary gland.

c)

produces only inhibitory hormones

d)

regulates both reproduction and body temperature.

60.

Growth factors are local regulators that

a)

are produced by the anterior pituitary

b)

are modified fatty acids that stimulate bone and cartilage growth.

c)

are found on the surface of cancer cells and stimulate abnormal cell division

d)

bind to cell-surface receptors and stimulate growth and development of target cells.

61.

Which hormone is incorrectly paired with its action?

a)

oxytocin—stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth

b)

thyroxine—inhibits metabolic processes

c)

ACTH—stimulates the release of glucocorticoids by the adrenal cortex

d)

melatonin—affects biological rhythms and seasonal reproduction

62.

What do steroid and peptide hormones typically have in common?

a)

their solubility in cell membranes

b)

their requirement for travel through the bloodstream

c)

the location of their receptors

d)

their reliance on signal transduction in the cell

63.

Which of the following is the most likely explanation for hypothyroidism in a patient whose iodine level is normal?

a)

greater production of T3 than of T4

b)

hyposecretion of TSH

c)

hypersecretion of MSH

d)

a decrease in the thyroid secretion of calcitonin

64.

The relationship between the insect hormones ecdysteroid and PTTH is an example of

a)

an interaction of the endocrine and nervous systems

b)

homeostasis achieved by positive feedback

c)

homeostasis maintained by antagonistic hormones

d)

competitive inhibition of a hormone receptor

65.

Which of the following characterizes parthenogenesis?

a)

An individual may change its sex during its lifetime

b)

Specialized groups of cells grow into new individuals.

c)

An organism is first a male and then a female

d)

An egg develops without being fertilized.

66.

In male mammals, excretory and reproductive systems share

a)

the vas deferens

b)

the urethra

c)

the seminal vesicle

d)

the prostate

67.

Which of the following is not properly paired?

a)

seminiferous tubule—cervix

b)

vas deferens—oviduct

c)

testosterone—estradiol

d)

) scrotum—labia majora

68.

Peaks of LH and FSH production occur during

a)

the menstrual flow phase of the uterine cycle

b)

the beginning of the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle

c)

the period just before ovulation

d)

the secretory phase of the uterine cycle

69.

During human gestation, rudiments of all organs develop

a)

) in the first trimester.

b)

in the second trimester.

c)

in the third trimester

d)

during the blastocyst stage.

70.

Which of the following is a true statement?

a)

All mammals have menstrual cycles

b)

The endometrial lining is shed in menstrual cycles but reabsorbed in estrous cycles

c)

Estrous cycles are more frequent than menstrual cycles.

d)

Ovulation occurs before the endometrium thickens in estrous cycles

71.

For which of the following is the number the same in human males and females?

a)

interruptions in meiotic divisions

b)

functional gametes produced by meiosis

c)

meiotic divisions required to produce each gamete

d)

different cell types produced by meiosis

72.

Which statement about human reproduction is false?

a)

Fertilization occurs in the oviduct

b)

Spermatogenesis and oogenesis require different temperatures

c)

An oocyte completes meiosis after a sperm penetrates it.

d)

The earliest stages of spermatogenesis occur closest to the lumen of the seminiferous tubules

73.

The cortical reaction of sea urchin eggs functions directly in

a)

the formation of a fertilization envelope.

b)

the production of a fast block to polyspermy

c)

the generation of an electrical impulse by the egg

d)

the fusion of egg and sperm nuclei.

74.

Which of the following is common to the development of both birds and mammals?

a)

holoblastic cleavage

b)

epiblast and hypoblast

c)

trophoblast

d)

gray crescent

75.

The archenteron develops into

a)

the mesoderm

b)

the endoderm

c)

the placenta

d)

the lumen of the digestive tract

76.

What structural adaptation in chickens allows them to lay their eggs in arid environments rather than in water?

a)

extraembryonic membranes

b)

yolk

c)

cleavage

d)

gastrulation

77.

If an egg cell were treated with EDTA, a chemical that binds calcium and magnesium ions,

a)

the acrosomal reaction would be blocked

b)

the fusion of sperm and egg nuclei would be blocked

c)

the fast block to polyspermy would not occur

d)

the fertilization envelope would not form

78.

In humans, identical twins are possible because

a)

extraembryonic cells interact with the zygote nucleus

b)

convergent extension occurs.

c)

early blastomeres can form a complete embryo if isolated.

d)

the gray crescent divides the dorsal-ventral axis into new cells

79.

Cells transplanted from the neural tube of a frog embryo to the ventral part of another embryo develop into nervous system tissues. This result indicates that the transplanted cells were

a)

totipotent.

b)

determined.differentiated

c)

differentiated

d)

mesenchymal

80.

What happens when a resting neuron’s membrane depolarizes?

a)

There is a net diffusion of Na+ out of the cell.

b)

The equilibrium potential for K+ (EK) becomes more positive.

c)

The neuron’s membrane voltage becomes more positive.

d)

The cell’s inside is more negative than the outside

81.

A common feature of action potentials is that they

a)

cause the membrane to hyperpolarize and then depolarize

b)

can undergo temporal and spatial summation

c)

are triggered by a depolarization that reaches threshold

d)

move at the same speed along all axons

82.

Where are neurotransmitter receptors located?

a)

the nuclear membrane

b)

the nodes of Ranvier

c)

the postsynaptic membrane

d)

synaptic vesicle membranes

83.

Why are action potentials usually conducted in one direction?

a)

Ions can flow along the axon in only one direction.

b)

The brief refractory period prevents reopening of voltagegated Na+ channels.

c)

The axon hillock has a higher membrane potential than the terminals of the axon

d)

Voltage-gated channels for both Na+ and K+ open in only one direction.

84.

Which of the following is the most direct result of depolarizing the presynaptic membrane of an axon terminal?

a)

Voltage-gated calcium channels in the membrane open

b)

) Synaptic vesicles fuse with the membrane.

c)

Ligand-gated channels open, allowing neurotransmitters to enter the synaptic cleft

d)

An EPSP or IPSP is generated in the postsynaptic cell

85.

Suppose a particular neurotransmitter causes an IPSP in postsynaptic cell X and an EPSP in postsynaptic cell Y. A likely explanation is that

a)

the threshold value in the postsynaptic membrane is different for cell X and cell Y

b)

the axon of cell X is myelinated, but that of cell Y is not.

c)

only cell Y produces an enzyme that terminates the activity of the neurotransmitter

d)

cells X and Y express different receptor molecules for this particular neurotransmitter

86.

Which of the following is a function of fat?

a)

Insulation

b)

Structural support of organs

c)

ushioning joints

d)

Blood cell creation

87.

Coenzymes required in the diet in very small amounts

a)

Fertilizers

b)

Minerals

c)

Essential amino acids

d)

Vitamins

88.

Which organ accomplishes chemical digestion with acid and pepsin?

a)

Stomach

b)

Large intestine

c)

Gall bladder

d)

Liver

89.

Once the bolus is chemically digested, it's referred to as                                

a)

Feces

b)

Bile

c)

Chyme

d)

Food

90.

Which of the following is a bulk eater, an animal that consumes food whole?

a)

Cat

b)

Snake

c)

Cow

d)

Mosquito

91.

What is the largest protein in the human body?

a)

Titin

b)

Mucin

c)

Megalotin

d)

Gigantin

92.

Which of the following is required for muscle contraction?

a)

ATP

b)

Calcium

c)

Myosin binding to actin

93.

Near the end of an action potential, a refractory period occurs because...

a)

Sodium channels are open

b)

Potassium channels are slow to close

c)

Sodium channels are closed

d)

Nitrogen prohibits change to the membrane potential

94.

Neurons have support cells called

a)

Soma

b)

Glia

c)

Dendrites

d)

Axons

95.

True or False: Neurons send signals toward the axon terminals only.

a)

t

b)

f

96.

What are the functions of a muscle?

a)

movement- stability

b)

communication

c)

control of body openings and passage

d)

heat production

97.

What do herbivores eat?

a)

autotrophs (plants and algae) ex. Gorillas, cattle

b)

eat other animals ex. Sharks, hawks

c)

regularly consume animals as well as plants or algae ex. Humans, Bears

98.

what do Carnivores eat

a)

eat other animals ex. Sharks, hawks

b)

eat mainly autotrophs (plants and algae) ex. Gorillas, cattle

c)

regularly consume animals as well as plants or algae ex. Humans, Bears

99.

electrical signals (long-distance) and chemical signals (short-distance)

a)

There are more than 100 neurotransmitters, belonging to five groups:

b)

Neurons use two types of signals to communicate:

c)

during the rising phase,

d)

Neurons communicate with other cells at:

100.

a complex set of paths and connections

a)

Interpreting signals in the nervous system involves sorting:

b)

Changes in membrane potential act as:

c)

Neuron organization and structure reflect

d)

Central Nervous System (CNS)