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TCAP Review Day 2

Total questions: 151

Worksheet time: 2hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What law is best described by inertia?
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
2.
What is Newtons 1st law of motion?
a)
Force= Mass multiplied by acceleration 
b)
An object at rest stays at rest unless acted on an unbalanced force. (inertia)
c)
For every action there is a equal and opposite  re-action.
d)
law of gravity 
3.

What law of motion does this picture represent?

a)

Newton's 3rd law

b)

Newton's 4th law

c)

Newton's 1st law

d)

Newton's 2nd law

4.

What is Newton's 2nd law of motion?

a)

Inertia

b)

Force= Mass multiplied by acceleration

c)

For every action there is a equal and opposite re-action.

d)

Law of gravity

5.

Objects with greater mass have a greater inertia; objects with less mass have less inertia.

a)

true

b)

false

6.

A unbalanced force means that an object is

a)

zero net force

b)

changing its motion

c)

sitting still

d)

object at rest

7.

Newton's 3rd Law states that for every action there is an equal and opposite ________.

a)

reaction

b)

satisfaction

c)

fraction

d)

transaction

8.

A ______ is a push or pull on an object.

a)

force

b)

speed

c)

acceleration

d)

velocity

9.

Newton's 2nd Law says the acceleration of an object depends on its _______ and ______. (Choose two answers)

a)

force or applied force

b)

weight

c)

gravity

d)

mass

10.

Net force is a combination of all ________ acting on an object.

a)

forces

b)

speeds

c)

accelerations

d)

velocities

11.

if an object stays still or continues moving at the same speed and in the same direction, it is a _______ force.

a)

weak

b)

strong

c)

balanced

d)

unbalanced

12.

What is Newton's 2nd Law?

a)

For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

b)

Acceleration depends on two variables, the mass of the object and the amount of force.

13.

What is Newton's 3rd Law?

a)

For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

b)

Acceleration depends on two variables, the mass of the object and the amount of force.

14.

What explains a quantity that has BOTH speed and direction?

a)

Inertia

b)

Force

c)

Speed

d)

Velocity

15.

The reason a boat bounces off the dock when it hits it.

a)

The boat and the dock repel each other.

b)

When the boat exerts a force on the dock, the dock exerts a force on the boat.

16.

If an object is accelerating, then the forces acting on it must be:

a)

Balanced

b)

Unbalanced

17.
 What is the unit called that measures force?
a)
Isaac
b)
Yee
c)
Newton
d)
kilogram
18.
When a cannon fires a cannonball we observe Newton's third law. Which force is the reaction force?
a)
The cannon moving forward
b)
The cannonball moving forward
c)
The cannon moving backward
d)
The cannonball moving backward
19.
Why is the net force 0 in the image?
a)
Because the elephants are the same size
b)
Because they are both pulling the same amount of force in opposite directions
c)
Because they are elephants
d)
Because they are pulling away from each other.
20.

A sports car speeds up much faster than a dump truck when a traffic light turns from red to green. Which law is this?

a)

Law 1

b)

Law 2

c)

Law 3

21.

A rocket pushes burning gases DOWN which causes the rocket to launch UP. Which law is this?

a)

Law 1

b)

Law 2

c)

Law 3

22.

When a truck stops suddenly, the packages on its truckbed continue to move forward. Which law is this?

a)

Law 1

b)

Law 2

c)

Law 3

23.

What do all waves transfer?

a)

Matter

b)

Heat

c)

Electricity

d)

Energy

24.

Which of the following can waves transfer energy through?

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

d)

empty space

e)

all of the above

25.

What are the two types of waves?

a)

longitudinal and transverse

b)

sound and light

26.

What is the number of complete waves passing a fixed point in a given amount of time?

a)

Amplitude

b)

Intensity

c)

Wavelength

d)

Frequency

27.

What is the frequency of this wave? You must count the number of complete waves.

a)

1 Hz

b)

5 Hz

c)

10 Hz

28.

What is frequency measured in?

a)

Milliseconds

b)

Miles

c)

Hertz

d)

Kilograms

29.

Period of a wave refers to...

a)

how long it takes for the event to repeat.

b)

how strong a wave is.

c)

how long a wave is.

d)

how much energy a wave has.

30.

Which type of waves have the longest wavelength?

a)

Visible light

b)

Radio waves

c)

X-rays

d)

Gamma-Rays

31.

Wavelengths are usually measured in ....

a)

seconds

b)

Hz

c)

inches

d)

meters

32.

Shorter wave lengths can carry more energy. Which of these probably carries the MOST energy:

a)

Infrared light

b)

Visible light

c)

X-rays

d)

UV light

33.

What is the distance between the calm sea and the highest wave called?

a)

Wave

b)

Frequency

c)

Amplitude

d)

Magnitude

34.

What does #1 represent?

a)

Period

b)

Frequency

c)

Wavelength

d)

Amplitude

35.

What does #2 represent?

a)

Period

b)

Frequency

c)

Wavelength

d)

Amplitude

36.

What does #3 represent?

a)

Period

b)

Frequency

c)

Wavelength

d)

Amplitude

37.

What do all waves transfer?

(a)  

38.

a disturbance caused by energy moving through a system in a cyclical pattern

a)

Wave

b)

Amplitude

c)

Frequency

d)

Speed

39.

high point of a wave

a)

crest

b)

trough

c)

amplitude

d)

wavelength

40.

Low point of a wave

a)

crest

b)

trough

c)

Amplitude

d)

wavelength

41.

Height of a wave above the centerline

a)

amplitude

b)

crest

c)

trough

d)

wavelength

42.

How fast the wave is moving through a medium

a)

wave speed

b)

wavelength

c)

amplitude

d)

frequency

43.

Number of waves passing a given point in a certain amount of time, measured in Hertz (Hz)

a)

wavelength

b)

frequency

c)

amplitude

d)

wave speed

44.

Distance between points where the wave begins to repeat itself

a)

trough

b)

amplitude

c)

wavelength

d)

frequency

45.

The way waves travel

a)

propagation

b)

wave speed

c)

frequency

d)

transportation

46.

Wave that vibrates in the direction of its propagation

a)

longitudinal wave

b)

transverse wave

c)

light wave

d)

green wave

47.

When a wave bounces off of something and moves in a different direction

a)

reflection

b)

refraction

c)

absorption

d)

propagation

48.

Waves that propagate through the earth due to a geologic disturbance like an earthquake

a)

seismic waves

b)

transverse waves

c)

longitudinal waves

d)

light waves

49.

when a wave is bent by traveling from one medium to another

a)

reflection

b)

refraction

c)

absorption

d)

propagation

50.

Which letter corresponds to the amplitude?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

51.

Which letter corresponds to the wavelength?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

52.

Which color has the lowest frequency?

a)

Red

b)

Pink

c)

Green

d)

Blue

53.

when a wave hits a medium and transfers its energy to the particles of that medium

a)

reflection

b)

absorption

c)

refraction

d)

propagation

54.

The substance that a wave is passing through

a)

medium

b)

frequency

c)

wavelength

d)

gravy

55.

A wave that propagates sound, requires a medium

a)

sound wave

b)

light wave

c)

transverse wave

d)

big wave

56.

a form of electromagnetic radiation that doesn't require a medium to pass through

a)

sound wave

b)

light wave

c)

transverse wave

d)

compressional wave

57.
Which objects have a STRONG force of gravity?
a)
Objects with GREATER mass, like elephants
b)
Objects with LESS mass, like mice
58.
What is the SI unit used to measure force? 
a)
pounds 
b)
grams 
c)
newtons 
d)
friction
59.
The force of gravity acting on an object is the object's ______.
a)
mass
b)
matter
c)
weight 
d)
friction 
60.
The amount of matter in an object is 
a)
pressure
b)
weight
c)
mass
d)
force
61.
Which of the following never changes no matter where in the universe?
a)
weight
b)
force
c)
mass
d)
pounds
62.
A person would weigh less on on the Moon than on the Earth because . . .
a)
Moon has more mass, and therefore more gravity
b)
Moon has less mass, and therefore more gravity
c)
Moon has more mass, and therefore less gravity
d)
Moon has less mass and therefore less gravity
63.
If Earth's mass was cut in half, what would happen to your mass?
a)
increase because gravitational force increases
b)
decrease because gravitational force decreases
c)
decrease because gravitational force increases
d)
nothing, mass is not affected by gravitational force
64.
As mass increases, what happens to gravitational force?
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
stays the same
d)
i don't know
65.
The force of gravity on Jupiter is a little more than 2 times the gravitational force on Earth. If an object has a mass of 50 kg and a weight of 490 N on Earth, what would be the object's approximate mass and weight on Jupiter?
a)
50 kg and 490 N
b)
100 kg and 490 N
c)
50 kg and 980 N
d)
100 kg and 980 N
66.
Gravity attracts all objects towards one another.
a)
False
b)
True
c)
It depends
67.
The law of universal gravitation is credited to whom?
a)
Einstein
b)
Galileo
c)
Darwin
d)
Newton
68.
What is gravity?
a)
A force
b)
Energy
c)
A push
d)
All of them
69.
Without gravity we would________. 
a)
Float away
b)
Stay in the ground
c)
Nothing would happen.
d)
I don't know
70.
Some things have A LOT of mass, while other have FEW mass. 
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
71.
Which has more mass, Earth or the Moon?
a)
Earth
b)
Moon
c)
The same
72.
Which has a STRONGER force of gravity, Earth or the Moon?
a)
Earth
b)
Moon
73.
Why can astronauts jump and float a little on the Moon?
a)
Because the Moon's gravity is NOT that STRONG.
b)
Because the Moon's gravity is VERY STRONG. 
74.
What is weight?
a)
The measure of how HEAVY something is.
b)
The measure of how much GRAVITY is pulling on an object.
c)
BOTH answers are correct.
d)
None of them.
75.
This rock was another type of rock that was heated and compressed over time. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
76.

This rock started as molten magma but transformed after a volcano erupted. What type of rock is this?

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

77.
This rock was formed by smaller pieces of rock that settled at the bottom of a lake millions of years ago. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
78.
The process when rocks break into smaller pieces due to exposure to natural elements is called
a)
erosion
b)
weathering
c)
sediments
79.
What are the 3 major types of rocks?
a)
Igneous, Metamorphic, Sedimentary
b)
Metamorphic, Igneous, Cementation
c)
magma, lava, crystals
80.
The process by which metamorphic rocks are formed...
a)
heat and pressure
b)
erosion and deposition
c)
melting and cooling
81.

What do we call the material that comes from rocks that have been broken down into smaller pieces. This usually results from weathering.

a)

texture

b)

weathering

c)

sediment

d)

erosion

82.

What causes igneous rocks to form

a)

animal and plant remains aka fossils

b)

cooling magma, lava, and pressure

c)

compaction of sediment

d)

cementation or hardening of minerals

e)

sediment

83.

Name of the impression of a plant or animal, in the soil, that existed in the past

a)

diamond

b)

hardness

c)

fossil

84.

Geologists are scientists that study _______.

a)

rocks

b)

lakes

c)

rivers

d)

animals

85.

Geologists can find ______ in old rocks.

a)

fossils

b)

toys

c)

sofas

d)

people

86.

What is electricity?

a)

An invisible force that we don't understand.

b)

An invisible force that relies on the movement of electrons.

c)

A force that can be used for human activities.

87.

What are the moving particles that move to create an electrical current?

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Atoms

d)

Electrons

88.

Protons have a _____ charge.

Neutrons have a _______ charge.

Electrons have a ________ charge.

(a)  

89.

Which type of circuit does this represent?

a)

Parallel

b)

Series

90.

Pick all the materials that would be a conductor.

a)

Metal frying pan

b)

Rubber

c)

Plastic

d)

Copper wire

e)

Stainless Steel

91.

Which of these is an insulator?

a)

Rubber

b)

Copper penny

c)

Iron nail

d)

Plastic

e)

Cloth

92.
Does this represent attraction or repulsion?
a)
attraction
b)
repulstion
93.
Does this show attraction or repulsion? 
a)
attract
b)
repel
94.
What part of a circuit stops the current?
a)
wire
b)
switch
c)
battery
d)
light
95.
What material is a good conductor?
a)
copper
b)
wood
c)
rubber
d)
plastic
96.
What material is an insulator?
a)
coper
b)
silver
c)
gold
d)
plastic
97.
Why are the wires covered in plastic?
a)
keeps the wire from scratching stuff
b)
makes a nice coil
c)
it is a conductor
d)
keeps you from getting shocked
98.
What is true about magnets?
a)
opposite poles repel
b)
opposite poles attract
c)
only the north pole picks up nails
d)
only the north pole works
99.
Which item sticks to a magnet?
a)
rubber band
b)
paper clips
c)
craft sticks
d)
plastic straws
100.
Which is an insulator?
a)
nail
b)
staple
c)
crayon
d)
paperclip
101.
A material through which electrons can easily flow. 
a)
insulators
b)
conductors
102.
A type of circuit where each component is connected, one after the other, in a SINGLE loop. 
a)
series circuit
b)
parallel circuit
103.
A material that SLOWS or STOPS the flow of electrons. 
a)
insulators
b)
conductors
104.
A BROKEN loop of conductors
a)
closed circuit
b)
open circuit
105.
The CENTER of an atom made up of protons and neutrons. 
a)
atoms
b)
electrons
c)
nucleus
d)
neutrons
106.
Name the following symbol used in the drawing of a circuit. 
a)
battery
b)
switch
c)
motor
d)
light bulb
107.
This is an example of...
a)
series circuit
b)
parallel circuit
108.
This is an example of...
a)
crazy hair
b)
static electricity
c)
lightning
d)
insulator
109.
An electric current can move along more than one path in a.....
a)
Series circuit
b)
Parallel circuit
110.
The two ends of a bar magnet are its
a)
Magnetic poles
b)
Insulators
c)
Circuits
d)
Irons
111.
The process of transferring charge by touching one object 
a)
Induction 
b)
Conduction 
c)
Friction 
d)
Conductor 
112.

A contact force is from

a)

objects physically touching

b)

far apart objects

c)

not touching object

d)

always a pull

113.

A non-contact force is between

a)

two objects that aren't touching

b)

two objects that are touching

c)

the ground and wheels

d)

you and me

114.

The three examples pictured are of

a)

Non-contact Forces

b)

Contact Forces

115.

The force between the phone and the mount is a

a)

contact force

b)

non-contact force

116.

The force between the two people through the rope is

a)

Contact Pull

b)

Non-contact Pull

c)

Contact Push

d)

Non-contact Push

117.

Gravity is a

a)

Contact Force

b)

Myth

c)

Non-contact Force

118.

Friction is a

a)

Contact Force

b)

Myth

c)

Non-contact Force

119.

Which is an example of a non-contact force?

a)

elastic force

b)

normal force

c)

applied force

d)

electric force

120.

You are pulled to the surface of the earth due to the force of _________________

a)

gravity

b)

friction

c)

normal force

d)

contact force

121.

Air Resistance Force

a)

Contact Force

b)

Non-Contact Force

122.
The supercontinent in the continental drift hypothesis was called ____.
a)
Pantry
b)
Pangaea
c)
Wegenerland
d)
Eurasia
123.
What was the main reason Wegener’s continental drift hypothesis was rejected?
a)
He did not have any evidence
b)
His proposed mechanisms were physically impossible
c)
He did not propose any mechanisms.
124.
The lithospheric plates move an average of ____.
a)
5 inches/year
b)
5 cm/year
c)
3 cm/year
d)
5 feet/year
125.
Which of the following was NOT used in support of the continental drift hypothesis?
a)
matching fossils
b)
Ancient climates
c)
paleomagnetism
d)
Matching rocks
126.
What kind of plate boundary occurs where two plates grind past each other without destroying or producing
lithosphere?
a)
convergent 
b)
transform
c)
divergent
127.
A divergent boundary at two oceanic plates can result in a ____.
a)
volcanic island arc
b)
continental volcanic arc
c)
earthquake
d)
ocean ridges (seafloor spreading)
128.
Which of the following is a geographic example of a transform fault boundary?
a)
continental volcanic arc
b)
volcanic island arc
c)
earthquakes
d)
uplifted mountains
129.
The Himalayas in South Asia are an example of what type of plate boundary?
a)
continental-oceanic convergent
b)
continental-continental convergent
c)
oceanic-oceanic convergent
d)
continental-continental divergent
130.
Continental volcanic arcs are associated with what type of plate boundary?
a)
oceanic-continental convergent
b)
oceanic-oceanic convergent
c)
continental-continental convergent
d)
transform
131.
The formation of the Hawaiian Islands is associated with ____.
a)
a transform boundary
b)
hot spots
c)
convergent boundaries
d)
divergent boundaries
132.
According to the theory of plate tectonics, ________.
a)
the asthenosphere is divided into plates
b)
the lithosphere is divided into plates
133.
What type of boundary occurs where two plates move together?
a)
convergent
b)
transform
c)
divergent
134.
New ocean crust is formed at ______.
a)
convergent boundaries
b)
divergent boundaries
c)
transform fault
135.
What results when divergence occurs between two oceanic plates?
a)
a subduction zone
b)
seafloor spreading
c)
an ocean trench
d)
a volcanic island arc
136.
What forms when one oceanic plate is forced beneath another plate?
a)
subduction zone
b)
an ocean ridge
c)
a rift valley
d)
an ocean basin
137.
Oceanic lithosphere is destroyed at ______
a)
transform fault boundaries
b)
divergent boundaries
c)
ocean ridges
d)
convergent boundaries
138.
How does the age of the seafloor sediments change with increasing distance from the ocean ridge?
a)
age decreases
b)
age stays the same
c)
age increases
d)
age varies without a pattern
139.
What is the weaker, hotter zone beneath the lithosphere that allows for motion of Earth's rigid outer shell?
a)
crust
b)
outer core
c)
astenosphere
d)
inner core
140.
What is the largest tectonic plate?
a)
North American
b)
Pacific
c)
Antarctic
d)
Eurasian
141.
The convergence of two continental plates would produce ___________.
a)
island arcs
b)
rift valleys
c)
folded mountains
d)
trenches
142.
What kind of magnet can be turned on and off?
a)
refridgerator magnet
b)
electromagnet
c)
magnetite
d)
iron
143.
Surrounding every magnet is a __________  __________.
a)
magnetic field
b)
electrical current
c)
another magnet
d)
an enemy
144.
What is most likely to happen when the switch is closed?
a)
A magnetic field should be produced
b)
The nail will rust
c)
The battery will explode
d)
The wire will catch on fire
145.
What are the ends of a magnet called?
a)
East and west poles
b)
Left and Right ends
c)
North and South ends
d)
North and South poles
146.
How do electromagnets differ from regular magnets? 
a)
A. They  can be turned off and on 
b)
B. Their polarity can be reversed
c)
C. Their strength can be changed
d)
D. All of the above
147.
This is a picture of a simple electromagnet. How can the electromagnet be made stronger?
a)
Add more coils of wire to the nail.
b)
Use a smaller battery.
c)
Reverse the poles of the magnet.
d)
Remove all the coils and the nail.
148.

Magnets on refrigerator cannot be turned off. Which type of magnets they belong?

a)

electromagnets

b)

battery

c)

permanent magnets

d)

copper wire

149.

What are the components of the electromagnets?

a)

battery, wire and bulb

b)

battery , copper wire and plastic bottle

c)

battery, copper wire and iron nail

d)

battery, wire and aluminum

150.

What is the role of the battery in the electromagnet?

a)

It provides light energy for the electromagnet.

b)

It provides magnetic field for the electromagnet.

c)

It provides sound energy for the electromagnet.

d)

It provides the power source for the electromagnet.

151.

What would happen if you took one end of the wire off the battery?

a)

The nail will be a magnet.

b)

The nail would no longer be a magnet

c)

Nothing will happened.

d)

The nail will heats up.

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