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LPN Med Administration

Total questions: 144

Worksheet time: 5hrs 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

You are giving a patient contrast for an MRI, what broad category of reason for med admin does this fall under?

a)

To Diagnose

b)

To Cure

c)

To Treat

d)

To Give Relief

e)

To Prevent a Disease

2.

You are giving a patient vancomycin for their toe infection, what broad category of reason for med admin does this fall under?

a)

To Diagnose

b)

To Cure

c)

To Treat

d)

To Give Relief

e)

To Prevent a Disease

3.

TRUE/FALSE: Curing and treatment are not the same thing.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

You are giving a patient tramadol for their back pain, what broad category of reason for med admin does this fall under?

a)

To Diagnose

b)

To Cure

c)

To Treat

d)

To Give Relief

e)

To Prevent a Disease

5.

Which is not a source of medication?

a)

Animals

b)

Vegetables and Plants

c)

Minerals

d)

Synthetics

e)

Bodies of Water

6.

When talking about the classification of a Target Organ System, the organ system that precedes the word 'drug' identifies....

a)

The body system that will be effected

b)

The body system that the breakdown of the medication occurs in

c)

The body system that the med was taken in through

7.

What does an antipyretic do?

a)

Lowers blood pressure

b)

Lower fever

c)

Helps you poop

d)

Helps with GI upset

8.

What does an antihypertensive do?

a)

Lowers fever

b)

Pain relief

c)

Lowers blood pressure

d)

Gets rid of excess fluid

9.

What does an antibiotic do?

a)

Gets rid of excess fluid

b)

Helps with GI upset

c)

Helps with microbial issues

d)

Lowers blood pressure

10.

What does a laxative do?

a)

Helps you poop

b)

Pain relief

c)

Helps with acid reflux

d)

Lowers fever

11.

What does an analgesic do?

a)

Helps with microbial issues

b)

Pain relief

c)

Gets rid of excess fluid

d)

Helps with GI upset

12.

What does a diuretic do?

a)

Lowers fever

b)

Helps you poop

c)

Gets rid of excess fluid

d)

Helps with sour stomach

13.

What does an antacid do?

a)

Pain relief

b)

Lowers blood pressure

c)

Helps with GI upset, sour stomach, acid reflux

d)

Gets rid of excess fluid

14.

What kind of classification system describes "a broad category of medications that describes what effect they have on the body"?

a)

Pharmacological class

b)

Prescription class

c)

Therapeutic class

d)

Prescription class

15.

When a pharmacological class is grouped by similar indications, what does that mean?

a)

They work the same way

b)

Same type of reason why they shouldn't be taken

c)

They interact similar to other drugs

d)

We give them to patients for the same thing

e)

They have similar side effects

16.

When a pharmacological class is grouped by similar contraindications, what does that mean?

a)

They have similar side effects

b)

We give them to patients for the same thing

c)

They work the same way

d)

They have the same type of reason why they shouldn't be taken

e)

They interact similar to other drugs

17.

TRUE/FALSE: We have to memorize every single chemical name of a drug.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

True/False: The generic name of a drug needs to be capitalized.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

What type drug name matches the definition "drug name that is registered and restricted to the manufacturer"?

a)

Trade name

b)

Chemical name

c)

Generic name

d)

Official name

20.

TRUE/FALSE: Drugs create new responses in the body.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

What meds do not go through absorption?

a)

IV meds

b)

PO meds

c)

Liquid meds

d)

Percutaneous meds

22.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of the following affects the rate of absorption of meds?

a)

Route

b)

Presence of food

c)

Lipid soluability

d)

LOC

e)

Blood flow

23.

Which med absorbs the fastest?

a)

Liquid

b)

Tablet

c)

Capsule

d)

IV

24.

Where are acidic drugs absorbed?

a)

Esophagus

b)

Stomach

c)

Small intestine

d)

Large intestine

25.

A full stomach does what to absorption time?

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Does not alter it

d)

Multiplies it

26.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of the following relationships between GI motility and absorption rate are true?

a)

Increase GI motility, increased absorption

b)

Increased GI motility, decreased absorption

c)

Decreased GI motility, decreased absorption

d)

Decreased GI motility, increased absorption

27.

First pass applies to which drugs?

a)

Drugs taken PO

b)

Drugs taken IV

c)

Drugs taken percutaneously

d)

Drugs taken via injection

28.

Which organ metabolizes the drug in first pass?

a)

Stomach

b)

Small intestine

c)

Kidneys

d)

Liver

29.

In protein binding, which protein do drugs bind to?

a)

Gluten

b)

Albumin

c)

Fibrin

d)

Leucine

30.

When drugs are bound to albumin they are...

a)

Active

b)

Inactive

31.

If we have decreased protein levels, what effect can that lead to?

a)

Increased risk for toxicity

b)

Decreased risk of toxicity

c)

Increase of tolerance

d)

Decrease of tolerance

32.

Which type of drug has a longer duration of action?

a)

Highly bound protein drugs

b)

Loosely bound protein drugs

c)

Highly bound cholesterol drugs

d)

Loosely bound cholesterol drugs

33.

Which drugs can pass through the blood brain barrier?

a)

The strongest

b)

Drugs with a highly bound protein

c)

Drugs that are taken PO

d)

Lipid soluable drugs

34.

What is the primary site of drug metabolization?

a)

Kidneys

b)

Small intestine

c)

Liver

d)

Stomach

35.

If you have a patient with liver failure, they have....

a)

An increased metabolism so they will have an increased drug effect

b)

An increased metabolism so they will have a decreased drug effect

c)

A decreased metabolism so they will have an increased drug effect

d)

A decreased metabolism so they will have a decreased drug effect

36.

What is the primary organ of drug excretion?

a)

Kidneys

b)

Liver

c)

Large intestine

d)

Small intestine

37.

What does increased BUN/creatinine mean?

a)

Decreased kidney function

b)

Increased kidney function

c)

Decreased liver function

d)

Increased liver function

38.

After __ many half-lives, the med is effectively out of the body.

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

e)

7

39.

How does renal failure affect half-lives?

a)

Makes the half-life shorter

b)

Doesn't affect it

c)

Triples the half life

d)

Makes the half life longer

40.

What is a good comparison for how drugs should fit into receptors?

a)

Like a bee in a hive

b)

Like a key in a lock

c)

Like a person in a doorway

d)

Like water in a jar

41.

Where are most receptors found?

a)

Loose in the bloodstream

b)

Inside of cells

c)

Outside of cells

42.

If we have a decreased number of receptors, what does that do?

a)

Increases the drug effect

b)

Decreases the drug effect

c)

No change in drug effect

43.

TRUE/FALSE: Some drugs only produce 1 effect in the body.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Your patient is prescribed two drugs that have an additive effect, what does this do to the effect of the medication?

a)

Interferes with the action of one drug

b)

Makes them chemically incompatible

c)

Doubles the effect

d)

More than doubles the effect

45.

Your patient is prescribed two drugs that have a synergistic effect, what does this do to the effect of the medication?

a)

Interferes with the action of one drug

b)

Makes them chemically incompatible

c)

Doubles the effect

d)

More than doubles the effect

46.

Your patient is prescribed two drugs that have an antagonistic effect, what does this do to the effect of the medication?

a)

Interferes with the action of one drug

b)

Makes them chemically incompatible

c)

Doubles the effect

d)

More than doubles the effect

47.

TRUE/FALSE: For a patient to be allergic to a med, they must be sensitized to it first to exhibit an allergic reaction.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

What type of antibodies are created with an allergic reaction?

a)

IgM

b)

IgA

c)

IgD

d)

IgG

e)

IgE

49.

Your patient in room 314 has an allergic reaction to morphine, under which circumstances can they be given this drug?

a)

When the patient gives informed consent

b)

When the patient needs it to save their life

c)

Only twice more after it was put in their chart

d)

Never again!

50.

If a patient is tolerant of a drug, they need to be given ____ for it to have an effect on them.

a)

More

b)

Less

c)

The same amount

d)

None

51.

If you believe your patient is having a toxic reaction to a drug, what is the first step?

a)

Immediately take them off the drug

b)

Calling the provider

c)

Calling the charge nurse

d)

Take a set of vitals

52.

What is the absolute safest category of drug for a pregnant person to have?

a)

Category A

b)

Category B

c)

Category C

d)

Category D

e)

Category X

53.

Which drug category falls under this definition: "No studies that show any risk to fetus/baby"

a)

Category A

b)

Category B

c)

Category C

d)

Category D

e)

Category X

54.

Which drug category falls under this definition: "Animal studies show no risk but no adequate studies of pregnant women exist."

a)

Category A

b)

Category B

c)

Category C

d)

Category D

e)

Category X

55.

Which drug category falls under this definition: "Animal studies show adverse effect, but human studies show no risk in all three trimesters"?

a)

Category A

b)

Category B

c)

Category C

d)

Category D

e)

Category X

56.

Which drug category falls under this definition: "Animal studies show adverse effects and no human studies are done"?

a)

Category A

b)

Category B

c)

Category C

d)

Category D

e)

Category X

57.

Which drug category falls under this definition: "not enough human or animal studies are done"?

a)

Category A

b)

Category B

c)

Category C

d)

Category D

e)

Category X

58.

Which drug category falls under this definition: "benefits of the drug outweigh the risks to the fetus"?

a)

Category A

b)

Category B

c)

Category C

d)

Category D

e)

Category X

59.

Which drug category falls under this definition: "The fetal risk is high, cannot be prescribed to pregnant woman or woman who can become pregnant"?

a)

Category A

b)

Category B

c)

Category C

d)

Category D

e)

Category X

60.

What is the purpose of a lozenge?

a)

To administer meds over a long period of time

b)

To coat the mouth and the back of throat

c)

To be dissolved in the small intestine

d)

To dry out the mouth and esophagus

61.

TRUE/FALSE: If you tablet does not have grooves, it is ok to cut it.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Where does an enteric coated pill dissolve in?

a)

Esophagus

b)

Stomach

c)

Intestines

d)

Mouth

63.

TRUE/FALSE: It is ok to have your patient chew an extended release tablet if they cannot swallow it at once.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

What should you do to a suspension medication before giving it to a patient?

a)

Shake it

b)

Add an emulsifier

c)

Dilute it in water

d)

Pull up into a syringe

65.

What type of medication do you have to add an emulsifier to?

a)

Syrup

b)

Solution

c)

Emulsion

d)

Suspension

66.

You are giving a lidocaine patch to your patient in room 407. When getting ready to apply the patch to their left arm, you notice they have one on the right arm. What should be your proper method of action?

a)

Keep applying the patch, as long as they aren't stacked on top of each other its ok

b)

Ask the patient why they want a second patch, is the first one not working?

c)

Remove the first patch and apply the one you have

d)

Leave the first patch on, unless it turns black its still got meds in it

67.

When was the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act formed?

a)

1970

b)

1790

c)

1906

d)

1946

68.

What drug schedule describes "high abuse potential, not acceptable for medical use, cannot do medical testing"?

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule IV

e)

Schedule V

69.

What drug schedule do heroin, marijuana and LSD fall under?

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule IV

e)

Schedule V

70.

What drug schedule describes "abuse potential with a severe dependence liability"?

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule IV

e)

Schedule V

71.

What drug schedule do amphetamines, demerol, methadone and percodan fall under?

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule IV

e)

Schedule V

72.

What drug schedule describes "less abuse potential, moderate dependence liability"?

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule IV

e)

Schedule V

73.

What drug schedule do tylenol with codeine and lortab fall under?

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule IV

e)

Schedule V

74.

What drug schedule describes "less abuse potential, limited dependence liability"?

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule IV

e)

Schedule V

75.

What drug schedule do phenobarbital, propoxyphene, valium and tramadol fall under?

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule IV

e)

Schedule V

76.

What drug schedule describes "limited abuse potential, primarily small amount of narcotics"?

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule IV

e)

Schedule V

77.

What drug schedule do lomotil and antitussives with codeine fall under?

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule IV

e)

Schedule V

78.

What properly describes the term "double-locked"?

a)

Two locks right beside each other

b)

Two different types of locks (i.e. a badge scan and a password)

c)

A locked container in a locked room with limited access

d)

A locked unit within a locked building

79.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: How can the narcotic control system be opened?

a)

Narcotic keys

b)

A retinal scan

c)

Secure password

d)

By banging repeatedly on the door

80.

When should you reassess pain and VS in a patient you gave a narcotic to?

a)

5 minutes

b)

30 minutes

c)

1 hour

d)

6 hours

81.

Your coworker tells you they need to "waste" what does this mean?

a)

They need to poop

b)

All of the patient's trash needs to be emptied

c)

Discard a portion of narcotics

d)

They need an alcoholic drink

82.

What is the first step if any discrepancies exist between the narcotic inventory sheet and the counted inventory?

a)

Check to see if anyone failed to chart on the inventory sheet

b)

Check the MARs

c)

Call pharmacy and nursing service

d)

Check every nurses' pockets for meds

83.

What is the second step if any discrepancies exist between the narcotic inventory sheet and the counted inventory?

a)

Check to see if anyone failed to chart on the inventory sheet

b)

Check the MARs

c)

Call pharmacy and nursing service

d)

Check every nurses' pockets for meds

84.

What is the third step if any discrepancies exist between the narcotic inventory sheet and the counted inventory?

a)

Check to see if anyone failed to chart on the inventory sheet

b)

Check the MARs

c)

Call pharmacy and nursing service

d)

Check every nurses' pockets for meds

85.

The doctor ordered Cardizem 60mg. The label reads Cardizem 30mg per tablet. How many tablets will you administer?

(a)  

86.

The doctor orders Codeine gr 1/2. The label reads codeine 30 mg per tablet. How many tablets would you administer?

(a)  

87.

The prescriber ordered Dalgan 10mg IM. The label reads Dalgan 5mg/ml. How many milliliters will you administer?

(a)  

88.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What reasons would a PO med be contraindicated?

a)

NPO

b)

Vomiting

c)

Sleeping

d)

Dysphagia

e)

Gastric suctioning

89.

What is the safest route to give meds?

a)

Oral

b)

Sublingual

c)

Topical

d)

Parenteral

90.

TRUE/FALSE: You can swallow a sublingual med after keeping it in the mouth for a minute.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some advantages of sublingual meds?

a)

Rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream

b)

Tastes better than regular oral meds

c)

Bypasses the liver

d)

Releases meds at a slow, steady rate

92.

Which route is where medication is held against the cheek until dissolved?

a)

Oral

b)

Buccal

c)

Sublingual

d)

Rectal

93.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: When is it appropriate to place a medication rectally?

a)

When the patient is NPO

b)

When the patient is nauseous or vomiting

c)

When the med is PO but the patient is wanting it rectally

d)

When the drug has an objectionable taste or odor

94.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some advantages to parenteral meds?

a)

Absorbed quicker than oral meds

b)

Safest route

c)

Gastric disturbances don't affect the med

d)

Almost completely absorbed

e)

Client can be unconcious

95.

TRUE/FALSE: When giving a topical med, the nurse always needs to wear gloves.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

What is a washing out of a body cavity with a stream of fluid?

a)

Irritation

b)

Installation

c)

Intrathecal

d)

Irrigation

97.

What kind of medication system fits the description of "a wide variety of stocked supply of medications on the floor for several clients"?

a)

Stock Supply System

b)

Unit Dose System

c)

Controlled Dispensing System

d)

Prescription

98.

What medication distribution system is best described as a system of organization with a single dose of a medication in one package with a label?

a)

Stock Supply System

b)

Unit Dose System

c)

Controlled Dispensing System

d)

Prescription

99.

What medication distribution system operates via a computer where each nurse has a verified access code?

a)

Stock Supply System

b)

Unit Dose System

c)

Controlled Dispensing System

d)

Prescription

100.

You are given a stat order for a med, when do you give the medication?

a)

Immediately

b)

At a specific time

c)

At a specific interval time until it is canceled

d)

According to nurse's judgement

101.

You are given a single order for a med, when do you give the medication?

a)

Immediately

b)

Once, at a specific time

c)

At a specific interval time until it is canceled

d)

According to nurse's judgement

102.

You are given a routine order for a med, when do you give the medication?

a)

Immediately

b)

At a specific time

c)

At a specific interval time until it is canceled

d)

According to nurse's judgement

103.

You are given a prn order for a med, when do you give the medication?

a)

Immediately

b)

At a specific time

c)

At a specific interval time until it is canceled

d)

According to nurse's judgement

104.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What needs to be included on a prescription?

a)

Client's full name

b)

Frequency of dose

c)

Name of the drug

d)

Best liquid to take it with

e)

Route of administration

105.

Which prescription is written out correctly?

a)

For: Mr. Patient Name 01/03/2022

Warfarin 5mg tablets

Take 1 tablet by mouth each day

-Signed by Dr

b)

For: Mr. Patient Name

Warfarin 5mg tablets

Take 1 tablet by mouth each day

-Signed by Dr

c)

For: Mr. Patient Name 01/03/2022

Warfarin 5mg tablets

Take by mouth each day

-Signed by Dr

d)

Warfarin 5mg tablets

Take 1 tablet by mouth each day

e)

For: Mr. Patient Name 01/03/2022

Warfarin tablets

Take 1 tablet by mouth each day

-Signed by Dr

106.

In Missouri, how long do providers have to physically sign a telephone order?

a)

12 hours

b)

24 hours

c)

36 hours

d)

48 hours

107.

Name the five medications rights.

(Correct answer is listed alphabetically)

(a)  

108.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: When are the three times you should check the name of the medication?

a)

When reaching for the package or container

b)

Comparing the the MAR

c)

Before giving the medication to the patient

d)

When walking in the hall toward the patient room

e)

After throwing the package in the trash

109.

TRUE/FALSE: If you take a pill out of a container and your patient refuses, you can put the med back if the patient didn't touch it.

a)

True

b)

False

110.

When measuring a liquid medication, where do you measure from?

a)

The top

b)

The meniscus

c)

About the middle

d)

Wherever

111.

Which of these statements by the nurse asks for proper identification from the patient?

a)

"Can you tell me your name and date of birth?"

b)

"You are Mr. Edwards born on August 12th, 1982 yes?"

c)

"What's your room number and name?"

d)

"Tell me your age and address please."

112.

Using standard policy, how long of a window do you have to give medications both ways?

a)

15 minutes

b)

30 minutes

c)

45 minutes

d)

1 hour

113.

TRUE/FALSE: you can touch the medicine with your hands if you just washed them.

a)

True

b)

False

114.

Where is an appropriate place to dump unwanted medications?

a)

A sealed bin provided by the facility

b)

The trash can

c)

A toilet

d)

A sink

115.

Why do infants need a smaller dose of medication?

a)

Underdeveloped brain

b)

Underdeveloped liver/kidneys

c)

Underdeveloped heart

d)

Underdeveloped lungs

116.

TRUE/FALSE: It's ok to give a child a secret med in an essential food as long as they don't find out.

a)

True

b)

False

117.

Elderly patients are at a higher risk for what when it relates to meds?

a)

Toxicity

b)

Tolerance

c)

Allergic reactions

d)

Unexpected side effects

118.

Your patient is having an allergic reaction and has raised irregularly shaped skin eruptions, what are they experiencing?

a)

Hives

b)

Rash

c)

Pruritus

d)

Rhinitis

119.

Your patient is having an allergic reaction and has small raised vesicles that are red and cover a large majority of their body, what are they experiencing?

a)

Hives

b)

Rash

c)

Pruritus

d)

Rhinitis

120.

Your patient is having an allergic reaction and has severe itching, what are they experiencing?

a)

Hives

b)

Rash

c)

Pruritus

d)

Rhinitis

121.

Your patient is having an allergic reaction and has a runny nose, what are they experiencing?

a)

Hives

b)

Rash

c)

Pruritus

d)

Rhinitis

122.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are symptoms of anaphylactic shock?

a)

Bronchospasms

b)

Edema of the pharynx

c)

Severe wheeing

d)

Hypotension

e)

Tachycardia

123.

What is the best med to give to a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock?

a)

Antihistamine

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Bronchodilator

d)

Beta-blocker

124.

If you are giving a liquid medication that is less than a teaspoon, what is the best equipment for it?

a)

Souffle cup

b)

Medicine cup

c)

Oral syringe

d)

Nipples

125.

TRUE/FALSE: Best practice is to place the cup upside down on the countertop when it comes to the bottle of a liquid med.

a)

True

b)

False

126.

When holding a bottle with liquid medicine, what is the best way to orient the bottle when pouring the medication out?

a)

Label facing palm

b)

Label facing north

c)

Label facing the ground

d)

Label facing thumb

127.

Best place to hold the medicine cup when pouring a liquid med is....

a)

At eye level

b)

At nose level

c)

On the table

d)

At any level

128.

When giving an oral med with food (i.e. applesauce) the best ratio of tablet/capsule per scoop is what?

a)

1 tablet:1 scoop

b)

1 tablet:2 scoops

c)

2 tablets:1 scoop

d)

3 tablets:2 scoops

129.

What should you do if a patient's med falls on the floor?

a)

Pick it back up and give it to them

b)

Discard the med

c)

Wipe it off with a tissue and give to patient

d)

Toss in the trash

130.

A good tip for giving a foul-tasting med is to have your patient...

a)

Take a deep breath out while swallowing the med

b)

Suck on ice cubes before taking med

c)

Swallow it down with some soda

d)

Just take it to the best of their ability

131.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What do you need to write on a transdermal patch?

a)

Date/time

b)

Initials

c)

Location

d)

If it is water resistant

132.

TRUE/FALSE: You can place nitroglycerine ointment on an area with hair?

a)

True

b)

False

133.

Which action by the nurse tells you they need reeducation when placing nitroglycerine ointment?

a)

The nurse makes sure to lay the paper print side down when applying ointment

b)

The nurse removes the old paper and cleanses the area

c)

The nurse places the ointment on a lower extremity

d)

The nurse wears gloves during this procedure

134.

What positioning statement is incorrect for a patient receiving an ophthalmic drop?

a)

Head is tilted back

b)

Face toward the ceiling

c)

Client has paper tissue in hand

d)

Client is in the prone position

135.

If we need to clean the eye before applying an ophthalmic drop, what is the correct method?

a)

Inner canthus to outer canthus

b)

Outer canthus to inner canthus

c)

Inner canthus only

d)

Outer canthus only

136.

If we need to apply an ophthalmic ointment, what is the correct method?

a)

Inner canthus to outer canthus

b)

Outer canthus to inner canthus

c)

Inner canthus only

d)

Outer canthus only

137.

How long should the nasolacrimal duct be held for ocular liquid medications?

a)

5 seconds

b)

15 seconds

c)

30 seconds

d)

1 minute

138.

When straightening the ear canal for an otic medication, what is the correct method for anyone 3 years and older?

a)

Pull the pinna down and back

b)

Pull the pinna upward and back

c)

Pull the pinna down and forward

d)

Pull the pinna upward and forward

139.

To warm an otic medication, how do you proceed?

a)

Put it in a warmer for 30 minutes

b)

Hold in your hands for a minute

c)

Put it in the microwave for 5 seconds

d)

Breath on it for a minute

140.

For a nose installation med, it is appropriate to have your patient do what beforehand?

a)

Blow their nose

b)

Pick their boogers

c)

Forcefully sneeze

d)

Nothing

141.

If your patient is taking two different MDI medications, how long do you have to wait between the administration?

a)

1 minute

b)

2 minutes

c)

3 minutes

d)

5 minutes

142.

What should you place under a patient for a vaginal medication?

a)

Bedpan

b)

Bed pad

c)

Bedpan and bed pad

d)

Blanket

143.

How deep do you insert a suppository for a pediatric patient?

a)

1 in

b)

2 in

c)

3 in

d)

4 in

144.

How deep do you insert a suppository for an adult patient?

a)

1 in

b)

2 in

c)

3 in

d)

4 in