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Bio Practice EOC

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

RNA nucleotides contain which components?

a)

a phosphate group, a nitrogenous base, and deoxyribose

b)

a nitrogenous base, ribose, and DNA polymerase

c)

a phosphate group, deoxyribose, and ribose

d)

a phosphate group, a nitrogenous base, and ribose

2.

What is one function of a protein?

a)

catalyze chemical reactions

b)

form waxy, waterproof coverings

c)

compose cellulose for plant support

d)

provide source of fiber in the diet

3.

There are only twenty different amino acids in living things, but there are thousands of different proteins.

a)

the type of protein is determined by the number of peptide bonds it has

b)

the type of protein is determined by the order in which the amino acid bond

c)

the type of protein is determined by the number of hydrogen bonds is has

d)

the type of protein is determined by the order in which the nucleotides bond

4.

DNA is responsible for passing on genetic information from one generation to the next, so DNA must be present in the reproductive cells of the human body. It is also present in the non-reproductive cells of the body. Which statement best explains the reason for this fact?

a)

DNA remains inactive in non-reproductive cells

b)

DNA is essential to form proteins required for cell function

c)

DNA helps the non-reproductive cells transport amino acids

d)

DNA provides all cells with the required energy to function

5.

Hydrogen peroxide naturally breaks down into oxygen and water over time. When exposed to the enzyme catalase, hydrogen peroxide is rapidly converted into oxygen and water.

What feature of catalase most likely is responsible for the change in the rate of conversion of hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen.

a)

Catalase speeds up the conversion hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen by decreasing the reaction's activation energy

b)

Catalase bonds permanently with the reactants causing hydrogen peroxide to rapidly break down by increasing the activation energy

c)

Catalase has a flexible structure that allows it to bind and convert any small hydrogen containing compound into water and oxygen

d)

Catalase remains intact, so small amounts of it convert large amounts of hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen immediately

6.

Why is it important for stomach acid to maintain a pH of 2?

a)

if the pH of the stomach changes too much, the cellular membrane of stomach cells will change shape

b)

the low concentration of H+ in the stomach helps break down cellulose from fruits and vegetables

c)

Without a pH of 2, the digestive enzymes in the stomach will change shape and will not function properly.

d)

Maintaining a pH of 2 is critical for the function of DNA, which produces digestive enzymes

7.

Which two organelles in the cell must work together in the process of protein production?

a)

the nucleus produces DNA that directs protein production in the mitochondria

b)

the nucleus produces RNA that directions protein production in the ribosomes

c)

the ribosomes produce amino acids that direct protein production in the mitochondria

d)

the ribosomes produce peptides that protein production in the nucleus

8.

Vesicles are important membrane-bound organelles that serve many roles in the cell. Which sequence represents a correct pathway that vesicles would follow in helping to deliver a protein for export from the cell?

a)

chloroplast --> Golgi apparatus --> mitochondrion

b)

ribosome --> Golgi apparatus --> cell membrane

c)

rough ER --> smooth ED --> cell wall

d)

smooth ER --> mitochondrion, vacuole

9.

E. coli and a mammalian cell both contain DNA. However, E. coli is a prokaryotic cell, and a mammalian cell is a eukaryotic cell. What is one reason for classifying E coli. as a prokaryotic cell?

a)

the DNA of E coli. contains fewer base pairs

b)

the DNA of E. coli does not undergo transcription

c)

the DNA of E. coli replicates twice per cell division

d)

the DNA of E. coli is not enclosed in a nuclear membrane

10.

There are two types of living organisms, prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Which statement is correct regarding the organisms shown in the diagram?

a)

As a unicellular eukaryote, this organism does not have to carry out all of life's activities.

b)

As a unicellular prokaryote, this organism does not have to carry out all of life's activities.

c)

As a unicellular eukaryote, this organism must carry out all of life's activities.

d)

As a unicellular prokaryote, this organism must carry out all of life's activities.

11.

Glucose is a large molecule that needs help entering a cell. Which is the most likely pathway glucose will take to enter a cell?

a)

Glucose will enter the cell through the phospholipid bilayer by diffusion

b)

Glucose will pass through protein channels in a process called osmosis

c)

Glucose will pass through protein channels in a process called facilitated diffusion

d)

Glucose will enter the cell through the phospholipid bilayer by osmosis

12.

Which scenario is most likely to occur by passive transport?

a)

movement of large, non-polar molecules across the cell membrane against their concentration gradient

b)

movement of large, polar molecules across the cell membrane with their concentration gradient

c)

movement of small, non-polar molecules across the cell membrane with their concentration gradient

d)

movement of small, polar molecules across the cell membrane against their concentration gradient

13.

A student is preparing a presentation about the cell cycle. Which summary accurately explains the process?

a)

A cell grows, prepares for division by replicating its DNA, replicates its organelles, divides, and then begins the cycle again.

b)

A cell replicates its DNA, grows replicates its organelles, prepares for division before dividing twice, and then begins the cycle again.

c)

A cell grows, replicates its DNA, divides, replicates its organelles, and then begins the cycle again.

d)

A cell replicates its DNA and organelles, divides twice, grows, and then begins the process again.

14.

The diagram shows a microscopic view of a cell undergoing division. Which statement is correct about the cell shown?

a)

a plant cell is in cytokinesis with a cell plate forming

b)

an animal cell is in cytokinesis with a cell plate forming

c)

a plant cell is in anaphase with sister chromatids moving to opposite ends of the cell

d)

an animal cell is in anaphase with sister chromatids moving to opposite ends of the cell

15.

Amoebas move with the help of pseudopods. Pseudopodia form when the cell tries to extend the sides of its body in one direction, which results in projections of the cytoplasm. These extensions help the amoebas move forward. What is another use for pseudopodia in amoebas?

a)

to create food from sunlight

b)

to maintain the shape of amoebas

c)

to engulf food particles

d)

to defend against predators

16.

A paramecium has hair-like projections called cilia on its entire outer surface that beat in a synchronous manner. A researcher conducts an experiment using two Petri dishes containing equal amounts of paramecia and prey placed on opposite sides of the Petri dishes. The viscosity of the liquid in the first dish is five times greater than the liquid in the second dish. The researcher counts the number of paramecia after 8 hours and finds that the second plate contains more.

What can be concluded about the role of cilia in the survival of the organism?

a)

Cilia help the organism reproduce

b)

Cilia help the organism digest food

c)

Cilia help the organism kill pathogens

d)

Cilia help the organism reach their food source.

17.

A scientist places a plant in an enclosed system. After five days, she determines that the amount of carbon dioxide has increased and the amount of oxygen has decreased. How can her findings be explained?

a)

only photosynthesis occurred because the plant was in direct sunlight

b)

only respiration occurred because the plant was in the dark

c)

only anaerobic respiration occurred because the plant was in the dark

d)

only glycolysis occurred because the plant was in direct sunlight

18.

Considering that in aerobic respiration 38 ATP are created and in anaerobic respiration 2 are created, are large organisms more likely to be aerobic or anaerobic?

a)

aerobic because larger bodies can hold more energy

b)

anaerobic because larger bodies can create the ATP faster

c)

aerobic because it takes more energy for a larger body to function

d)

anaerobic because large bodies would require too much oxygen to be aerobic

19.

When blood calcium levels dip below a standard level, the PTH hormone is released. The hormone causes bone cells to release stored calcium ions into the blood plasma, raising the concentration of calcium ions in the blood back to the standard level.

Which statement likely describes how calcium ions cross the cell membranes of bone cells under these conditions?

a)

the calcium ions move across by active transport against the concentration gradient

b)

calcium ions move across by active transport with the concentration gradient

c)

the calcium ions move across by diffusion with the concentration gradient

d)

the calcium ions move scross by diffusion against the concentration gradient

20.

Cells in the pancreas make starch-digesting proteins, but cells in bone marrow do not. How do cells know what enzymes to form?

a)

carbohydrates in each type of cell repress some types of protein production

b)

different mRNA molecules are found in different parts of the body

c)

the cells have different chromosomes and code for different enzymes

d)

different genes are activated in cells based on their environment

21.

Which phrase best describes a stem cell?

a)

a cell specialized for the transport of gases

b)

an unspecialized cell that lacks the ability to reproduce itself

c)

a cell specialized for movement by containing a long tail and large number of mitochondria

d)

an unspecialized cell that has the ability to differentiate into one or more types of specialized cells

22.

Daughter cells formed by mitosis have exact copies of the parent cell's DNA. How is this possible?

a)

DNA completely unzips, then copies itself, then re-connects. Once the cell splits in half, the original DNA is in one cell, and the copy is in the other daughter cell.

b)

DNA unzips at multiple locations, then DNA polymerase finds the matching bases and attaches them to both strands. When the process is finished, 2 exact copies are formed.

c)

Enzymes read the parent DNA then find bases in the cell to create the sequence in the new DNA strand. When the cell splits, the original DNA is in one cell, and the cop is in the other daughter cell.

d)

DNA polymerase finds bases in the cell then seeks out the complimentary base in the DNA. Once found, it breaks the bonds, adds the new base, and repeats the process until the strand is copied.

23.

What advantage does DNA gain by being double-stranded?

a)

Each strand contrains unique information providing RNA the information to create 2 different proteins at once

b)

Each strand contains unique information allowing cells to store twice as much information in one place

c)

There are 2 copies of the base sequence, and it is encased in the backbone protecting them from mutation

d)

There are 2 copies of the bases, making it easier for RNA to read multiple sections at one time to make proteins

24.

What is the appropriate sequence of events for protein synthesis?

a)

amino acids link to form polypeptides, which fold into proteins

b)

polypeptides link to form amino acids, which fold into proteins

c)

proteins link to form amino acids, which fold into polypeptides

d)

amino acids link to form proteins, which fold into polypeptides

25.

In what order are the types of RNA involved in the process of protein synthesis?

a)

rRNA, tRNA, mRNA

b)

mRNA, tRNA, rRNA

c)

tRNA, mRNA, tRNA

d)

mRNA, rRNA, tRNA

26.

In sickle-cell anemia, the nucleotide adenine is replaced by thymine at the 17th position of the beta chain of hemoglobin. The mutation changes the codon GAG to GTG. What type of mutation is described in this example?

a)

addition

b)

deletion

c)

nondisjunction

d)

substitution

27.

Scientists have concluded that repeated exposure to high doses of X-rays can lead to cancer in individuals. How does the X-ray exposure result in cancer?

a)

by mutating the DNA

b)

by damaging the mitochondria

c)

by rupturing the plasma membrane

d)

by damaging the ribosomes

28.

A single pair of exotic fish in an aquarium produce a large number of offspring. The offspring show variations in fin and body shapes. Which statement explains the variations?

a)

the offspring had to adapt to a different environment

b)

the offspring were exposed to mutagenic chemicals

c)

the offspring were produced from the exact combination of the parents' genes

d)

the offspring were produced from different combinations of the parents' genes

29.

Which description distinguishes the process of meiosis from mitosis?

a)

Unlike mitotic cells, meiotic cells undergo a single division to haalve their chromosome number, after which they undergo crossing over to restore their diploid state.

b)

Unlike mitotic cells, meiotic cells undergo multiple divisions to produce an effectively unlimited array of daughter cells which are genetically identical to the parent cells.

c)

Unlike mitotic cells, meiotic cells undergo pairing of homologous chromosomes, allowing centromeres to remain intact throughout both cellular divisions.

d)

Unlike mitotic cells, meiotic cells undergo two divisions to produce haploid cells, allowing for genetic diversity in sexually reproducing organisms.

30.

In a species of mouse, brown fur (B) is dominant over white fur (b). If a heterozygous brown mouse is crossed with a white-colored mouse, what would be true of their possible offspring?

a)

100% BB

b)

25% BB, 25% bb, and 50% Bb

c)

50% Bb and 50% bb

d)

75% BB and 25% Bb

31.

A person who is homozygous for Type A blood and a person who is homozygous for Type B blood will have offspring with Type AB blood. What relationship exists between the A and B alleles?

a)

codominance

b)

complete dominance

c)

incomplete dominance

d)

sex-linked

32.

In turtles, the temperature of eggs during a certain period in their development is the deciding factor in determining the gender of the offspring. In the case of the European pond turtle, an incubation temperature of 25oC results in all male baby turtles, while an incubation temperature of 30oC results in all female baby turtles. What is a likely reason for such gender development in turtles?

a)

A change in temperature results in the mutation of a gene in the developing embryo

b)

A change in temperature causes a variation during cell division of the developing embryo

c)

A change temperature causes a cange in the expression of the genes determining sex

d)

A change in temperature reverses the expression of the dominant and recessive alleles

33.

Fruit flies with the curly-wing trait will develop straight wings if they are kept at a temperature of 14oC or less during development. If they are kept at 16oC or higher, they will develop curly wings. Which statement best explains this change in wing shape?

a)

Genes for curly wings and straight wings are found on different chromosomes

b)

All genes present in fruit flies are dependent on external temperature.

c)

The environment affects the expression of the genes for wing type.

d)

Higher temperatures produce a mutation in the gene for wing type.

34.

A tourist enters the country with several birds that he purchased during a holiday in a foreign country. One of the birds is suspected to be an endangered species. What is the best method to find out if the bird the tourist purchased is an endangered species?

a)

Compare the behavior of the endangered species with the behavior of the tourist's bird

b)

Compare the DNA fingerprint of the endangered species with the DNA fingerprint of the tourist's bird

c)

Compare the physical features of the endangered species with the physical features of the tourist's bird

d)

Compare the natural habitat of the endangered species with the natural habitat of the tourist's bird

35.

The diagram shows DNA gel electrophoresis of four pairs of twins. Which siblings are genetically identical?

a)

Pair P

b)

Pair S

c)

Pairs P and R

d)

Pairs O and S

36.

A student listed the key steps in bacterial transformation. Which sequence reflects the steps in the correct order?

a)

1, 2, 3, 4

b)

2, 3, 4, 1

c)

2, 3, 1, 4

d)

3, 2, 4, 1

37.

In the field of medicine, researchers have recently designed a technique that allows them to use adult stem cells to test the potency and safety of newly designed drugs for humans. What is the most likely advantage of this new technology compared with other forms of drug trials?

a)

It helps ensure that the shelf life of newly designed drugs is as long as possible

b)

It helps ensure that the newly designed drugs can cure all patients they are used to treat

c)

It helps reduce the demand to test newly designed drugs on animals

d)

It helps reduce time it takes to bring newly designed drugs to the market

38.

The human genome has been fully mapped by the Human Genome Project. Information on the human genome is now freely available on DNA databases. Which statement best describes an ethical issue concerning the Human Genome Project?

a)

The money invested in this project can be utilized for other research.

b)

The complete information about the human genome can be utilized to map human ancestry.

c)

The complete information about the human genome can lead to devastating consequences on Earth's biodiversity

d)

The human genome will provide information about inherited diseases, which raises the possibility of genetic manipulation in individuals.

39.

A scientist found a fossil of an early primate. A close examination of the fossil revealed that the organism once walked on two legs and had a large and complex brain. Which additional step would provide the scientist with information to trace the evolutionary history of the fossil?

a)

Determine the chemical composition of the rock in which the primate fossil was found

b)

Compare the DA sequences of the fossil with that of other primates

c)

Study the physiological processes in early primates and in humans

d)

Understand the interactions of the primate with other organisms of that time

40.

Scientists on a fossil expedition in the Florida Everglades excavated an area with four strata (layers). They found vertebrate fossils in all four strata: 124 fossils in the Miami Limestone, 75 fossils in the Undifferentiated sediments, 138 fossils in the Tamiami Formation, and 62 fossils in the Hawthorne Group. The scientists concluded that the Hawthorne Group contained the oldest fossils. Is this a valid conclusion?

a)

No. The Miami Limestone must contain the oldest fossils because it is the uppermost layer, just beneath the water of the Everglades.

b)

No. The Tamiami Formation must contain the oldest fossils because it contains the greatest number of vertebrate fossils discovered.

c)

Yes. The Hawthorne Group must contain the oldest fossils because it is the lowermost layer of soil and rock excavated by the scientists.

d)

Yes. The Hawthorn Group must contain the oldest fossils because this layer has the smallest number of vertebrate fossils.

41.

Different members of the same species are geographically isolated for many generations. What will likely happen to the populations?

a)

Each population will evolve different traits influenced by their specific environments

b)

Random recombination will ensure that the two populations evolve in a similar manner

c)

The two populations will evolve the same future traits because they are starting with similar genetic materials

d)

One of the populations will fail to evolve because it was removed from its natural environment

42.

The Galapagos Islands contain 15 species of finches that mainly have different beak types and sizes. These finches evolved from a common ancestor that moved to these islands and occupied different parts of it. What was the most likely reason these finches evolved into different species?

a)

they interbred with other bird species

b)

they adapted to different food sources

c)

the beaks provided a variation for survival in extreme climates

d)

the beaks prevented them from being seen by predators

43.

A patient with a stomach infection is treated with antibiotic A. However, the patient displays only a small improvement so an additional antibiotic, antibiotic B, is administered. What can be concluded about the infecting bacteria?

a)

The bacteria mutated in the patient's body and is no longer treatable by antibiotic A

b)

antibiotic A only works at the beginning of an infection but becomes ineffective quickly

c)

the bacteria had infected other areas of the body and requires more antibiotics

d)

the bacteria has become resistant to antibiotic A

44.

Which characteristics of an insect population enable it to adapt and develop resistance to a pesticide more quickly?

a)

greater variation and high rate of reproduction

b)

less variation and slow rate of reproduction

c)

greater variation and slow rate of reproduction

d)

less variation and high rate of reproduction

45.

Panthera leo and Panthera tigris share which of the same taxonomic categories?

a)

kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species

b)

kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus

c)

kingdom, phylum, class, order, family

d)

kingdom, phylum, class, order

46.

The phylogenetic system of classification is based on Darwin's concept of natural selection and takes into account the original relationship among organisms. Why is the phylogenetic system of claitssification considered to be more advanced than other systems of classification?

a)

it takes into account the evolutionary histories of organism

b)

it takes into account the morphological similarities in organisms

c)

it takes into account the similarities in the internal structures in organisms

d)

It takes into account the similarities in the types of nutrition consumed by the organism

47.
A dichotomous key for trees is provided. Hikers found a tree that has large brown cones and single sharp needles. What species of tree have the hikers found?
a)
Juniper
b)
Pine
c)
Spruce
d)
Fir
48.

Use the dichotomous key and your knowledge of a jellyfish to answer the question. Into which category should the invertebrate be classified?

a)

Cnidaria

b)

Echinodermata

c)

Mollusca

d)

Nematoda

49.

In an aquatic food web, which organism would get its energy directly from the Sun?

a)

algae

b)

krill

c)

worms

d)

zooplankton

50.

Which statement best explains how energy is transferred in a food web?

a)

Decomposers recycle all chemical energy into a form usable by producers

b)

Energy flows to producers as radiant energy and then to consumers as chemical energy

c)

All energy is recycled from producers to consumers and then back to producers again

d)

Living systems require a constant input of energy which comes in the form of heat from the environment

51.

How do seeds allow some plants to live in harsher conditions than those that reproduce using spores?

a)

seeds help with the procress of photosynthesis, which provides the embryo with energy

b)

seeds have an outer coating that helps protect the embryo from damage and water loss

c)

seeds contain xylem and phloem that provide the embryos with more water

d)

seeds have specialized leaves that are better adapted to releasing CO2 and absorbing O2

52.

Once sea turtles hatch in the sand dunes, they wait until the sand cools and then crawl toward the light of the horizon which directs them into the ocean water. What is the best explanation for this behavior?

a)

it is an innate behavior that the baby turtles did not have to be taught

b)

the baby turtles learned the path to the ocean water by trial and error

c)

the baby turtles imprinted on the moonlight as it moved across the beach

d)

through conditioning the baby turtles knew that food would be in the ocean

53.

A tapeworm is found in a young man's intestines. The tapeworm feeds from the food ingested by the man and deprives him of nutrients. What relationship does this represent?

a)

autotrophism

b)

commensalism

c)

mutualism

d)

parasitism

54.

The relationship between a flowering plant and a pollinating insect is an example of which symbiosis?

a)

Commensalism, the plant is not harmed, and the insect feeds on the flower's nectar

b)

Mutualism, the insect feeds on the plant's nectar, and the plant is pollinated

c)

Parasitism, the insect feeds on the plant's nectar and harms the plant

d)

Predation, the insect is a predator, and the plant is preyed upon

55.

Acinonyx jubatus is the only species of cheetahs that are still found around the world. With the drastic decrease in their numbers, close relatives had to inbreed. As a result of this, all the cheetahs alive today are closely related. What can be a consequence of such a situation?

a)

a deadly virus could wipe out the entire population of the cheetahs

b)

the cheetahs alive can easily adapt to any climate changes

c)

the population of the surviving cheetahs can increase uncontrollably

d)

there will be less competition between existing cheetah populations

56.

Antelope share the African savanna with other herbivores (such as gnus, zebras, and wildabeest) and their predators (such as lions and cheetahs). What could lead to an increase in the antelope population?

a)

an increase in the number of cheetahs

b)

the introduction of a new grazing animal to the savanna

c)

the decline of plant productivity due to lack of rainfall

d)

a decrease in the number of zebra

57.

A woodland area has an average deer population of 20 males and 15 females. One year a company clears half of the land to build houses. How would the deer population most likely be affected the next year?

a)

the population would increase because the deer's predators would decrease

b)

the population would decrease because less food would be available

c)

the population would increase because the competition for resources would decrease

d)

the population would decrease because more people would hunt deer in that area

58.

The spruce-fraser fir forest at the top of Mt. Mitchell is nearly all dead, and the cloud formations surrounding the forest have a pH of 2.5-3.5. What is the most likely cause of this destruction?

a)

insecticide use

b)

poor agricultural practices

c)

burning of fossil fuels

d)

clear-cutting forests

59.

Which action has had the most positive impact on the environment?

a)

regulating insect populations by using pesticides

b)

overhunting predators to prevent the death of prey animals

c)

reforestation to prevent the erosion of soil

d)

importing organisms, such as Japanese mussels, into the United States

60.

There has been much debate on spending time and tax dollars to research industrial waste products. Which example provides justification for these efforts?

a)

children living in a rural area have high rates of obesity resulting in multiple health problems

b)

endangered species are protected by limiting the number of trees logging companies can cut

c)

fish harvested in large numbers, such as tuna and salmon, are regulated to reduce the possibility of overfishing

d)

residents living near a lead battery recycling facility have high levels of lead in their blood and multiple health issues