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Principals of Exposure

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A factor that affects the amount of scatter produced is

a)

the irradiated material

b)

milliamperage

c)

anode composition

d)

time

2.

A key factor that effects the amount of scatter produced is

a)

time

b)

milliamperage

c)

anode composition

d)

kilovoltage

3.

A radiographer can best minimize the amount of scatter radiation reaching the image receptor by restricting the beam

a)

true

b)

false

4.

A radiographer can best reduce the amount of scatter radiation from reaching the receptor by

a)

utilizing a grid

b)

collimating

c)

beam restriction

d)

all of the above

5.

All of the following are considered beam-restricting devices EXCEPT

a)

beam filter

b)

aperture diaphragm

c)

collimator

d)

positive beam limitation (PBL) device

6.

An effective method for reducing scatter radiation production is the

a)

selection of small focal spot

b)

use of x-ray beam angulation

c)

15% rule of kVp change

d)

use of an increased exposure time with mA compensation

7.

As more photons pass through the irradiated material UNATTENUATED, the resulting image receptor will

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

be unchanged

d)

demonstrate greater image distortion

8.

As the kilovoltage increases, the percentage of photons that undergo a ______ interaction will decrease.

a)

characteristic

b)

Compton

c)

coherent

d)

photoelectric

9.

As the kilovoltage increases, the percentage of x-rays that undergo _______ interactions will increase.

a)

Bremsstrahlung

b)

Compton

c)

coherent

d)

photoelectric

10.

As the volume of irradiated tissue _____, the amount of scatter produced ____.

a)

decreases; increases

b)

increases; increases

c)

decreases; decreases

d)

increases; decreases

11.

Automatic collimators are known as positive beam limitations (PBL) devices.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Bone absorbs more radiation and produces more scatter than soft tissue.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Cones and cylinders would be commonly employed for the following examinations EXCEPT

a)

L5 - S1 spot

b)

AP thoracic spine

c)

skull

d)

orbits

14.

If an increase in kilovoltage is accompanied by a reduction in mAs, to maintain the same exit dose the overall result will be

a)

a decrease in the amount of scatter produced

b)

a decrease in the amount of radiation produced

c)

an increase in the amount of scatter produced

d)

an increase in the amount of radiation produced

15.

Image quality is improved when scatter reaching the image receptor is reduced.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Lead masks may serve as beam restrictors.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

PBLs may also filter the x-ray beam

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Penumbra is a geometric unsharpness around the periphery of an image.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Placing a lead blocker adjacent to an obese patient’s anatomy during a lateral lumbar spine radiograph

a)

is unnecessary with todays digital receptors

b)

will improve image quality

c)

will reduce exposure to the patient

d)

will reduce exposure to the radiographer

20.

Scatter radiation in radiography is produced during

a)

coherent or classical interactions

b)

Compton interactions

c)

an annihilation interaction

d)

photoelectric effect interactions

21.

Scattered photons from Compton interactions are of no use in demonstrating radiographic structures of interest

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Scattered photons will

a)

add to image receptor exposure

b)

not be considered part of the useful beam

c)

impair image quality

d)

all of the above

23.

Soft tissue absorbs more radiation and produces more scatter than bone.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

The _____ the atomic number of the irradiated material, the _____ the number of photoelectric absorption interactions that occur.

a)

higher; higher

b)

higher; lower

c)

lower; higher

d)

lower; unaffected

25.

The ____ the atomic number of the irradiated material, the ____ the number of photoelectric absorption interactions will be, and the ____ the scatter produced.

a)

higher; higher; less

b)

lower; higher; more

c)

lower; lower; less

d)

higher; lower; less

26.

The collimation assembly of a radiographic unit

a)

allows the radiographer to adjust the field size in a circular dimension

b)

all of the a above

c)

employs an upper and lower set of shutter blades

d)

removes the mirror assembly for exposures

27.

The principal factors that affect the amount of scatter produced are focal spot size and the type of irradiated material.

a)

False

b)

True

28.

The shutters of a collimator

a)

reduce penumbra

b)

reduce stem radiation

c)

regulate field size

d)

all of the above

29.

The volume of the irradiated tissue increases as

a)

patient density increases

b)

field size and patient thickness increase

c)

tissue composition increases

d)

patient orientation to the beam changes

30.

When a beam - restricting device is used to limit field size, technical factors may need to _____ to compensate for the change in image receptor exposure.

a)

be increased

b)

none of the above

c)

remain unchanged

d)

be decreased

31.

When collimating down from a 14”x17” field size to a 8”x10” field size,

a)

mAs must be increased to maintain image receptor exposure

b)

off-focus radiation production is increased

c)

the mAs should be reduced by 50 %

d)

kVp must be increased to maintain image quality

32.

When kilovoltage is increased with no other changes in technical factors, fewer scattered photons will result.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

When more photons are absorbed photoelectrically, the image receptor will

a)

receive less exposure

b)

not operate due to lack of photons

c)

increase its sensitivity automatically

d)

receive increased exposure due to the increase in secondary radiation production

34.

Which of the following is placed between the patient and the image receptor to absorb scatter radiation?

a)

AEC detector

b)

cylinder

c)

collimator

d)

radiographic grid

35.

Accurate patient positioning has very little impact upon subject distortion

a)

True

b)

False

36.

All of the following are related EXCEPT

a)

Fat

b)

Barium

c)

Bone

d)

Air

37.

All of the following are true of Compton scatter EXCEPT

a)

It is a significant contributor to occupational radiation exposure.

b)

Its production increases as tissue density increases.

c)

Its contributes no meaningful information the final image

d)

It is not a factor of exposure technique selection.

38.

All of the following pathological conditions would warrant an increase in exposure EXCEPT

a)

Bronchiectasis

b)

Ascites

c)

Anorexia nervosa

d)

Osteopetrosis

39.

All of the following refer to patient factors contributing to image quality EXCEPT

a)

Subject detail

b)

Tissue density

c)

Subject contrast

d)

Receptor contrast

40.

As subject density ____, image receptor exposure ____.

a)

decreases; decreases

b)

increases; increases

c)

increases; remains the same

d)

increases; decreases

41.

Attenuation is greater for elements with more ____ with which the photons may interact.

a)

Neutrons

b)

Positrons

c)

Protons

d)

Electrons

42.

Because of its tissue composition, the human breast

a)

Yields a high contrast image

b)

Is a high subject contrast structure

c)

is considered a high-attenuator of x-ray energy

d)

is a low subject contrast structure

43.

Bone produces less image receptor _____ because it attenuates the x-ray beam more than soft tissue does.

a)

Exposure

b)

Detail

c)

Distortion

d)

Contrast

44.

Clinically speaking from a diagnostic viewpoint, the only USEFUL radiation exposure is that radiation

a)

absorbed in the patient

b)

produced from Compton interactions

c)

that traverses through the grid

d)

detected by the receptor

45.

Distortion is the misrepresentation of the _____ of an object.

a)

width

b)

length

c)

shape

d)

all of the above

46.

For most additive pathologies, an increase of ______ in kVp, is generally enough to compensate for the added attenuation.

a)

5% - 15%

b)

33%

c)

none of the above

d)

20% - 25%

47.

For the same exposure intensity, air produces

a)

less exposure intensity to the receptor than other materials.

b)

greater exposure intensity to the receptor than other materials.

c)

the same exposure intensity to the receptor as other materials

d)

less exposure intensity due to the high degree of photoelectric absorption

48.

Shape distortion can be the result of a patient's body habits.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Subject density refers to the impact the patient has on the resulting image receptor exposure.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Subject distortion occurs naturally.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

The ____ the body part, the ____ the attenuation.

a)

thicker; greater

b)

thinner; greater

c)

more dense; less

d)

thicker; less

52.

The beam emitted from the patient contains diagnostic information.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

The degree of differential absorption is referred to as

a)

subject density

b)

subject contrast

c)

image receptor exposure

d)

material contrast

54.

The incident beam is significantly altered as it passes through the patient.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

The patient has an impact on all the properties that affect radiographic quality.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

The primary source of radiation exposure for occupational personnel is due to

a)

Compton scatter

b)

coherent scatter

c)

photoelectric effect

d)

classical scatter

57.

The recorded detail of a structure is dependent on

a)

the size of the part

b)

the placement of the body in relationship to the film

c)

its position within the body

d)

all of the above

58.

The relationship between image receptor exposure and the patient is termed subject density.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

The relationship between radiographic contrast and the patient is termed subject contrast.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

The relationship between radiographic quality and the patient is termed image receptor exposure.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

When performing a KUB on a patient with ascites, using AEC and the proper detector combination, the responsible radiographer would:

a)

decrease the kVp to reduce the amount of Compton scatter

b)

take a scout image using manual techniques, to establish a back-up time for the AEC

c)

immediately increase the AEC sensitivity to +2

d)

allow the AEC system to adjust the exposure for the patient condition

62.

Which of the following elements would attenuate a greater percentage of the x-ray beam?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Carbon

c)

Oxygen

d)

Calcium

63.

Which of the following elements would attenuate a lesser percentage of the x-ray beam?

a)

Barium

b)

Phosphorus

c)

Carbon

d)

Iron

64.

Which of the following is the greatest attenuator of the x-ray beam?

a)

Perirenal fat

b)

Psoas muscle

c)

Pneumonic lung

d)

Pericardial fat

65.

Which of the following is the least attenuator of the x-ray beam?

a)

Psoas muscle

b)

Aerated lung

c)

Pericardial fat

d)

Perirenal fat

66.

With a patient in the supine position, the anatomical structure that would demonstrate the greatest subject detail would be the

a)

Nasal bones

b)

Vertebral pedicles

c)

Spinous processes

d)

Sternum

67.

With the patient in the posterior–anterior projection of the abdomen (prone),

a)

the anterior ribs would have high resolution.

b)

the psoas muscles would have high resolution.

c)

renal stones would have high resolution.

d)

the lumbar vertebrae would have high resolution.

68.

With the perfusion of iodinated contrast material into the kidneys,

a)

a greater degree of Compton scatter is produced from the kidneys.

b)

there is less distinction between kidney structures.

c)

a greater degree of photoelectric interactions will occur in the kidneys.

d)

the kidneys will demonstrate lower subject contrast.

69.

X-rays are attenuated

a)

Lineraly

b)

Exponentially

c)

As a function of mAs

d)

Based upon the direction of the central ray

70.

Patient factors include _____.

a)

body composition and patient height

b)

patient height and patient gender

c)

anatomical thickness and body composition

d)

anatomical thickness and patient gender

71.

Which body habitus indicates an average patient?

a)

Asthenic

b)

Sthenic

c)

Hypersthenic

d)

Hyposthenic

72.

Which body habitus indicates a thin, but healthy appearing patient?

a)

Sthenic

b)

Hyposthenic

c)

Hypersthenic

d)

Asthenic

73.

Patient thickness affects radiographic technique by affecting _____.

a)

source to image receptor distance

b)

mAs and kVp settings

c)

object to image receptor distance

d)

source to object distance

74.

A high quality radiographic image should always demonstrate_____.

a)

structures and tissues

b)

minimum magnifications

c)

maximum distortion

d)

high contrast

75.

Spatial resolution is limited to _____.

a)

motion

b)

brightness of the display monitor

c)

pixel size

d)

postprocessing

76.

What is the formula for the magnification factor?

a)

MF = (SID/SOD)2

b)

MF = SOD/SID

c)

MF = SID/SOD

d)

MF = SID2/SOD

77.

Distortion can be reduced by _____.

a)

placing the object plane parallel to the image plane

b)

increasing the SID and the OID

c)

placing the object plane perpendicular to the image plane

d)

directing the central ray 15" from the object plane

78.

Which of these body parts has the highest subject contrast?

a)

skull

b)

abdomen

c)

pelvis

d)

chest

79.

Radiographic image quality is improved when the ______ is increased

a)

film speed

b)

screen speed

c)

source image distance

d)

focal spot size

80.

Radiographic technique charts embedded in the operating console are based on hypersthenic.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Patient thickness should not be guessed.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Foreshortening of the image is when the anatomical part appears smaller than normal.

a)

False

b)

True

83.

The visibility of image detail is best measured by spatial resolution.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Pathology can appear with increased radiolucency or radiopacity

a)

False

b)

True