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Unit 2 Exam

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Inventory is an example of a current asset.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

A sole proprietorship tends to be both larger and more profitable than a partnership.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

The owner of a sole proprietorship must share any after-tax profits with the company's shareholders.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

In the context of the U.S. economy, small firms tend to be effective innovators because of the presence of revolutionary new ideas.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Intangible assets are assets that have no physical existence—you can't see or touch them—but they still have value.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Balance sheets usually classify assets into at least two major categories: current assets and property, plant, and equipment assets.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

The deduction of a firm's expenses from its revenue is shown in the income statement of the firm.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

For research purposes, the U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA) defines small business as companies with up to 1000 employees.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Expenses such as insurance and advertising that have been cleared before they are due are known as prepaid expenses.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Corporations are by far the most common type of business organization in the United States.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

It is possible to establish a corporation by a simple verbal agreement.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

The net income of a company is calculated by subtracting expenses from revenue.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

In the accounting equation, assets are equal to liabilities minus the owners' equity.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Franchising is used by companies to move into foreign markets.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

One of the limitations of a not-for-profit corporation is that it cannot have stockholders.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Costs are deducted from revenue in several stages to show how net income is determined. The first step in this process is to deduct:

a)

costs of damaged goods.

b)

costs of purchased goods

c)

costs of goods mortgaged.

d)

costs of goods s

17.

The three kinds of basic financial statements that are prepared in financial accounting are:

a)

statement of debts, letter of credit, and articles of incorporation.

b)

comfort letter, master budget, and credit state

c)

balance sheet, income statement, and statement of cash flows.

d)

pro forma report, request for proposal, and articles of incorporation.

18.

A manager who does not use words such as "his," "young," "her," etc. in business communication is most likely trying to:

a)

avoid slang.

b)

be concise.

c)

avoid bias.

d)

analyze the audience.

19.

In the context of financial statements of a company, cash flow statements commonly begin with _____.

a)

net income

b)

net debt

c)

the shared profit amount

d)

the shared expenses

20.

Congress passed the _____ that banned business relationships that might create conflicts of interest between certified public accounting (CPA) firms and the companies they audit.

a)

Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002

b)

Securities Exchange Act of 1934

c)

Glass-Steagall Act of 1933

d)

McCain-Feingold Act of 20

21.

A _____ is a formal document that describes a business concept, outlines core business objectives, and details strategies and timelines for achieving those objectives.

a)

business warrant

b)

business resource

c)

business directory

d)

business plan

22.

A sole proprietorship is a form of business ownership in which:

a)

the company is considered a legal entity that is separate from its owners.

b)

a single owner actively manages the company.

c)

two or more people act as co-owners of the company.

d)

the owners of the business are offered limited liability and flexible tax treatment.

23.

In the context of managerial accounting, _____ are costs that are incurred as the result of some specific cost object.

a)

direct costs

b)

implicit costs

c)

indirect costs

d)

fixed costs

24.

In the context of active listening, one of the dos for better listening is the use of _____.

a)

nonverbal communication

b)

indirect feedback

c)

dynamic delivery

d)

in-person presentation

25.

A(n) _____ is a form of business ownership that offers both restricted responsibility to its owners and flexible tax treatment.

a)

limited liability company

b)

S corporation

c)

sole proprietorship

d)

quasi corporation

26.

To decide whether or not technical jargon can be used in a business presentation, the audience needs to be analyzed. One of the factors that should be considered to identify the audiences' needs is the _____ of the audience.

a)

gender

b)

profession

c)

ethnicity

d)

nationality

27.

The _____ of a company is a simple statement that shows how the accumulated revenues that have been reinvested in the company have changed from one accounting period to the next.

a)

profit and loss statement

b)

pro forma statement

c)

statement of operations

d)

statement of retained earnings

28.

In the context of balance sheets, assets such as machinery, building, and equipment have a limited useful life, so accountants subtract _____ from the original value of these assets, to reflect the fact that these assets are being used up over time.

a)

deferred income

b)

bequest value

c)

accumulated depreciation

d)

laid-down cost

29.

A _____ is a form of business ownership in which the business is considered a legal entity that is separate and distinct from its owners.

a)

sole proprietorship

b)

partnership

c)

cooperative

d)

corporation

30.

In the context of accounting, which of the following best defines cost?

a)

The value of equities a firm has at its disposal

b)

The income from which public expenses are met

c)

The income lost due to unaccountable decision-making

d)

The value of what is given up in exchange for something else

31.

Which of the following is a characteristic of successful entrepreneurs?

a)

Tolerance of uncertainty

b)

Superciliousness

c)

Apathy

d)

Intolerance of failure

32.

In the context of balance sheets, accounts receivable is an example of _____.

a)

current liabilities

b)

immovable assets

c)

current assets

d)

depreciated liabilities

33.

In the context of challenges to effective communication, the term _____ refers to any interference that causes the message you send to be different from the message your audience understands.

a)

noise

b)

deflate

c)

tardiness

d)

clone

34.

In the context of an acquisition, the firm that is purchased by another firm is called the _____.

a)

acquiring firm

b)

target firm

c)

licensee

d)

franchiseS

35.

Since sole proprietorships are extensions of their owners, they:

a)

lack of permanence.

b)

offer limited liability.

c)

have the ability to pool financial resources.

d)

lack tax advantage.

36.

According to the U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA), to officially count as "small," _____.

a)

a business should have at least 500 employees, excluding the self-employed

b)

the average revenue of a business should range from $0.75 million to $28.5 million

c)

the number of employees of a business should range from fewer than 50 to 100

d)

the average revenue of a business should be between $30 million and $40 million

37.

In the context of balance sheets, patents, trademarks, and copyrights are examples of _____.

a)

fixed assets

b)

current assets

c)

liquid assets

d)

intangible assets

38.

_____ is the profit or loss a firm earns in the time period covered by the financial statement that reports the revenues and expenses.

a)

Shared debt

b)

Owners' equity

c)

Net income

d)

Cash flow

39.

A _____ refers to a partnership in which all partners can take an active role in managing the business and have unlimited liability for any claims against the firm.

a)

limited partnership

b)

general partnership

c)

limited liability partnership

d)

publicly traded partnership

40.

A(n) _____ is a combination of two firms that are in unrelated industries.

a)

market extension merger

b)

vertical merger

c)

horizontal merger

d)

conglomerate merger