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MSII Final Review

Total questions: 52

Worksheet time: 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary objective of the corrective exercise specialist?

a)

Increase aerobic and anaerobic capacity

b)

Diagnose and treat musculoskeletal pain

c)

Optimize movement quality

d)

Enhance sports performance

2.

What is the third phase of the corrective exercise continuum?

a)

activate

b)

lengthen

c)

integrate

d)

inhibit

3.

Which is the best definition for the 'regional interdependence model'?

a)

The body is an interconnected system in which all parts can and do affect others, especially in the context of movement dysfunction

b)

The body is an interconnected system with the brain, meaning dysfunction in the brain can impair dynamic movement

c)

The body is connected to its orientation in space and spatial awareness must be integrated into corrective exercise

d)

The body is a kinetic chain, meaning when one part moves, so do all others

4.

Which is NOT an example of phase 2 of the corrective exercise continuum?

a)

Quad stretch off table

b)

Foam rolling

c)

Cat cow

d)

stretch-relax PNF

5.

Which of the following IS within the scope of a CES? Mark ALL that apply.

a)

Prevent injury

b)

Diagnose injury

c)

Identify neuromuscular dysfunction

d)

Treat injury and/or pain

6.

Which of the following are risk factors for poor movement quality? Mark ALL that apply.

a)

Decreased physical activity

b)

Repetitive movements or postures

c)

Sport involvement

d)

Hypermobility

7.

True or False: You need a license to be a CES.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

What is the BEST definition of human movement science?

a)

The study of the anatomy, physiology, & chemistry of the human body

b)

The study of how the organs in the body control the various functions of the body

c)

The study of the musculoskeletal system

d)

The study of how the human movement system functions in an interdependent, interrelated system

9.

THIS is the prime mover for any given exercise

a)

Agonist

b)

Antagonist

c)

Synergist

d)

Stabilizer

10.

This is the muscle that assists the prime movers during functional movement

a)

Agonist

b)

Antagonist

c)

Synergist

d)

Stabilizer

11.

The rotator cuff during overhead motions is generally a:

a)

Agonist

b)

Antagonist

c)

Synergist

d)

Stabilizer

12.

When you kick a soccer ball, the hamstring is the:

a)

Agonist

b)

Antagonist

c)

Synergist

d)

Stabilizer

13.

During the raising motion of a bicep curl, as the dumbbell rises, the bicep is undergoing what type of contraction:

a)

Concentric

b)

Isometric

c)

Eccentric

14.

During the lowering motion of a bicep curl, as the dumbbell lowers, the biceps is undergoing what type of contraction:

a)

Concentric

b)

Isometric

c)

Eccentric

15.

During a biceps curl, the wrist flexors are undergoing what type of contraction:

a)

Concentric

b)

Isometric

c)

Eccentric

16.

Which of the following is NOT a muscle in the LOWER leg?

a)

Soleus

b)

Posterior tibialis

c)

Piriformis

d)

Fibularis

17.

Which of the following is NOT a muscle in the hip region?

a)

Tensor fascia latae

b)

Iliacus

c)

Vastus intermedius

d)

Psoas major

18.

Which of the following is NOT a muscle on the posterior thoracic region?

a)

Rhomboids

b)

Quadratus lumborum

c)

Trapezius

d)

Latissimus dorsi

19.

This word is defined as: the study of posture, movements, and structures used by the CNS to integrate sensory info with previous experience.

a)

Motor control

b)

Motor learning

c)

Motor development

d)

Motor outcomes

20.

This word is defined as neural input from sensory afferents to the CNS.

a)

Sensations

b)

Perceptions

c)

Proprioception

d)

Neuromuscular efficiency

21.

Muscles recruit in groups or _________.

a)

Partners

b)

Coaction

c)

Stabilizers

d)

Synergies

22.

The concept of a muscle imbalance suggest that if side A is overactive the opposite side, side B is ....

Mark all that apply!

a)

Side B is shortened

b)

Side B is lengthened

c)

Side B needs stretched

d)

Side B needs strengthened

23.

The concept of a muscle imbalance suggests that if side is overactive this side ...

Mark all that apply!

a)

is shortened

b)

is lengthened

c)

needs stretched

d)

needs strengthened

24.

We constantly talk about proper postural alignment. What term explains why this is so important?

a)

Structural efficiency

b)

Functional efficiency

c)

Segment alignment

d)

Kinetic chain

e)

Regional Interdependence

25.

The state in which the structural integrity of the HMS is compromised because one or more segments of the kinetic chain are out of alignment is known as ....

a)

A movement impairment

b)

The cumulative injury cycle

c)

Tissue trauma

d)

Altered neuromuscular control

26.

Which is NOT part of the Cumulative Injury Cycle?

a)

Muscle imbalance

b)

Inflammation

c)

Altered neuromuscular control

d)

Proprioception

27.

Which is NOT a concern with rollers?

a)

Roller diameter

b)

Roller density

c)

Roller texture

d)

Roller length

28.

Which qualify as a myofascial intervention?

a)

Vibration

b)

Cupping

c)

Myofascial balls

d)

Rollers

29.

Which is a contraindication to myofascial treatment or inhibition?

a)

Open wounds

b)

Malignancy or cancer

c)

Varicose veins

d)

Young children

30.

What prescription is correct for inhibition/foam rolling?

a)

3 days a week, 10 seconds per muscle group

b)

Most days per week, focus on tight areas, 90-120 seconds per muscle group

c)

5 days a week, focus on tight areas, 30 seconds per muscle group

d)

Most days per week, 10-30 seconds per muscle group

31.

This term is the ability of a muscle to stretch or the resistance of a muscle to stretch.

a)

Flexibility

b)

Extensibility

c)

Muscle length

d)

Muscle rigidity

32.

How many types of stretching are there?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

33.

Which is not a type of PNF?

a)

Contract-relax

b)

Contract-relax with agonist contraction

c)

Relax-contract

d)

Contract-relax with antagonist contraction

34.

What are the recommended guidelines for static stretching?

a)

1-4 reps, 20-30 seconds, as needed for frequency

b)

2-3 reps, 20-30 seconds, as needed for frequency

c)

1-4 reps, 10-30 seconds, 2-5 times per week

d)

2-3 reps, 10-30 seconds, 2-5 times per week

35.

What are the recommendations for dynamic stretching?

a)

60 seconds or less per muscle group, 3-6 days a week

b)

90 seconds or less per muscle group, 6 days a week

c)

90 seconds or less per muscle group, 3-6 days a week

d)

60 seconds or less per muscle group, 6 days a week

36.

When we are on stage 3 (activation) what are we activating? Mark all that apply.

a)

The muscles we just stretched or inhibited

b)

The muscles on the opposite side of the muscles we just stretched or inhibited

c)

Overactive muscles

d)

Underactive muscles

37.

Which of the following is NOT part of the recommendation for activation guidelines?

a)

3-5 days per week

b)

2-5 sets

c)

10-15 reps

d)

4/2/1 tempo

38.

What will almost all clients need to activate?

a)

Rotator cuff

b)

Core

c)

Deep glute stabilizers

d)

Hamstrings

39.

Which is NOT true of integration techniques?

a)

Coordinated total body exercises

b)

Multiplanar

c)

Synergistic function of muscle actions

d)

Static and dynamic

40.

Which is not a correct progression for integrated exercises?

a)

Double --> single leg

b)

One joint --> 2 joints

c)

Fast --> Slow

d)

Cued --> reactive

41.

What is the best cue for someone who has valgus motion of their knees?

a)

Activate your glutes

b)

Bend your knees as you land

c)

Keep your knees in line with your middle toes

d)

Keep your weight evenly in your feet

42.

Which is NOT generally considered an integrated exercise?

a)

Step ups

b)

Lunges

c)

Single arm rows

d)

Glute bridges from floor

43.

What does a CES do during an initial session for client intake?

a)

Static posture assessment

b)

Movement assessments

c)

Mobility assessments

d)

Client intake paperwork

44.

Which is not part of client intake paperwork?

a)

Pain assessment

b)

PARQ

c)

General lifestyle

d)

Medical history

45.

You intake 4 potential clients. Who needs to be referred before beginning to train with you?

a)

Sam, who has knee valgus, previous history of patella femoral pain syndrome, and is overweight

b)

Isaiah, who is overweight, has type I diabetes, and has a plate in his wrist from a fracture as a kid

c)

Brianna, who has been a soccer player most of her life, has shoulder impingement, and cannot lift overhead without pain

d)

Donte who has hypertension, previous issues with lightheadedness during exercise, and is overweight

46.

What am I looking for in a static posture assessment?

a)

Knee tracking

b)

Potential under and overactive muscle patterns

c)

Movement impairments

d)

Movement dysfunctions

47.

A client has a postural imbalance on their static assessment. What may have caused this or be related to this?

a)

Injury

b)

Chronic bad posture

c)

Repetitive motions

d)

Past injury

48.

How many kinetic check points do we have for static posture assessment ?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

6

d)

10

49.

How many views do you need of a patient for a static posture assessment?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

50.

Which are movement assessments you can do with clients?

a)

Loaded squat

b)

Overhead squat

c)

Gait

d)

SL squat

51.

What is measured by a goniometer?

a)

Joint ROM

b)

Muscle ROM

c)

Flexibility

d)

Extensibility

52.

A person cannot move a joint through a full ROM. They have a ...

a)

Soft tissue block

b)

An injury

c)

A mobility restriction

d)

A joint issue