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Biology 242 Final

Total questions: 123

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the outer layer of the heart called?

a)

Epicardium

b)

Epithelium

c)

Endocardium

d)

Endothelium

2.

Which circulatory circuit is low pressure and is short?

a)

Systemic and Pulmonary

b)

Systemic

c)

Pulmonary

d)

Neither Circuit

3.

Which circulation in the body is the shortest?

a)

Cerebral

b)

Coronary

c)

Pulmonary

d)

Fetal

4.

The left coronary artery bifurcates into?

a)

Posterior interventricular artery and marginal artery

b)

Anterior interventricular artery and marginal artery

c)

Posterior interventricular artery and circumflex artery

d)

Anterior interventricular artery and circumflex artery

5.

Which of the following blood vessel types creates the blood brain barrier

a)

Sinusoidal capillaries

b)

Fenestrated capillaries

c)

Arterioles

d)

Continuous capillaries

6.

Arterioles are also known as?

a)

Muscular arteries

b)

Resistance vessels

c)

Conducting vessels

d)

Capacitance vessels

7.

Which of the following fits the description: "results from extreme vasodilation and decreased peripheral resistance"

a)

Hypovolemic Shock

b)

Hypervolemic Shock

c)

Vascular Shock

d)

Cardiogenic Shock

8.

In which of the following blood vessels is the velocity the slowest

a)

Aorta

b)

Arterioles

c)

Capillaries

d)

Inferior Vena Cava

9.

The named function of capillaries is?

a)

Exchange vessels

b)

Return blood to the heart

c)

To drain directly into veins

d)

Capacitance vessels

10.

Which of the following contributes most to resistance?

a)

Blood viscosity

b)

Length of blood vessel

c)

Blood type

d)

Blood vessel diameter

11.

What is the specialized lymph capillaries in the intestinal mucosa for fatty chyle called?

a)

Fenestrated capillaries

b)

Lacteals

c)

Peyer's patches

d)

Sinusoidal capillaries

12.

The thoracic duct drains which part(s) of the body?

a)

Left upper extremity and the left side of the head and thorax

b)

Bilateral lower extremities

c)

Right upper extremity and the right side of the head and thorax

d)

The whole body excluding the following: right upper extremity and the right side of the head and thorax

13.

Which of the following are secondary lymphoid organs?

a)

Red bone marrow and spleen

b)

MALT and spleen

c)

Red bone marrow and thymus

d)

Lymph nodes and thymus

14.

Which of the following is located in the distal small intestine and are also called aggregated lymphoid tissue?

a)

Ileum

b)

Tonsils

c)

Peyer's patches

d)

Appendix

15.

The right coronary artery bifurcates into the?

a)

Posterior interventricular artery and marginal artery

b)

Anterior interventricular artery and circumflex artery

c)

Posterior interventricular artery and circumflex artery

d)

Anterior interventricular artery and marginal artery

16.

The great cardiac vein, middle cardiac vein and small cardiac vein all directly empty into the?

a)

Cardiac Sinus

b)

Left Atrium

c)

Right and left coronary veins

d)

Right Ventricle

17.

Elastic arteries are also known as?

a)

Arterioles

b)

Distributing arteries

c)

Resistance arteries

d)

Conducting Artery

18.

Where is a continuous capillary not found?

a)

Central nervous system

b)

Skin

c)

Liver

d)

Lungs

19.

Which of the following fits the description "results from large-scale blood loss"

a)

Cardiogenic shock

b)

Vascular shock

c)

Hypovolemic shock

d)

Hypervolemic shock

20.

Fluid close to the blood vessel walls moves slower than in the center of the blood vessel. This is called?

a)

Arteriosclerosis

b)

Blood vessel occulsion

c)

Circumferential flow

d)

Laminar flow

21.

Each lymph duct empties lymph into the venous circulation at the junction of?

a)

External and internal jugular veins

b)

Axillary and subclavian veins

c)

Internal jugular and subclavian veins

d)

External jugular and subclavian veins

22.

Where are baroreceptors not located?

a)

Aorta

b)

Superior and Inferior Vena Cava

c)

Carotid sinus

d)

Aortic Arch

23.

The job of the sphincters in a vascular shunt is to?

a)

Open and close to either let blood into the capillaries or to stop blood from entering the capillaries

b)

Tell the brain what to do

c)

Cause vasodilation and vasoconstriction

d)

Stay open constantly to allow for perfusion at all times

24.

Where are venous valves most abundant?

a)

Capillaries

b)

Superior and Inferior vena cava

c)

Veins of the torso

d)

Veins of the limbs

25.

Where do T lymphocytes mature?

a)

Red bone marrow

b)

Liver

c)

Thymus

d)

Spleen

26.

Which of the following are secondary lymphoid organs?

a)

Red bone marrow and thymus

b)

Red bone marrow and spleen

c)

Lymph nodes and thymus

d)

Spleen and lymph nodes

27.

Where do mature lymphocytes first encounter their antigen and become activated?

a)

Primary lymphoid organs

b)

Red bone marrow

c)

Secondary lymphoid organs

d)

Thymus

28.

Which is the largest lymphoid organ?

a)

Lungs

b)

Spleen

c)

Liver

d)

Large intestine

29.

Which of the following is not considered to be mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)

a)

Appendix

b)

Peyer's Patches

c)

Thymus

d)

Tonsils

30.

The spleen histologically has two components. They are ?

a)

Cortex and center

b)

Red pulp and white pulp

c)

Trabecula and red pulp

d)

Trabecula and white pulp

31.

Which of the following blood vessels contain substantial smooth muscle, but inactive in vasoconstriction?

a)

Elastic arteries

b)

Distributing arteries

c)

Capacitance vessels

d)

Muscular arteries

32.

Where is a fenestrated capillary found?

a)

Skin

b)

Muscles

c)

Liver

d)

Kidney

33.

In which blood vessel is there the steepest drop in blood pressure?

a)

Muscular Arteries

b)

Superior/Inferior Vena Cava

c)

Arterioles

d)

Capillaries

34.

Which type of receptor in the large arteries of the neck and aortic arch would detect an increase of CO2 or a decrease in pH or O2?

a)

Baroreceptors

b)

Chemoreceptors

c)

Higher brain centers

d)

Medulla Oblongata

35.

Which brain center mediates redistribution of blood flow during exercise and changes in body temperature?

a)

Corpus Callosum

b)

Broca's area

c)

Pre-frontal cortex

d)

Hypothalamus

36.

Which of the following blood vessels has the largest total area of the circulatory system?

a)

Capillaries

b)

Veins

c)

Arteries

d)

Arterioles

37.

What structure and action causes the second heart sound?

a)

Opening of the semilunar valves

b)

Opening of the atrioventricular valves

c)

Closing of the atrioventricular valves

d)

Closing of the semilunar valves

38.

How many pulmonary veins are there?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

4

d)

2

39.

Which of the following trunks is not singular (not paired)?

a)

Intestinal

b)

Broncho-mediastinal

c)

Jugular

d)

Subclavian

40.

What is the correct ascending afferent order of named structures in the lymphatic system?

a)

Ducts/Trunks/Capillaries/ Collecting lymphatic vessels

b)

Capillaries/Ducts/Trunks/Collecting lymphatic vessels

c)

Capillaries/Trunks/Ducts/Collecting lymphatic vessels

d)

Capillaries/Collecting lymphatic vessels/Trunks/Duct

41.

Which of the following choices fits the description "The nervous system processes and interprets sensory input and decides what should be done at each moment"?

a)

Motor Output

b)

Sensory Output

c)

Motor Input

d)

Integration

42.

Which of the following choices fits the description of "The nervous system activates effector organs - muscles and glands - to cause a response?

a)

Motor Output

b)

Sensory Input

c)

Sensory Output

d)

Integration

43.

What is a collection of neuron cell bodies located in the peripheral nervous system called?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ganglia

c)

Dendrites

d)

Axons

44.

What is the collection of cell bodies located in the central nervous system called?

a)

Dendrites

b)

Ganglia

c)

Nucleus

d)

Axons

45.

The somatic nervous system is?

a)

Voluntary

b)

Involuntary

c)

Both voluntary and involuntary

d)

Neither voluntary or involuntary

46.

Which of the following glial cells is not in the central nervous system?

a)

Astrocytes

b)

Microglial cells

c)

Ependymal cells

d)

Schwann cells

47.

What cell in the peripheral nervous system has the same function of an oligodendrocyte?

a)

Satellite cell

b)

Schwann Cell

c)

Astrocyte

d)

Microglial cell

48.

What is a homologous cell in the peripheral nervous system of an astrocyte in the CNS?

a)

Neuron

b)

Ganglia

c)

Schwann cell

d)

Satellite cell

49.

Which two cells of the following belong in the peripheral nervous system?

a)

Astrocytes, schwann cells

b)

Schwann cells, satellite cells

c)

Astrocytes, satellite cells

d)

Astrocytes, ependymal cells

50.

Which part of the neurons is the receptive or input region?

a)

Axon

b)

Dendrite

c)

Axon hillock

d)

Myelin Sheath

51.

Approximately how many axon arborizations are possible?

a)

10

b)

100

c)

1,000

d)

10,000

52.

Which of the following is the most common neuron?

a)

Unipolar

b)

Bipolar

c)

Tripolar

d)

Multipolar

53.

What type of neuron transmits impulses in the skin if internal organs toward or into the central nervous system?

a)

Efferent

b)

Afferent

c)

Interneuron

d)

Efferent and afferent

54.

Which type of neuron is most abundant of the central nervous system?

a)

Efferent

b)

Afferent

c)

Interneurons

d)

Sensory

55.

What type of neuron carries impulses away from the central nervous system to the effector organ or muscle?

a)

Efferent

b)

Afferent

c)

Interneuron

d)

Sensory

56.

Which of the following is also known as a ligand gated channel?

a)

Voltage gated channel

b)

Mechanically gated channel

c)

Chemically gated channel

d)

Non-gated channel

57.

If a neuron depolarizes, which part of the cell generates the action potential?

a)

Cell body

b)

Dendrites

c)

Axons

d)

Axon hillock

58.

Which part of the central nervous system has the main function of emotion?

a)

Frontal cortex

b)

Limbic

c)

Medulla oblongata

d)

Reticular activating system

59.

A collection of cell bodies with a specific function in the central nervous system is called a?

a)

Ganglia

b)

Astrocyte

c)

System

d)

Nucleus

60.

What is the name of the structure separating the frontal and parietal lobes?

a)

Corpus callosum

b)

Central sulcus

c)

Parieto-occipital sulcus

d)

Lateral sulcus

61.

In the brain the phenomenon of division of labor to a specific hemisphere is called?

a)

Cephalization

b)

Decussation

c)

Lateralization

d)

Limbic system

62.

Which of the following structures is the relay station for information coming into the cerebral cortex?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Thalamus

c)

Pituitary gland

d)

Visual cortex

63.

Which specific brain structure has the function of short-term memory?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Hippocampus

c)

Reticular activating system

d)

Anterior cingulate gyrus

64.

Which of the following is located immediately superior to the pituitary gland and tells the pituitary gland what to do?

a)

Thalamus

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Superior colliculi

d)

Inferior colliculi

65.

What term has the definition of nerve fibers innervating the same side of the body?

a)

Contralateral

b)

Lateralization

c)

Cephalization

d)

Ipsilateral

66.

Which structure in the brain has the function of smooth coordinated actions of skeletal muscle?

a)

Primary motor area

b)

Primary somatosensory area

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Pons

67.

Which part of the brain is a relay station from the cerebrum to the cerebellum?

a)

Corpus callosum

b)

Fornix

c)

Amygdala

d)

Pons

68.

If there is a lesion in which area of the brain would that person not be able to understand language?

a)

Wernicke's area

b)

Broca's area

c)

Epithalamus

d)

Primary motor cortex

69.

If there is a lesion in which area of the brain would that person not be able to speak?

a)

Broca's area

b)

Wernicke's area

c)

Primary motor cortex

d)

Primary somatosensory area

70.

The spinal cord extends from the foramen magnum to approximately what vertebral level?

a)

T1, T2

b)

L1, L2

c)

L5, S1

d)

Coccyx

71.

Nerves exiting off of the spinal cord and projecting to lower vertebral levels known as the?

a)

Filum terminal

b)

Inferior nerve extensions

c)

Cauda equina

d)

Lumbosacral plexus

72.

The bottom of the spinal cord terminates in a tapering cone shaped structure called?

a)

Conus medullaris

b)

Filum terminal

c)

Terminal cord

d)

Cornus medulla

73.

The conscious interpretation of stimuli is called?

a)

Perception

b)

Proprioception

c)

Sensation

d)

Nociception

74.

Which horn of the spinal cord is motor?

a)

Dorsal

b)

Ventral

c)

Lateral

d)

Medial

75.

Which horn of the spinal cord is for afferent information?

a)

Dorsal

b)

Ventral

c)

Lateral

d)

Medial

76.

Which gland is the master gland over the autonomic nervous system?

a)

Thalamus

b)

Pituitary gland

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Amygdala

77.

The white matter in the cerebellum is called?

a)

Pineal gland

b)

Fornix

c)

Arbor Vitae

d)

Corpus Callosum

78.

Which part of the brain sorts, edits, and relays afferent input?

a)

Pituitary

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Epithalamus

d)

Thalamus

79.

Sequentially from superior to inferior what are the named structures of the brainstem?

a)

Midbrain, Medulla Oblongata, Pons

b)

Pons, Medulla Oblongata, Midbrain

c)

Pons, Midbrain, Medulla Oblongata

d)

Midbrain, Pons, Medulla Oblongata

80.

Sequentially from inferior to superior what are the named structures of the brainstem?

a)

Midbrain, Pons, Medulla Oblongata

b)

Pons, Medulla Oblongata, Midbrain

c)

Pons, Midbrain, Medulla Oblongata

d)

Medulla Oblongata, Pons, Midbrain

81.

What is the correct term for crossing over of motor tracts in the medulla oblongata?

a)

Decussation

b)

Cephalization

c)

Assiociation

d)

Lateralization

82.

What neurotransmitter does the reward, pleasure (addictive) pathway use?

a)

Epinephren

b)

Serotonin

c)

Dopamine

d)

Oxytocin

83.

What is the name of the fiber tract that links Limbic system regions?

a)

Hippocampus

b)

Anterior association fibers

c)

Fornix

d)

Corpus Callosum

84.

Approximately how many languages are there on planet earth?

a)

60

b)

600

c)

1000

d)

6000

85.

Approximately how many neurotransmitters do we know of?

a)

10-20

b)

50-60

c)

100-200

d)

Thousands

86.

Which of the following structures connects the third and fourth ventricles?

a)

Septum Pellucidum

b)

Cerebral Aqueduct

c)

Fornix

d)

Corpus Callosum

87.

Which of the following structures separates the lateral ventricles?

a)

Septum Pellucidum

b)

Cerebral aqueduct

c)

Fornix

d)

Corpus Callosum

88.

Which part of the brain contains both the cardio acceleratory and cardio inhibitory centers?

a)

Midbrain

b)

Pons

c)

Medulla Oblongata

d)

Frontal Cortex

89.

Alzheimer's disease is also known as?

a)

Diabetes type I

b)

Diabetes type II

c)

Diabetes type III

d)

Diabetes type 1.5

90.

Which cranial nerve is both viscero-sensory and viscero-motor?

a)

Hypoglossal

b)

Vagus

c)

Trigeminal

d)

Facial

91.

Which cranial nerve innervates the tongue?

a)

Hypoglossal

b)

Vagus

c)

Trigeminal

d)

Facial

92.

Which cranial nerves are for eye movement?

a)

III, IV, VI

b)

II, III, IV

c)

X, XI, XII

d)

III, IV, V

93.

Which of the following is least involved in the mechanical breakdown of food, digestion or absorption of nutrients?

a)

The small intestines

b)

large intestine

c)

The oral cavity

d)

The esophagus

94.

Complete the following statement using the choices below. Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is______?

a)

Greater than the pressure in the atmosphere

b)

Greater than the intra-alveolar pressure

c)

Equal to the pressure in the atmosphere

d)

Less than the pressure in the atmosphere

95.

The amount of air that always remains in the lungs is the________?

a)

Expiratory reserve volume

b)

Vital capacity

c)

Residual Volume

d)

Tidal volume

96.

All but one of the following is a function of the low pH found in the stomach. Select the description below that does NOT reflect a role of stomach acid.

a)

Low pH converts pepsinogen to its active from pepsin

b)

Stomach acid denatures proteins

c)

Many potentially harmful bacteria will be prevented entry to the small intestine by stomach acid

d)

The stomach's acid catabolically breaks down food stuffs in preparation for absorption

97.

The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place are called ______?

a)

Serosal lining

b)

Lamina propria

c)

Mucosal lining

d)

Mesenteries

98.

Valsalva's maneuver assists in _____?

a)

Defecation

b)

Swallowing

c)

Deglutition

d)

Mastication

99.

Teniae coli, haustra, and epiploic appendages are all unique features seen in the _______?

a)

Liver

b)

Large intestine

c)

Small intestine

d)

Stomach

100.

Respiratory control centers are located in the ______?

a)

Upper spinal cord and medulla

b)

Midbrain and medulla

c)

Medulla and pons

d)

Pons and midbrain

101.

Which respiratory center sets eupnea?

a)

Pontine center

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Ventral respiratory group

d)

Dorsal respiratory group

102.

Which of these is not a function of the respiratory system?

a)

Speech

b)

Olfaction

c)

Supply oxygen for cellular respiration

d)

Transport of gases

103.

Which of these respiratory processes involves gas exchange across the respiratory membrane?

a)

Transport of respiratory gases

b)

Pulmonary ventilation

c)

External respiration

d)

Internal respiration

104.

Which vitamin requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed?

a)

A

b)

B12

c)

C

d)

K

105.

Which respiratory-associated muscles would contract or relax during forced expiration, for example blowing up a ballon?

a)

Internal intercostals and abdominal muscles would contract

b)

Diaphragm contracts, internal intercostals would relax

c)

External intercostals would contract and diaphragm would relax

d)

Diaphragm would contract, external intercostals would relax

106.

The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to _______?

a)

Collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing in the liver

b)

Carry toxins to the kidney for disposal through the urinary tract

c)

Distribute hormones throughout the body

d)

Return glucose to the general circulation when blood sugar is low

107.

The major nonelastic source of resistance to air flow in the respiratory passageways is _______?

a)

Surfactant

b)

Friction

c)

Surface tension

d)

Air pressure

108.

The statement, "in a mixture of gases, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of gases in the mixture" paraphrases?

a)

Henry's law

b)

Boyle's law

c)

Dalton's law

d)

Charle's law

109.

Peristaltic waves are ______?

a)

Segmental regions of the gastrointestinal tract

b)

Churning movements of the gastrointestinal tract that aid in the mechanical breakdown of chyme

c)

Waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another

d)

Pendular movements of the gastrointestinal tract

110.

The mechanical and chemical receptors that control digestive activity are located?

a)

In the oral cavity

b)

In the pons and medulla

c)

In the walls of the tract organs

d)

In the glandular tissue that surround the organ lumen

111.

The symptoms of hyperventilation may be averted by breathing into a paper bag because it _______?

a)

Helps retain oxygen in the blood

b)

Helps retain carbon dioxide in the blood

c)

Lowers blood ph levels

d)

Reduces brain perfusion by constricting cerebral blood vessels

112.

The ileocecal sphincter relaxes to admit chyme into the _______?

a)

Stomach

b)

Anal canal

c)

Large intestine

d)

Small intestine

113.

How is bulk of carbon dioxide transported in blood?

a)

As carbonic acid in the plasma

b)

Chemically combined with the amino acids of hemoglobin as carbaminohemoglobin in the red blood cells

c)

Chemically combined with the heme portion of hemoglobin

d)

As bicarbonate ions in plasma after first entering the red blood cells

114.

Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by ______?

a)

Warming the air before it enters

b)

Protecting the surface of alveoli from dehydration and other environmental variations

c)

Reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid

d)

humidifying the air before it enters

115.

All of the following are true of swallowing (deglutition) except one. Select the statement that is not true of swallowing.

a)

The epiglottis assists in propelling food into the trachea

b)

The involuntary portion of swallowing takes place in the pharynx

c)

The mouth, pharynx and esophagus all take part in swallowing

d)

The voluntary phase of swallowing phase of swallowing takes place within the mouth

116.

The serous membrane that surrounds the lung is the:

a)

Pericardium

b)

Peritoneum

c)

Pleurae

d)

Respiratory membrane

117.

The absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by increasing the surface area of the mucosal lining. Which of the following accomplish this task?

a)

Brunner's gland and peyer's patches

b)

The rugae and haustra

c)

Villi and microvilli

d)

The vast array of digestive enzymes

118.

Which of these is not one of the major salivary glands?

a)

Submandibular

b)

Parotid

c)

Sublingual

d)

Palatine

119.

Pepsinogen, an inactive digestive enzyme, is secreted by the _____?

a)

Goblet cells of the small intestine

b)

Chief cells of the stomach

c)

Brunner's glands

d)

Parietal cells of the duodenum

120.

The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is ______?

a)

Alkalosis

b)

Loss of oxygen

c)

Acidosis

d)

Increase in carbon dioxide

121.

Which of the following is not true of saliva?

a)

Cleanses the mouth

b)

Moistens food and aids in compacting of the bolus

c)

Contains enzymes that begin the breakdown of carbohydrates

d)

Contains acids which aid in chemical digestion

122.

The process of gas exchange between blood and lungs is:

a)

External respiration

b)

Transport of gases

c)

Pulmonary ventilation

d)

Internal respiration

123.

With the Bohr effect, more oxygen is released because a(n) ________?

a)

Decrease in pH (acidosis) strengthens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond

b)

Increase in pH (alkalosis) strengthens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond

c)

Decrease in pH (acidosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond

d)

Increase in pH (alkalosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond