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AP Chapter 16-21 R and C Questions

Total questions: 127

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The cell bodies of the postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division are located in the

a)

sympathetic chain ganglia and collateral ganglia

b)

dorsal root ganglia and terminal ganglia

c)

terminal ganglia

d)

All of these are correct

2.

Given these phrases: (1) neuron cell bodies in the nuclei of cranial nerves

(2)  neuron cell bodies in the lateral gray horn of the spinal cord

(T1–L2 and S2–S4)

(3)  two synapses between the CNS and effectors

(4)  regulates smooth muscle

a)

1,2,3

b)

2,3,4

c)

1,3

d)

1,2,3,4

3.

The white ramus communicans contains

a)

preganglionic sympathetic fibers

b)

preganglionic parasympathetic fibers

c)

postganglionic sympathetic fibers

d)

postganglionic parasympathetic fibers

4.

Splanchnic nerves

a)

are part of the parasympathetic division

b)

have preganglionic neurons that synapse in the collateral ganglia

c)

exit from the cervical region of the spinal cord

d)

All of these are correct

5.

Which of the following statements regarding the adrenal gland is true?

a)

The parasympathetic division stimulates the adrenal gland to

release acetylcholine.

b)

The parasympathetic division stimulates the adrenal gland to release

epinephrine.

c)

The sympathetic division stimulates the adrenal gland to

release acetylcholine.

d)

The sympathetic division stimulates the adrenal gland to release

epinephrine.

6.

The parasympathetic division

a)

is also called the craniosacral division.

b)

has preganglionic axons in cranial nerves.

c)

has preganglionic axons in pelvic splanchnic nerves.

d)

All of these are correct.

7.

Given these structures: (1) collateral ganglion (2) sympathetic chain ganglion (3) white ramus communicans (4) splachnic nerve

Choose the arrangement that lists the structures in the order an action potential travels through them on the way from a spinal nerve to an effector.

a)

3,2,4,1

b)

1,3,2,4

c)

1,4,2,3

d)

4,3,1,2

8.

Sympathetic axons reach organs through all of the following except

a)

spinal nerves

b)

pelvic splanchnic nerves

c)

abdominopelvic nerve plexuses

d)

head and neck nerve plexuses

9.

Which of these cranial nerves does not contain parasympathetic fibers?

a)

oculomotor (III)

b)

facial (VII)

c)

glossopharyngeal (IX)

d)

trigeminal (V)

10.

Which of these is not a part of the enteric nervous system?

a)

sensory neurons

b)

ANS motor neurons

c)

neurons located only in the digestive tract

d)

somatic motor neurons

11.

Which of the following statements concerning the preganglionic neurons of the ANS is true?

a)

All parasympathetic preganglionic neurons secrete acetylcholine.

b)

Only parasympathetic preganglionic neurons secrete acetylcholine.

c)

All sympathetic preganglionic neurons secrete norepinephrine.

d)

Only sympathetic preganglionic neurons secrete norepinephrine.

12.

Nicotinic receptors are located in

a)

postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division.

b)

postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic division.

c)

membranes of skeletal muscle cells.

d)

all of these sites.

13.

Which of these events is expected if the sympathetic division is activated?

a)

Secretion of watery saliva increases.

b)

Tear production increases.

c)

Air passageways dilate.

d)

All of these are correct.

14.

The sympathetic division

a)

is always stimulatory.

b)

is always inhibitory.

c)

is usually under conscious control.

d)

generally opposes the actions of the parasympathetic division.

15.

When acetylcholine binds to nicotinic receptors,

a)

the cell’s response is mediated by G proteins.

b)

the response can be excitatory or inhibitory.

c)

Na+ channels open.

d)

the binding occurs at the effectors.

16.

A sudden increase in blood pressure

a)

initiates a sympathetic reflex that decreases heart rate.

b)

initiates a local reflex that decreases heart rate.

c)

initiates a parasympathetic reflex that decreases heart rate.

d)

Both first and second choices are correct.

17.

Which of these structures is innervated almost exclusively by the sympathetic division?

a)

gastrointestinal tract

b)

blood vessels

c)

heart

d)

urinary bladder

18.

When comparing the endocrine system and the nervous system, the endocrine system generally

a)

is faster-acting than the nervous system

b)

produces effects that are of shorter duration.

c)

uses blood-borne chemical messengers.

d)

d. produces more localized effects.

19.

Given this list of molecule types: (1) nucleic acid derivatives (2) fatty acid derivatives (3) peptides

(4) proteins (5) phospholipids

Which could be hormone molecules?

a)

1,2,3

b)

2,3,4

c)

1,2,3,4

d)

1,2,3,4,5

20.

Which of these can regulate the secretion of a hormone from an endocrine tissue?

a)

other hormones

b)

negative-feedback mechanisms

c)

humoral substances in the blood

d)

All of these are correct.

21.

Hormones are released into the blood

a)

at relatively constant levels.

b)

in large amounts in response to a stimulus.

c)

in an episodic fashion.

d)

All of these are correct.

22.

Lipid-soluble hormones readily diffuse through capillary walls, whereas water-soluble hormones, such as proteins, must

a)

pass through capillary cells.

b)

be moved out of the capillary by active transport.

c)

pass through pores in the capillary endothelium.

d)

remain in the blood.

23.

Concerning the half-life of hormones,

a)

lipid-soluble hormones generally have a longer half-life.

b)

hormones with a shorter half-life regulate activities with a slow

onset and long duration.

c)

hormones with a shorter half-life are maintained at more constant

levels in the blood.

d)

lipid-soluble hormones are degraded rapidly by enzymes in the cir-

culatory system.

24.

Given these observations: (1) A hormone affects only a specific tissue (not all tissues). (2) A tissue can respond to more than one hormone. (3) Some tissues respond rapidly to a hormone, whereas others take

many hours to respond.

Which of these observations can be explained by the characteristics of hormone receptors?

a)

1

b)

1,2

c)

1,2,3

d)

2,3

25.

Which of these is not a means by which hormones are eliminated from the circulatory system?

a)

excreted into urine or bile

b)

bound to binding proteins

c)

enzymatically degraded in the blood (metabolism)

d)

onjugated with sulfate or glucuronic acid

26.

Down-regulation

a)

produces a decrease in the number of receptors in the target cells.

b)

produces an increase in target cells’ sensitivity to a hormone.

c)

is found in target cells that respond to hormones that are maintained

at constant levels.

d)

All of these are correct.

27.

Activated G proteins can

a)

cause ion channels to open or close.

b)

activate adenylate cyclase.

c)

inhibit the synthesis of cAMP.

d)

All of these are correct.

28.

Given these events: (1) GTP is converted to GDP. (2) The subunit separates from the β and γ units. (3) GDP is released from the α subunit.

List the order in which the events occur after a hormone binds to a membrane-bound receptor.

a)

1,2,3

b)

1,3,2

c)

2,3,1

d)

3,1,2

29.

Which of these can limit a cell’s response to a hormone?

a)

phosphodiesterase

b)

converting GTP to GDP

c)

decreasing the number of receptors

d)

All of these are correct.

30.

Given these events: 2+ (1) The α subunit of a G protein interacts with Ca (2) Calcium ions diffuse into the cell. (3) The α subunit of a G protein is activated.

hormone receptor?

Choose the arrangement that lists the events in the order they occur after a hormone binds to a receptor on a smooth muscle cell.

a)

1,2,3

b)

3,1,2

c)

2,1,3

d)

3,2,1

31.

Given these events: (1) cAMP is synthesized. (2) The α subunit of G protein is activated. (3) Phosphodiesterase breaks down cAMP.

Choose the arrangement that lists the events in the order they occur after a hormone binds to a receptor.

a)

1,3,2

b)

1,2,3

c)

2,1,3

d)

2,3,1

32.

When a hormone binds to a nuclear receptor

a)

DNA produces mRNA.

b)

G proteins are activated.

c)

the hormone-receptor complex causes ion channels to open or close.

d)

the cell’s response is faster than when a hormone binds to a membrane-

bound receptor.

33.

Given these events: (1) activation of cAMP (2) activation of genes (3) alteration of enzyme activity

Which of these events can occur when a hormone binds to a nuclear receptor?

a)

1

b)

1,2

c)

2,3

d)

1,2,3

34.

The pituitary gland

a)

develops from the floor of the brain

b)

develops from the roof of the mouth

c)

is stimulated by neurohormones produced in the midbrain

d)

both first and second choices are correct

35.

The hypothalamohypophysial portal system

a)

contains one capillary bed

b)

carries hormones from the anterior pituitary to the body

c)

carries hormones from the posterior pituitary to the body

d)

carries hormones from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary

36.

Which of these hormones is not secreted into the hypothalamohypophysial portal system?

a)

GHRH

b)

ACTH

c)

PIH

d)

GnRH

37.

Which of these stimulates the secretion of ADH?

a)

elevated blood osmolality

b)

decreased blood osmolality

c)

ACTH

d)

release of hormones from the hypothalamus

38.

Oxytocin is responsible for

a)

preventing goiter

b)

causing contraction of the uterus

c)

preventing milk letdown from the mammary glands

d)

maintaining normal calcium levels

39.

Growth hormone

a)

increases usage of glucose

b)

decreases the synthesis of proteins

c)

increases the breakdown of lipids

d)

All of these are correct

40.

Which of these hormones stimulates somatomedin secretion?

a)

GH

b)

FSH

c)

LH

d)

prolactin

41.

Hypersecretion of growth hormone

a)

results in gigantism if it occurs in children

b)

causes acromegaly in adults

c)

increases the probability that a person will develop diabetes

d)

All of these are correct

42.

LH and FSH

a)

are produced in the hypothalamus

b)

production is increased by TSH

c)

promote the production of gametes and reproductive hormones

d)

inhibit the production of prolactin

43.

T3 and T4

a)

require Iodine for their production

b)

are made from the amino acid tyrosine

c)

are transported in the blood bound to thyroxine-binding globulin

d)

All of these are correct

44.

Which of these symptoms is associated with the hyposecretion of thyroid hormones?

a)

decreased metabolic rate

b)

hypertension

c)

diarrhea

d)

weight loss with either normal or increased food intake

45.

Choose a statement that most accurately predicts the long-term effect of exposure to a substance that prevents the active transport of iodide by the thyroid gland.

a)

Large amounts of T3 and T4 accumulate within the thyroid follicles, but little is released.

b)

The person exhibits hyperthyroidism.

c)

The anterior pituitary secretes smaller amounts of TSH.

d)

The circulating levels of T3 and T4 increase.

46.

Calcitonin

a)

is secreted by the parathyroid glands

b)

levels increase when blood calcium levels decrease

c)

causes blood calcium levels to decrease

d)

insufficiency results in weak bones and tetany

47.

If parathyroid hormone levels increase, which of these conditions is expected?

a)

Osteoclast activity increases.

b)

Calcium reabsorption from the small intestine is inhibited.

c)

Calcium reabsorption from the urine is inhibited.

d)

All of these are correct.

48.

The adrenal medulla

a)

produces steroids

b)

secretes cortisol as its major product

c)

decreases its secretions during exercise

d)

forms a modified portion of the sympathetic division of the ANS

49.

In the condition that a benign tumor results in the hypersecretion of hormones from the adrenal medulla, expected symptoms include

a)

lethargy

b)

hypertension

c)

pallor

d)

bradycardia

(slow heart rate)

50.

Which of these is not a hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex?

a)

aldosterone

b)

androgens

c)

cortisol

d)

epinephrine

51.

If aldosterone secretions increase,

a)

blood potassium levels increase

b)

blood hydrogen levels increase

c)

acidosis results

d)

blood volume increases

52.

Glucocorticoids (cortisol)

a)

increase the breakdown of lipids

b)

increase the breakdown of proteins

c)

decrease inflammation

d)

All of these are correct.

53.

Which of these is (are) expected in Cushing syndrome (hypersecretion of adrenal cortex hormones)?

a)

loss of hair in women

b)

disposition of adipose tissue in the face, neck, and abdomen

c)

low blood glucose and blood pressure

d)

All of these are correct.

54.

Within the pancreas, the pancreatic islets produce

a)

insulin

b)

glucagon

c)

digestive enzymes

d)

Both first and second choices are correct.

55.

Insulin increases

a)

the uptake of glucose by its target tissues

b)

the breakdown of proteins

c)

the breakdown of lipids

d)

glycogen breakdown in the liver

56.

Glucagon

a)

causes glycogen to be stored

b)

decreases lipid metabolism

c)

primarily affects the liver

d)

performs all of these functions

57.

When blood glucose levels increase, the secretion of which of these hormones increases?

a)

glucagon

b)

insulin

c)

cortisol

d)

GH

58.

If a person who has diabetes mellitus has forgotten to take an insulin injection, the symptoms that may soon appear include

a)

acidosis

b)

hyperglycemia

c)

lethargy and fatigue

d)

All of these are correct.

59.

Which of the following is not a hormone produced by the ovaries?

a)

estrogen

b)

progesterone

c)

prolactin

d)

inhibin

60.

Melatonin

a)

inhibits the development of the reproductive system

b)

is produced by the posterior pituitary

c)

decreases the tendency to sleep

d)

production increases as day length increases

61.

Which of these substances, produced by many body tissues, can promote inflammation, pain, and vasodilation of blood vessels?

a)

endorphins

b)

thymosin

c)

prostaglandins

d)

enkephalins

62.

Which of these does not decrease with the aging of the endocrine system?

a)

GH secretion

b)

melatonin secretion

c)

thyroid hormone secretion

d)

parathyroid hormone secretion

63.

Which of these is a function of blood?

a)

clot formation

b)

protection against foreign substances

c)

maintenance of body temperature

d)

All of these are correct.

64.

Which of these is not a component of plasma?

a)

nitrogen

b)

platelets

c)

water

d)

urea

65.

Which of these proteins is normally found in the plasma and plays an important role in maintaining the osmotic concentration of the blood?

a)

albumin

b)

platelets

c)

hemoglobin

d)

globulins

66.

Red blood cells

a)

are the least numerous formed element in the blood.

b)

are phagocytic cells.

c)

do not have a nucleus.

d)

are produced in the yellow marrow.

67.

Given these ways of transporting carbon dioxide in the blood:

(1) bicarbonate ions

(2) combined with blood proteins

(3) dissolved in plasma

Choose the arrangement that lists them in the correct order from largest to smallest percentage of carbon dioxide transported.

a)

1,2,3

b)

1,3,2

c)

2,3,1

d)

2,1,3

68.

Each hemoglobin molecule can become associated with ________ oxygen molecule(s)?

a)

one

b)

three

c)

an unlimited number of

d)

four

69.

Erythropoietin

a)

is produced mainly by the heart.

b)

inhibits the production of red blood cells.

c)

production increases when blood oxygen decreases.

d)

production is inhibited by testosterone.

70.

Which of these changes occur(s) in the blood in response to the initiation of a vigorous exercise program?

a)

increased erythropoietin production

b)

increased concentration of reticulocytes

c)

decreased bilirubin formation

d)

Both first and second choices are correct.

e)

All of these are correct.

71.

Which of the components of hemoglobin is correctly matched with its fate following the destruction of a red blood cell?

a)

heme—reused to form a new hemoglobin molecule

b)

globin—broken down into amino acids

c)

iron—mostly secreted in bile

d)

All of these are correct.

72.

The blood cells that protect against worm parasites are

a)

eosinophils

b)

basophils

c)

neutrophils

d)

lymphocytes

73.

Monocytes

a)

are the smallest white blood cells.

b)

give rise to neutrophils.

c)

increase in number during chronic infections.

d)

produce antibodies.

74.

The smallest white blood cells, which include B cells and T cells, are

a)

eosinophils

b)

basophils

c)

neutrophils

d)

lymphocytes

75.

Platelets

a)

are derived from megakaryocytes.

b)

are cell fragments.

c)

play an important role in clot formation.

d)

All of these are correct.

76.

Given these processes in platelet plug formation:

(1) platelet adhesion

(2) platelet aggregation

(3) platelet release reaction

Choose the arrangement that lists the processes in the correct order

after a blood vessel is damaged.

a)

1,2,3

b)

1,3,2

c)

3,1,2

d)

3,2,1

77.

Given these chemicals:

(1) activated factor XII

(2) fibrinogen

(3) prothrombinase

(4) thrombin

Choose the arrangement that lists the chemicals in the order they are used during clot formation.

a)

1,3,4,2

b)

2,3,4,1

c)

3,2,1,4

d)

3,1,2,4

78.

The extrinsic pathway

a)

begins with the release of thromboplastin (tissue factor).

b)

leads to the production of activated factor X.

c)

requires Ca2+.

d)

All of these are correct.

79.

The chemical involved in the breakdown of a clot (fibrinolysis) is

a)

antithrombin

b)

fibrinogen

c)

heparin

d)

plasmin

80.

A person with type A blood

a)

has anti-A antibodies.

b)

has type B antigens.

c)

will have a transfusion reaction if given type B blood.

d)

All of these are correct.

81.

In the United States, the most common blood type is

a)

A positive

b)

B positive

c)

O positive

d)

O negative

82.

Which of these structures returns blood to the right atrium?

a)

coronary sinus

b)

inferior vena cava

c)

superior vena cava

d)

All of these are correct.

83.

The valve located between the right atrium and the right ventricle is the

a)

aortic semilunar valve.

b)

pulmonary semilunar valve.

c)

tricuspid valve.

d)

bicuspid (mitral) valve.

84.

The papillary muscles

a)

are attached to chordae tendineae.

b)

are found in the atria.

c)

contract to close the foramen ovale.

d)

are attached to the semilunar valves.

e)

surround the openings of the coronary arteries.

85.

Given these blood vessels:

(1) aorta

(2) inferior vena cava

(3) pulmonary trunk

(4) pulmonary vein

Choose the arrangement that lists the vessels in the order a red blood cell would encounter them going from the systemic veins to the systemic arteries.

a)

1,3,4,2

b)

2,3,4,1

c)

2,4,3,1

d)

3,2,1,4

86.

The bulk of the heart wall is

a)

epicardium

b)

pericardium

c)

myocardium

d)

endocardium

87.

Cardiac muscle has

a)

sarcomeres.

b)

a sarcoplasmic reticulum.

c)

transverse tubules.

d)

many mitochondria.

e)

All of these are correct.

88.

Action potentials pass from one cardiac muscle cell to another

a)

through gap junctions.

b)

by a special cardiac nervous system.

c)

because of the large voltage of the action potentials.

d)

because of the plateau phase of the action potentials.

89.

During the transmission of action potentials through the conducting system of the heart, there is a temporary delay at the

a)

bundle branches.

b)

Purkinje fibers.

c)

AV node.

d)

SA node.

e)

AV bundle.

90.

Given these structures of the conducting system of the heart:

(1) atrioventricular bundle

(2) AV node

(3) bundle branches

(4) Purkinje fibers

(5) SA node

Choose the arrangement that lists the structures in the order an action

potential passes through them.

a)

2,5,1,3,4

b)

2,5,3,1,4

c)

2,5,4,1,3

d)

5,2,1,3,4

e)

5,2,4,3,1

91.

T waves on an ECG represent

a)

depolarization of the ventricles.

b)

repolarization of the ventricles.

c)

depolarization of the atria.

d)

repolarization of the atria.

92.

The greatest amount of ventricular filling occurs during

a)

the first one-third of diastole.

b)

the middle one-third of diastole.

c)

the last one-third of diastole.

d)

ventricular systole.

93.

While the semilunar valves are open during a normal cardiac cycle, the pressure in the left ventricle is

a)

higher than the pressure in the aorta.

b)

lower than the pressure in the aorta.

c)

the same as the pressure in the left atrium.

d)

lower than the pressure in the left atrium.

94.

Blood flows neither into nor out of the ventricles during

a)

the period of isovolumetric contraction.

b)

the period of isovolumetric relaxation.

c)

diastole

d)

systole

e)

Both first and second choices are correct.

95.

Stroke volume is the

a)

amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute.

b)

difference between end-diastolic and end-systolic volume.

c)

difference between the amount of blood pumped at rest and that

pumped at maximum output.

d)

amount of blood pumped from the atria into the ventricles.

96.

Cardiac output is defined as

a)

blood pressure times peripheral resistance.

b)

peripheral resistance times heart rate.

c)

heart rate times stroke volume.

d)

stroke volume times blood pressure.

97.

Pressure in the aorta is at its lowest

a)

at the time of the first heart sound.

b)

at the time of the second heart sound.

c)

just before the AV valves open.

d)

just before the semilunar valves open.

98.

Just after the dicrotic notch on the aortic pressure curve

a)

the pressure in the aorta is greater than the pressure in the left ventricle.

b)

the pressure in the left ventricle is greater than the pressure in the aorta.

c)

the pressure in the left atrium is greater than the pressure in the left

ventricle.

d)

the pressure in the left atrium is greater than the pressure in the aorta.

99.

The “lubb” sound (first heart sound) is caused by the

a)

closing of the AV valves.

b)

closing of the semilunar valves.

c)

blood rushing out of the ventricles.

d)

filling of the ventricles.

e)

ventricular contraction.

100.

Increased venous return results in

a)

increased stroke volume.

b)

increased cardiac output.

c)

decreased heart rate.

d)

Both a and b are correct.

101.

Parasympathetic nerve fibers are found in the _______

release _______ at the heart.

a)

cardiac, acetylcholine

b)

cardiac, norepinephrine

c)

vagus, acetylcholine

d)

vagus, norepinephrine

102.

Increased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart

a)

increases the force of ventricular contraction.

b)

increases the rate of depolarization in the SA node.

c)

decreases heart rate.

d)

increases cardiac output.

103.

Because of the baroreceptor reflex, when normal arterial blood pressure decreases, the

a)

heart rate decreases.

b)

stroke volume decreases.

c)

frequency of afferent action potentials from baroreceptors decreases.

d)

cardioregulatory center stimulates parasympathetic neurons.

104.

A decrease in blood pH and an increase in blood CO2 levels result in

a)

increased heart rate.

b)

increased stroke volume.

c)

increased cardiac output. e. All of these are correct.

d)

increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart.

e)

All of these are correct.

105.

An increase in extracellular potassium levels can cause

a)

an increase in stroke volume.

b)

an increase in force of contraction.

c)

a decrease in heart rate.

d)

Both a and b are correct.

106.

Given these blood vessels: (1) arteriole (3) elastic artery (2) capillary (4) muscular artery

(5) vein (6) venule

Choose the arrangement that lists the blood vessels in the order a red blood cell passes through them as it leaves the heart, travels to a tissue, and returns to the heart.

a)

3,4,2,1,5,6

b)

3,4,1,2,6,5

c)

4,3,1,2,5,6

d)

4,3,2,1,6,5

107.

Given these structures: (1) metarteriole (2) precapillary sphincter (3) thoroughfare channel

Choose the arrangement that lists the structures in the order a red blood cell encounters them as it passes through a tissue.

a)

1,3,2

b)

2,1,3

c)

2,3,1

d)

3,1,2

108.

In which of these blood vessels are elastic fibers present in the largest amounts?

a)

large arteries

b)

medium arteries

c)

arterioles

d)

venules

e)

large veins

109.

Comparing and contrasting arteries and veins, veins have

a)

thicker walls.

b)

a greater amount of smooth muscle than arteries.

c)

a tunica media, but arteries do not.

d)

valves, but arteries do not.

e)

All of these are correct.

110.

The structures that supply the walls of blood vessels with blood are

a)

venous shunts.

b)

vasa vasorum.

c)

tunic channels.

d)

arteriovenous anastomoses.

e)

coronary arteries.

111.

Given these arteries: (1) basilar

(2) common carotid

(3) internal carotid (4) vertebral

Which of these arteries have direct connections with the cerebral arterial circle (circle of Willis)?

a)

1,2,3,4

b)

1,2,4,3

c)

2,1,3,4

d)

2,1,4,3

112.

Given these veins: (1) brachiocephalic (2) internal jugular (3) superior vena cava (4) venous sinus

Choose the arrangement that lists the veins in order, from the brain to the heart.

a)

1,2,4,3

b)

2,4,1,3

c)

2,4,3,1

d)

4,2,1,3

113.

Blood returning from the arm to the subclavian vein passes through

which of these veins?

a)

cephalic

b)

basilic

c)

brachial

d)

Both a and b are correct.

e)

All of these are correct.

114.

Given these blood vessels: (1) inferior mesenteric vein (2) superior mesenteric vein (3) hepatic portal vein (4) hepatic vein

Choose the arrangement that lists the vessels in order, from the small intestine to the inferior vena cava.

a)

1,3,4

b)

1,4,3

c)

2,3,4

d)

2,4,3

115.

Given these veins: (1) small saphenous (2) great saphenous

(3) fibular (peroneal) (4) posterior tibial

Which are superficial veins?

a)

1,2

b)

1,3

c)

2,3

d)

2,4

e)

3,4

116.

Vascular compliance is

a)

greater in arteries than in veins.

b)

the pressure at which blood vessels collapse.

c)

proportional to the diameter of the blood vessel times pressure.

d)

the increase in vessel volume divided by the increase in vessel pressure.

117.

The resistance to blood flow is greatest in the

a)

aorta

b)

arterioles

c)

capillaries

d)

venules

e)

veins

118.

Veins

a)

increase their volume because of their large compliance.

b)

increase venous return to the heart when they vasodilate.

c)

vasodilate because of increased sympathetic stimulation.

d)

All of these are correct.

119.

Local direct control of blood flow through a tissue

a)

maintains an adequate rate of flow despite large changes in arterial blood pressure.

b)

results from relaxation and contraction of precapillary sphincters.

c)

occurs in response to a buildup in CO2 in the tissues.

d)

occurs in response to a decrease in oxygen in the tissues.

e)

All of these are correct.

120.

An increase in mean arterial pressure can result from

a)

an increase in peripheral resistance.

b)

an increase in heart rate.

c)

an increase in stroke volume.

d)

All of these are correct.

121.

When blood O2 levels markedly decrease, the chemoreceptor reflex causes

a)

peripheral resistance to decrease.

b)

mean arterial blood pressure to increase.

c)

vasomotor tone to decrease.

d)

vasodilation

e)

All of these are correct.

122.

When blood pressure is suddenly decreased a small amount(10mmHg), which of these mechanisms are activated to restore blood pressure to normal levels?

a)

chemoreceptor reflexes

b)

baroreceptor reflexes

c)

CNS ischemic responses

d)

All of these are correct.

123.

A sudden release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla

a)

increases heart rate.

b)

increases stroke volume.

c)

causes vasoconstriction in visceral blood vessels.

d)

All of these are correct.

124.

In response to a decrease in blood pressure

a)

ADH secretion increases.

b)

the kidneys decrease urine production.

c)

blood volume increases.

d)

All of these are correct.

125.

In response to a decrease in blood pressure

a)

more fluid than normal enters the tissues (fluid shift mechanism).

b)

smooth muscles in blood vessels relax (stress-relaxation response).

c)

the kidneys retain more salts and water than normal.

d)

All of these are correct.

126.

A patient is found to have severe arteriosclerosis of the renal arteries, which has reduced renal blood pressure. Which of these is consistent with that condition?

a)

hypotension

b)

hypertension

c)

decreased vasomotor tone

d)

exaggerated sympathetic stimulation of the heart

e)

. Both a and c are correct.

127.

During exercise, the blood flow through skeletal muscle may increase up to 20-fold. However, the cardiac output does not increase that much. This occurs because of

a)

vasoconstriction in the viscera.

b)

vasoconstriction in the skin (at least temporarily).

c)

vasodilation of skeletal muscle blood vessels.

d)

Both a and b are correct.

e)

All of these are correct.