wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Health Assessment

Total questions: 79

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

number of globular lobules which contain alveoli that produce milk

a)

7-12

b)

12-30

c)

12-20

d)

7-20

2.

a pair of mammary glands located on the anterior chest wall

a)

areola

b)

nipples

c)

montgomery tubercle

d)

breast

3.

small hollow portion beneath the arm

a)

axilla

b)

pectoral nodes

c)

mammary glands

d)

areola

4.

a branched system connecting the nipple to the lobules of the mammary gland

a)

montgomery tubercle

b)

areola

c)

central nodes

d)

lactiferous ducts

5.

a pigmented area surrounding the nipples

a)

nipple

b)

areola

c)

montgomery tubercle

d)

lactiferous ducts

6.

pigmented and highly erectile tissue

a)

areola

b)

axilla

c)

montgomery tubercle

d)

nipple

7.

what is/are the function/s of the breast?

a)

breastfeeding

b)

secretion and ejection of milk

c)

provides some protection on the anterior chest wall

d)

maintains acid base balance

e)

provides sensual pleasure during sexual foreplay

8.

helps lubricate the nipple for lactation

a)

areola

b)

lactiferous ducts

c)

montgomery tubercle

d)

central nodes

9.

areola becomes deeply pigmented and increases in diameter, nipples are more prominent and erect

a)

after menopause

b)

during pregnancy

c)

after pregnancy

d)

during adulthood (never given birth)

10.

most frequently palpable of the axillary lymph nodes

a)

central nodes

b)

subscapular nodes

c)

pectoral nodes

11.

quadrant of breast that is most targeted by breast cancer

a)

upper inner

b)

lower inner

c)

upper outer

d)

lower outer

12.

enlargement of breast in male

a)

gynecomastia

b)

glandular tissue atrophy

c)

fibroadenomas

d)

supernumerary nipples

13.

an additional nipple

a)

peau d' orange

b)

dimpling

c)

fibrocystic breast disease

d)

supernumerary nipples

14.

ages wherein breast change occurs

a)

7-14

b)

12-18

c)

8-13

d)

9-12

15.

primordial for the mammary gland on the breast in associated with breast development

a)

mammary ridge

b)

axillary tail

c)

montgomery tubercle

d)

areola

16.

drain toward the abdomen and opposite brain

a)

internal mammary nodes

b)

lateral nodes

c)

pectoral nodes

d)

subscapular nodes

17.

the following are normal findings of breast, except:

a)

areolar areas and nipples are darker in pigmentation

b)

terminal hairs on the areola

c)

redness

d)

smooth texture

18.

maintain the shape of the eye

a)

cornea

b)

sclera

c)

choroid

d)

iris

19.

window of the eye

a)

pupil

b)

choroid

c)

cornea

d)

lens

20.

singular and mobile, lobular, ovoid, seldom tender noncancerous breast lumps

a)

fibroadenomas

b)

fibrocystic breast disease

c)

colostrum

d)

peau d' orange

21.

when assessing think of the word DISC, where D stands for discharge, I for inversion, S for skin changes, C stands for?

a)

changes

b)

challenge

c)

compare with the other side

d)

cute

22.

when palpating used which fingers?

a)

1st, 2nd, and 3rd

b)

3rd, 4th, and 5th

c)

2nd, 3rd, and 4th

d)

2nd and 3rd

23.

consider as best validated technique in detecting breast mass

a)

circular or clockwise

b)

vertical strip

c)

spiral or concentric circles

d)

wedge

24.

you're assessing a client with a big breast, which technique should you use in palpation?

a)

bimanual

b)

vertical strip

c)

wedge

d)

circular

25.

drooping of eyelids

a)

ectropion

b)

xanthelasma

c)

ptosis

d)

chalazion

26.

drooping of both eyelids

a)

xanthelasma

b)

myasthenia gravis

c)

hordeolum

d)

stye

27.

which of the following is/are lesions on eyelids

a)

xanthelasma

b)

chalazion

c)

ptosis

d)

stye

28.

capacity to detect, resolve or recognize the details of object

a)

visual acuity

b)

myopia

c)

hyperopia

d)

presbyopia

29.

eye chart used in testing near vision acuity (14 inches)

a)

snellen

b)

jaeger

c)

rosenbaum

d)

ishihara

30.

held by a client at a distance of 12 to 14 inches from the eyes

a)

snellen card

b)

rosenbaum card

c)

allen card

d)

lea symbols test

31.

vision test for red-green color deficiencies

a)

ishihara test

b)

jaeger test

c)

allen card test

d)

lea symbols test

32.

most common type of color blindness, makes green look more red

a)

deuteranomaly

b)

protanomaly

33.

dim light cause iris to respond by enlarging the pupil size

a)

miosis

b)

iris

c)

lens

d)

midriasis

34.

bright light causes the iris to respond by decreasing the amount of light entering the eye

a)

midriasis

b)

miosis

c)

meiosis

d)

retina

35.

peripheral vision receptors; rods, central vision receptors:

a)

cones

b)

optic disc

c)

retina

d)

pupil

36.

can lead to excessive drying of eyes

a)

vitreous humor

b)

aqueous humor

c)

ptosis

d)

ectropion

37.

abnormal increase in head size in young child

a)

acromegaly

b)

hydrocephalus

c)

torticollis

38.

inconsistently large head size in adolescent or adult

a)

hydrocephalus

b)

acromegaly

c)

torticollis

39.

head size is proportional to the body

a)

hydrocephalus

b)

acromegaly

c)

normocephalic

40.

indicative of starvation, dehydration and illness

a)

periorbital edema

b)

exopthalmos

c)

sunken eyes

d)

crepitations

41.

deviation of neck to one side caused by spasmodic contraction of neck muscles

a)

crepitation

b)

lymphoma

c)

swelling

d)

torticollis

42.

select the normal findings in palpation of neck

a)

supple

non-tender

no masses

b)

supple

tender

no masses

c)

hard

tender

no masses

d)

hard

non-tender

no masses

43.

mucous membrane that covers the front of the eye and lines the inside of the eyelids

a)

iris

b)

pupil

c)

conjunctiva

d)

midriasis

44.

the following are the abnormal findings in inspecting the bulbar conjunctiva, except:

a)

jaundiced sclera

b)

excessively pale sclera

c)

reddened sclera

d)

capillaries sometimes evident

45.

inflammation and redness of palpebral and bulbar conjunctiva

a)

conjunctival papilloma

b)

pterygium

c)

nevus

d)

conjunctivitis

46.

growth or thickening of conjunctiva from inner canthal area toward iris

a)

pterygium or pinguecula

b)

subconjunctival

hemorrhage

c)

nevus

d)

anemia

47.

benign pigmented congenital discoloration

a)

conjunctival papilloma

b)

nevus

c)

pterygium

d)

subconjunctival hemorrhage

48.

corneal abnormalities caused by Vit A deficiency

a)

hypopion

b)

cloudy cornea

c)

kayser-fleischer ring

d)

corneal scar

49.

thickening of the bulbar conjunctiva that extends across the nasal side

a)

cataracts

b)

negative corneal reflex

c)

early pterygium

d)

corneal scar

50.

a cloudy area in the lens of the eye

a)

cataracts

b)

cloudy cornea

c)

corneal scar

d)

hypopion

51.

due to elevated bilirubin (jaundice)

a)

diffuse episclaritis

b)

bluish sclera

c)

cataracts

d)

icteric sclera

52.

normal range of pupils in adults

a)

2-6 mm

b)

3-5 mm

c)

2-7 mm

d)

4-6 mm

53.

involuntary rapid eye movement

a)

strabismus

b)

nystagmus

c)

astigmatism

d)

cataract

54.

history of blurred vision

a)

astigmatism

b)

nystagmus

c)

strabismus

d)

ptosis

55.

tunnel vision and 2nd leading cause of blindness worldwide

a)

cataracts

b)

nystagmus

c)

glaucoma

d)

conjunctivitis

56.

double vision

a)

macular degeneration

b)

diplopia

c)

strabismus

d)

retinitis pigmentosa

57.

esotropia; inward

exotropia;

a)

outward

b)

upward

c)

downward

58.

unilateral large pupil

a)

anisocoria

b)

tonic pupil

c)

horner's syndrome

d)

oval pupils

59.

dilated and fixed pupils

a)

miosis

b)

mydriasis

c)

miossis

d)

midryasis

60.

PERRLA stands for?

a)

pupils

equal

round

reactive

light reacting

accomodation

b)

pupils

equal

right

reactive

light reacting

accomodation

c)

peer

elegance

right

ring

live

apple

d)

pupils

equal

round

reactive

left reacting

accomodation

61.

stiff projection that protects the anterior meatus of the auditory canal

a)

helix

b)

tragus

c)

lobule

d)

external ear

62.

absence of the external ear

a)

anotia

b)

microtia

c)

cauliflower ear

d)

perichondritis

63.

benign protrusion on upper part pf helix

a)

Darwinian tubercle

b)

anotia

c)

microtia

d)

cauliflower ear

64.

drainage of ear: bloody- trauma; pus- infection; clear-

a)

spinal fluid, head injury

b)

water

c)

associated with hear conditions

d)

associated with hearing deficit

65.

gradual hearing loss for older adults

a)

acutes otitis media

b)

otitis externa

c)

meniere's disease

d)

presbycusis

66.

for low-pitch deficits

a)

whisper test

b)

weber test

c)

rinne test

d)

romberg's test

67.

for high-pitch deficits

a)

watch-tick test

b)

whisper test

c)

weber test

d)

rinne test

68.

sound waves transmitted by the external and the middle ear

a)

sensorineural hearing

b)

conductive hearing

c)

low-pitch

d)

high-pitch

69.

compares air and bone conduction sounds

a)

weber test

b)

watch-tick test

c)

rinne test

d)

romberg test

70.

AC>BC

a)

true

b)

false

71.

allergic response based on client's allergic stimulus

a)

cheilitis

b)

cheilosis

c)

angioedema

d)

chancre

72.

maintains the negative lung pressure that is needed for breathing

a)

diaphragm

b)

trapezius

c)

pleura

d)

accessory muscles

73.

the diaphragm presses the abdominal organs downward and forward

a)

inspiration

b)

inhalation

c)

expiration

d)

exhalation

74.

frequently seen in people with chronic lung disease secondary to right-side CHF

a)

peripheral cyanosis

b)

peripheral edema

c)

pale diaphoretic

d)

central cyanosis

75.

sympathetic response to respiratory distress and hypoxia

a)

pale diaphoretic

b)

central cyanosis

c)

peripheral

cyanosis

d)

peripheral edema

76.

nicotine stains from long history of smoking

a)

dusky nails

b)

yellow-brown stains on nails and fingers

c)

dusky lower extremities

d)

peripheral edema

77.

COPD stands for

a)

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

b)

carbon oxygen pulmonary disease

c)

chronic oxygen pulmonary disease

d)

cardiac

obstructive pulmonary disease

78.

Eupnea

a)

16-21 breaths/min

b)

15-20 breaths/min

c)

16-20 breaths/min

d)

14-20 breaths/min

79.

type of hyperventilation associated with diabetic ketoacidosis

a)

hypoventilation

b)

kussmaul

c)

cheyne-stokes respiration

d)

biot's respiration

Similar Resources on Wayground

วิชาทางการพยาบาล 8 รายวิชา

80 questions

วิชาทางการพยาบาล 8 รายวิชา

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Cumulative Nutrition Exam

81 questions

Cumulative Nutrition Exam

quiz

Worksheet

•

University - Professi...

Signals & Systems Phase 1

80 questions

Signals & Systems Phase 1

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

name the video game

78 questions

name the video game

quiz

Worksheet

•

1st Grade - Professio...

Automotive fuel, ignition, air and exhaust systems

77 questions

Automotive fuel, ignition, air and exhaust systems

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Med Admin Review

74 questions

Med Admin Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

PNE Fluid and Electrolytes

75 questions

PNE Fluid and Electrolytes

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

WCA Stocks, Soups, and Sauces

75 questions

WCA Stocks, Soups, and Sauces

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade - University