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Encyclopedia of biology Page # 26 to 50

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

During the embryonic stage of mammals,

birds, and reptiles, the allantois, a small sac, is one of

.................. extra-embryonic membranes (along with amnion,

yolk sac, chorion).

a)

two

b)

three

c)

four

d)

five

2.

In warm-blooded animals, the warmer

the climate, the ...................... the appendages (ears, legs, wings)

as compared with closely related taxa from colder areas.

a)

shorter

b)

longer

c)

less

d)

more

3.

A gene pool consists of

a)

all of the genes, including all the different alleles, that are present in a population

b)

some of the genes, including the different alleles, that are present in a population

c)

all of the genes that are present in all populations

d)

all of the genes, including all the different alleles, that are present in all populations

4.

The number of times a particular allele appears in a gene pool is known as the

a)

population of the allele

b)

relative percentage of the allele

c)

frequency of the allele

d)

evolution of the allele

5.

if the father is type A and the mother is type B, in order for baby Sylvester to have the genotype ii, his parents must be?

a)

heterozygous

b)

homozygous

6.

An allele is one of the .................... forms of a gene at a particular locus, or location, on a chromosome.

a)

dominant

b)

recessive

c)

specific

d)

variant

7.

The study of relative growth and of

changes in proportion with increase in size is called...............

a)

allometry

b)

allometric growth

c)

allochronic speciation

d)

allopatric speciation

8.
The term for the formation of new and distinct species over the course of evolution is...
a)
speciation
b)
biological species concept
c)
reproductive barrier
d)
natural selection
9.

A new river forms and splits two populations, causing ______________ speciation

a)

Sympatric

b)

Allopatric

c)

Extreme

d)

Convergent

10.

Orcas occur in the same habitat but some are avoiding each other and do not interbreed. They have different diets, vocal behavior, and social structures. What type of speciation is this?

a)

Allopatric

b)

Sympatric

c)

Complex

d)

Covergent

11.

when the organism develops different courtship rituals which do not attract main population this is a part of ____________ speciation.

a)

Allopatric

b)

Sympatric

c)

Simple

d)

Temporal

12.

The emergence of a mountain range is an event that would lead to _______________ speciation

a)

Allopatric

b)

Sympatric

c)

Temporal

d)

Behavioral

13.

When the Grand Canyon in Arizona formed, two populations of one squirrel species were separated by the giant canyon. This is an example of _____________ speciation.

a)

Allopatric

b)

Sympatric

c)

Simple

d)

Divergent

14.

Different finch populations lived on separate islands with different environments. They evolved to best adapt to those particular environments and can no longer mate. What type of speciation is this?

a)

Allopatric

b)

Sympatric

c)

Temporal

d)

Mechanical

15.

The presence of islands represents what type of reproductive isolation

a)

allopatric speciation

b)

sympatric speciation

16.
When a population becomes divided by an event such as a new river forming, ____________ has occurred.
a)
Differentiation 
b)
Isolation
c)
Adaptation
d)
Separation
17.

In 1932, Sir Julian Huxley described a simple

mathematical method for the detection and measurement

of the allometric growth. In order to compare the

relative growth of two components (one of which may

be the whole body), they are plotted logarithmically on

x- and y-axes:

log y = log ........ + k log x

a)

z

b)

w

c)

a

d)

b

18.

Which organisms are most likely to have polyploidy?

a)

animals

b)

humans

c)

plants

d)

camels

19.

Which one of the following is a polyploidy cell

a)

1n

b)

2n

c)

4n

d)

non of them

20.

Allopolyploidy is a type of polyploid (having a nucleus

that contains more than two sets of chromosomes)

species, often a plant, resulting from ..............

species

a)

two different

b)

two same

c)

More than two different

d)

less than two different

21.

The additional sites present in allosteric enzymes are called.......

a)

Substrate binding site

b)

Allosteric sites

c)

Active sites

d)

None of these

22.

Enzyme activity is increased when a positive allosteric effector binds at the...........site.

a)

Active site

b)

Substrate binding site

c)

Activator site

d)

All of these

23.

Binding to allosteric sites alter the enzyme's activity. this property is called.......

a)

Cooperativity

b)

Inhibition

c)

Regulation

d)

All of these

24.

Allosteric enzymes follow MM kinetics.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Allosteric enzymes can exist in which of the following forms?

a)

Relaxed

b)

Tense

c)

Taut

d)

All of these

26.

Allosteric enzymes exhibit ........ curve.

a)

Sigmoid

b)

Hyperbolic

c)

Both of these

27.

Allosteric........ enhance the protein's activity

a)

Inhibitors

b)

Activators

c)

Both of these

28.

In this life cycle number 1 indicates:

a)

The sporophyte

b)

The gametophyte

c)

Dipolid structures

d)

Gametes

29.

In this life cycle number 5 best indicates the:

a)

sporophyte stalk

b)

gametophyte stalk

c)

the haploid stalk

d)

the capsule

30.

The sporophyte produces spores.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

31.

Algae, and all plants reproduce using:

a)

The alternation of generations

b)

Only asexual reproduction

c)

Only sexual reproduction

d)

Diploid gametes

32.
A diploid, multicellular life-cycle stage that gives rise to haploid cells by meiosis is called a ________.
a)
sporophyte
b)
gametophyte
c)
spore
d)
gamete
33.
Which type of life cycle has both a haploid and diploid multicellular stage?
a)
asexual
b)
diploid-dominant
c)
haploid-dominant
d)
alternation of generations
34.

Sporangia contain ___________ which in turn produce______________ by the process of _____________

a)

antheridia, sperm, mitosis

b)

spore mother cells or sporocytes, spores, meiosis

c)

archegonia, eggs, mitosis

d)

gametophytes, spores, meiosis

35.

A haploid, multicellular life-cycle stage that gives rise to gametes cells by mitosis is called a ________.

a)

sporophyte

b)

gametophyte

c)

spore

d)

gamete

36.

What is NOT true for the sporophyte?

a)

it is diploid generation

b)

it has double set of chromosomes

c)

it produces gametes

d)

it produces spores

37.

The male or female sexual organs producing gametes found at the top of the moss.

a)

gametophyte

b)

sporophyte

c)

zygore

d)

gamete

38.

Alternation of generations in plants refers to the alternation of

a)

diploid and haploid stages

b)

male and female stages

c)

meiotic and mitotic stages

d)

spore and seed stages

39.

Strangers coming to the rescue

of other strangers, such as victims in an accident, hurricane,

or earthquake, is another example of ................

behavior.

a)

innate

b)

social

c)

lerarning

d)

altruistic

40.
Mechanical movement to inhale and exhale air
a)
Gas Exchange
b)
Respiration
c)
Breathing
d)
Transport
41.
The movement by diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide across a membrane
a)
Ventilation
b)
Breathing
c)
Gas exchange
d)
Respiration
42.
Which of the following are features of the alveoli that adapt them to gas exchange?

I. High surface area
II. Thin walls
III. Dry surfaces
a)
I and II only
b)
I only
c)
II and III
d)
I, II, and III
43.

The air sacs that are covered with capillaries where gas exchange takes place.

a)

Bronchi

b)

Trachea

c)

Oxygen

d)

Alveoli

44.

Name the structure through which gases enter and leave the body of an insect.

a)

tracheoles

b)

alveoli

c)

lungs

d)

spiracles

45.

Alveoli have a...

a)

...large surface area to allow diffusion to take place over a greater space.

b)

...small surface area to allow diffusion to take place over a greater space.

c)

...large surface area to allow osmosis to take place over a greater space.

d)

...small surface area to allow osmosis to take place over a greater space.

46.

Alveoli have a good blood supply to maintain the concentration gradients of oxygen and carbon dioxide.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Alveoli have a...

a)

...moist lining for dissolving gases

b)

...dry lining for dissolving gases

c)

...moist lining for dissolving glucose

d)

...dry lining for dissolving glucose

48.

Alveoli have very thick walls to maximise the distance that gases have to move.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Ambidentate are ..................... such as (NCS)–, that can

bond to a CENTRAL ATOM through either of two or

more donor atoms.

a)

molecules

b)

ligands

c)

metals

d)

none of these

50.
What are the building blocks of proteins?
a)
amino acid
b)
fatty acid
c)
nucleotide
d)
lipid
51.
The name of the initial chain of monomers in a protein is called.....
a)
polypeptide
b)
polysaccharide
c)
polyester
d)
polynucleotide
52.
Which structure changes in the 20 different amino acids?
a)
#1
b)
#2
c)
#3
d)
#4
53.
The primary sequence of a protein refers to the:
a)
Order of amino acids
b)
α-Helix or β-Pleated Sheet
c)
Interaction of subunits
d)
Hydrogen Bonding
54.
What is a peptide bond?
a)
Bond that holds two amino acids together.
b)
A bond that holds hydrogen and oxygen molecules together.
c)
A bond that holds the phosphate group of one nucleotide and a sugar of a neighboring nucleotide.
d)
A bond that is formed by the sharing of electrons.
55.

Amicyanin is an ELECTRON TRANSFER PROTEIN containing

a TYPE 1 ............................ site, isolated from certain bacteria.

a)

Metal

b)

Copper

c)

Magnesium

d)

Calcium

56.

In the folding of proteins, the amino acids that are hydrophilic will

a)

stay in the middle

b)

move to the outside

c)

move to the inside

d)

not change

57.

Cystein is a sulfur containing amino acid and forms a

a)

hydrogen bond

b)

Na bond

c)

K bond

d)

S-S bond

58.

Hydrophilic amino acid side chains are attracted by

a)

H20 molecules

b)

K molecules

c)

Na molecules

d)

Cl molecules

59.

Hydrophobic amino acid side chains are

a)

forced to go to outside of protein

b)

electrically negative

c)

electrically positive

d)

electrically neutral and nonpolar

60.

When placed in oil hydrophilic amino acids are

a)

attracted to hydrophobic molecules

b)

attracted to each other

c)

attracted to the outside of the protein

d)

attracted to other hydrophobic side chains

61.

In oil hydrophobic nonpolar amino acids will

a)

group together

b)

effectively dissolve

c)

move to the inside of the protein

d)

move to the outside of the protein

62.

What dictates the shape of a protein?

a)

the shape of the RBC

b)

the consumed amino acids

c)

how much you eat

d)

the position of all amino acids in the chain

63.

What is the name of enzyme for amino acid activation?

a)

aminoacyl tRNA synthase

b)

aminoacyl tRNA synthetase

c)

aminoacyl rRNA synthase

d)

aminoacyl rRNA synthetase

64.

Where do amphibians hatch their eggs?

a)

Water

b)

Land

c)

They do not come from eggs

65.

A tadpole has ____________ to breathe

a)

lungs

b)

gills

c)

skin

66.

A frog has ___________ to breathe

a)

lungs

b)

gills

c)

they do not need to breathe

67.

Amphibians are ____________ which means they have a backbone.

a)

Invertebrates

b)

Vertebrates

c)

Skeletons

d)

Amphibians do not have any bones

68.

Frogs keep their skin wet, this helps them ________

a)

take baths

b)

Find food

c)

See better in the water

d)

Breathe with their skin

69.

The changes in structure that some animals go through during stages of their life cycle.

a)

Offspring

b)

Amphibian

c)

Vertebrate

d)

Metamorphsis

70.

Which words describe the skin of a frog?

a)

Hard and leathery

b)

Soft and scaly

c)

soft and moist

d)

Dry and bumpy

71.

What does the term "amphibian" mean?

a)

Single life

b)

Double life

c)

Lives in water

d)

Lives on land

72.

A + B --> C

a)

Anabolic

b)

Catabolic

73.
Which of the following is true for anabolic pathways?
a)
they do not depend on enzymes
b)
they are usually spontaneous chemical reactions
c)
they consume energy to build polymers from monomers
d)
They release energy as they degrade polymers to monomers
74.

To do work, living systems will pair an catabolic reaction with a(n)________________

a)

exergonic reaction

b)

oxidative reaction

c)

ATP synthesis

d)

anabolic reaction

75.

Reactions that build up molecules

a)

catabolic reaction

b)

anabolic reaction

c)

thermal expansion

d)

reactants and products

76.

Combination of anabolic and catabolic reactions

a)

metastasis

b)

anacatabolism

c)

catabolism

d)

metabolism

77.

In anemia blood doesn't have sufficient amount of

a)

Protein

b)

RBC

c)

Cholesterol

d)

Carbohydrate

78.

MCV means

a)

Mean corpuscles volume

b)

Moderate corpuscles volume

c)

Medium corpuscles volume

d)

Mean colour volume

79.

In Microcytic anemia cell are................RBC

a)

Larger than normal

b)

Smaller than normal

80.

Grade 1 (mild anemia)

a)

7-10 g/dl

b)

10 g/dl

c)

7 g/dl

d)

8g/dl

81.

Grade 3 ( severe anemia)

a)

7-10 g/dl

b)

8 g/dl

c)

7 g/dl

d)

10 g/dl

82.

Grade 2 (moderate anemia)

a)

7-10 g/dl

b)

7 g/dl

c)

10g/dl

d)

8 g/dl

83.

What is an infectious disease caused by spore-forming Bacillus Anthracis?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Anthrax

d)

Asthma

84.

What type of Anthrax is this?

When bacteria enters the skin through a cut or lesion.

a)

Gastrointestinal Anthrax

b)

Cutaneous Anthrax

c)

Cranial Anthrax

d)

Inhalation Anthrax

85.

What is the most deadliest type of Anthrax?

a)

Inhalation Anthrax

b)

Gastrointestinal Anthrax

c)

Cutaneous Anthrax

86.

Antibodies are

a)

immunoglobulins

b)

carbohydrates

c)

lipids

87.

Antibody structure is commonly

a)

Z shaped

b)

Y shaped

c)

W shaped

d)

T shaped

88.

Antibody structure contains

a)

One heavy and one light polypeptide chain

b)

One heavy and two light polypeptide chain

c)

Two heavy and one light polypeptide chain

d)

Two identical heavy and two light polypeptide chain

89.

Heavy chain and light chain in an antibody joint by

a)

phosphate di ester bonds

b)

Disulfide bonds

c)

peptide bond

90.

Antibodies divided into

a)

two class

b)

five class

c)

ten class

d)

three class

91.

Types of immunoglobulins are

a)

IgA, IgM, IgG, IgE and IgD

b)

IgA and IgM only

c)

IgD and IgG only

d)

IgA only

92.

Immunoglobulin G has further subclasses into

a)

IgG1 & IgG2

b)

IgG1, IgG2 & IgG3

c)

IgG1, IgG2, IgG3 & IgG4

d)

Igg1, IgG2, IgG3, IgG4 & IgG5

93.

IgM is

a)

Monomer

b)

Dimer

c)

Trimer

d)

Pentamer

94.

IgA is a

a)

monomer

b)

dimer

c)

trimer

d)

tetramer

95.

IgG is

a)

dimer

b)

monomer

c)

tetramer

d)

pentamer

96.

Major immunoglobulin in serum is

a)

IgG

b)

IgM

c)

IgA

d)

IgE

97.

Antibody which can pass through placenta from mother to foetus is

a)

IgE

b)

IgM

c)

IgD

d)

IgG

98.

IgM immunoglubulin percentage in serum is

a)

5-10%

b)

90%

c)

80%

d)

50%

99.

Immunolglobulin A present in

a)

two types

b)

three types

c)

fuve types

d)

four types

100.

Immunoglobulin E (IgE) percentage in serum is

a)

30 %

b)

20 %

c)

below 1%

d)

90 %

101.

Incorrect statement about Apomixis -

a)

it is a form of asexual reproduction

b)

it mimics sexual reproduction

c)

fusion of gamete will not occur

d)

it involve process of fertilization

102.

Sculpting of digits is result of

a)

Necrosis

b)

Apoptosis

c)

DNA damage

d)

Cancer

103.

Apoptosis is also termed as

a)

Necrosis

b)

Senesences

c)

Accidental death

d)

Programmed cell death

104.

Which of cell organelle participates in apoptosis

a)

Vacuoles

b)

Nucleus

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Ribosomes

105.

Which is inhibitor of apoptosis

a)

Caspases

b)

IAP

c)

SMAC

d)

DIABLO

106.

When the coronary _____ are blocked, blood does not flow as well and coronary artery disease begins to develop.

a)

arteries

b)

arteriosclerosis

c)

symptoms

d)

blood pressure

107.

As your heart pushes blood through your body's vessels, blood pushes against the walls of the vessels creating ___.

a)

arteries

b)

arteriosclerosis

c)

symptoms

d)

blood pressure

108.

A fatty substance that can coat the inside walls of arteries is ________________.

a)

choral

b)

cholera

c)

chloesterol

109.

Blocked arteries prevent blood carrying oxygen and _______________from reaching the cells of the body.

a)

oxygen

b)

glucose

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

water

110.

1. The process of choosing parent organisms for desired characteristics is called

a)

natural selection

b)

Artificial selection

c)

random selection

d)

genetic manipulation

111.

What is an example of artificial selection?

a)

Letting dogs choose their own mate

b)

Letting plants pollinate on their own

c)

Crossing a labrador and a poodle to create a labradoodle

112.

1. Artificial selection has been a big factor in the evolution of:

a)

Dogs

b)

Panda bears

c)

Snakes

d)

Jellyfish

113.

Which statement is true comparing natural selection and artificial selection?

a)

In natural selection, traits benefit humans and in artificial selection, the traits benefit the species

b)

In natural selection, traits benefit the species and in artificial selection, the traits benefit humans

c)

In natural and artificial selection, the process takes hundreds of years to occur

d)

In natural and artificial selection, nature determines what traits will be passed down to offspring.

114.

Artificial selection takes

a)

a shorter period of time than natural selection

b)

a longer period of time than natural selection

c)

the same amount of time as natural selection

115.

Artificial selection is also known as

a)

natural selection

b)

selective hearing

c)

genetic manipulation

d)

selective breeding

116.

The autonomic nervous system is divided into

a)

Motor and Sensory

b)

Peripheral and Central

c)

The Brain and Spinal cord

d)

Sympathetic and Parasympathetic

117.

The Autonomic Nervous System is part of the___________.

a)

Somatic Nervous System

b)

Peripheral Nervous System

c)

Central Nervous System

d)

Sensory Nervous System

118.

Auxins are responsible for _____________ of a plant

a)

Colour change

b)

Watering

c)

Phototropism

d)

Growth

119.

Where is auxin formed

a)

Tip of stem and root

b)

Leaves

c)

Embryo

d)

All

120.

Causes apical dominance

a)

abscisic acid

b)

auxin

c)

cytokinins

d)

gibberellin

e)

ethylene

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