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a&p final

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A _______ is a subjective change in the body that a clinician must question the patient to determine.

a)

disease

b)

symptom

c)

disorder

d)

sign

2.

The ______ surrounds the lungs.

a)

cranial cavity

b)

mediastinum

c)

pericardial cavity

d)

pleural cavity

3.

_______ uses a camera inserted into the body.

a)

endoscopy

b)

positron emiision tomography

c)

computed tomography

d)

radiography

4.

ATP is a modified _____ that serves as energy currency.

a)

fatty acid

b)

amino acid

c)

monosaccharide

d)

nucleotide

5.

The assembly of multiple protein strands represents the protein's:

a)

primary structure

b)

tertiary structure

c)

quaternary structure

d)

secondary structure

6.

Glucose passing through a plasma membrane from low to high concentration is an example of:

a)

active transport

b)

carrier-mediated diffusion

c)

channel-mediated diffusion

d)

simple diffusion

7.

cells use the process of _______ to specifically export substances out of the cell

a)

phagocytosis

b)

exocytosis

c)

pinocytosis

d)

receptor-mediated endocytosis

8.

The smooth ER is primarily involved in the synthesis of:

a)

carbohydrates

b)

nucleic acids

c)

lipids

d)

proteins

9.

Translation is the conversion of _______ into ________

a)

DNA, RNA

b)

protein, RNA

c)

RNA, DNA

d)

RNA, protein

10.

During the ______ phase of transcription, more subunits are added to the transcript

a)

elongation

b)

formation

c)

initiation

d)

termination

11.

Which enzyme is involved in transcription?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

both a and b

d)

None of the above

12.

The division of the cytoplasm is best described as:

a)

cytokinesis

b)

mitosis

c)

the cell cycle

d)

the mitotic phase

13.

The basal surface of an epidermal cell is oriented towards a _______ direction

a)

deep

b)

superficial

c)

both a and b

d)

either a or b

14.

Epithelial cells that help clear foreign particles away from the tissue usually have:

a)

cilia

b)

flagella

c)

multiple nuclei

d)

no ribosomes

15.

Epithelial tissue and cartilage both:

a)

contain large amounts of extracellular matrix

b)

contain nerve endings

c)

lack blood vessels

d)

all of the above

16.

Which bone type usually has protective functions?

a)

flat

b)

irregular

c)

long

d)

short

17.

Which of the following bones is an irregular bone?

a)

axis

b)

parietal

c)

patella

d)

scaphoid

18.

The formation of new bone tissue is called bone:

a)

deposition

b)

remodeling

c)

resorption

d)

restoration

19.

In both dense and cancellous bone tissue, osteocytes communicate through the:

a)

canaliculi

b)

central canal

c)

lacunae

d)

all of the above

20.

The palatine process is found on the:

a)

lacrimal bone

b)

mandible

c)

maxilla

d)

palatine bone

21.

The intertrochanteric line is found on the

a)

femur

b)

fibula

c)

humerus

d)

tibia

22.

The fibrous membrane of the articular capsule attaches to the ______ of the articulating bones.

a)

endosteum

b)

epiphyses

c)

metaphyses

d)

periosteum

23.

The muscular system includes mostly:

a)

muscles under involuntary control

b)

non-striated muscle

c)

both a and b

d)

none of the above

24.

A rope-like extension connecting a muscle to a bone is called a(n):

a)

aponeruosis

b)

ligament

c)

retinaculum

d)

tendon

25.

The deepest layer of the lateral abdominal wall is the:

a)

external abdominal obliques

b)

internal abdominal obliques

c)

rectus abdominis

d)

transverse abdominals

26.

In skeletal muscle fibers, calcium binds to ______ to initiate contraction

a)

calmodulin

b)

titin

c)

tropomyosin

d)

troponin

27.

Which of the following structures is MOST likely to be found in grey matter?

a)

cluster

b)

ganglion

c)

nerve

d)

tract

28.

Which type of skeletal muscle fiber likely has the most glycogen?

a)

FG

b)

FOG

c)

SO

d)

all three have equal amounts

29.

The distal end of an axon is called the:

a)

axon hillock

b)

axon collateral

c)

synaptic bulb

d)

terminal arborization

30.

_________ have phagocytic functions

a)

astrocytes

b)

microglia

c)

ependymal cells

d)

oligodendrocytes

31.

Short-term memory is stored within the brain via the

a)

formation of new receptors

b)

remodeling of old synapses

c)

transient increase of calcium ions

d)

all of the above

32.

All of the following spinal nerves innervate the skin EXCEPT

a)

C1

b)

L1

c)

T1

d)

S1

33.

The gracile and cuneate nuclei are found in the

a)

medulla oblongata

b)

midbrain

c)

pons

d)

thalamus

34.

Communication between the cerebellum and cerebrum passes through the _______ cerebellar peduncle

a)

anterior

b)

inferior

c)

posterior

d)

superior

35.

Sympathetic postganglionic neurons innervating the head originate from the

a)

ciliary ganglion

b)

inferior cervical ganglion

c)

otic ganglion

d)

superior cervical ganglion

36.

_______ pass through the white communicating rami

a)

parasympathetic postganglionic axons

b)

sympathetic preganglionic axons

c)

parasympathetic preganglionic axons

d)

sympathetic postganglionic axons

37.

______ receptors usually have an inhibitory effect

a)

a1-adrenergic

b)

B2-adrenergic

c)

muscarinic

d)

nicotinic

38.

Pain from the right side of the neck may be referred pain from the

a)

heart

b)

kidney

c)

liver

d)

lung

39.

______ is the study of microscopic tissue structure

a)

gross anatomy

b)

histology

c)

osteophysiology

d)

pathophysiology

40.

The anatomical position is a standard position where the subject:

a)

holds its arms perpendicular to the body

b)

holds its head down, and looks up

c)

is standing and facing the observer

d)

all of the above

41.

Two structures in opposite sides of the body are called:

a)

contralateral

b)

distal

c)

ipsilateral

d)

superficial

42.

An inferior structure refers to a structure:

a)

away from the head

b)

closer to the back of the body

c)

closer to the front of the body

d)

towards the head

43.

The _______ surrounds the brain

a)

cranial cavity

b)

mediastinum

c)

pericardial cavity

d)

pleural cavity

44.

_____ uses x-rays to generate a composite image

a)

computed tomography

b)

endoscopy

c)

positron emission tomography

d)

radiography

45.

An element is a substance that cannot be broken down into simpler components through:

a)

biological means

b)

chemical means

c)

medical means

d)

psychological means

46.

A chemical reaction in which ENERGY is released is called an ________ reaction

a)

endergonic

b)

endothermic

c)

exergonic

d)

exothermic

47.

_______ plays a significant role in intercellular signaling

a)

calcium

b)

magnesium

c)

sodium

d)

sulfur

48.

Sex hormones are usually

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

nucleic acids

d)

proteins

49.

When the concentration of a solute is lower outside a cell than inside, the outside solution is said to be a(n) _______ solution

a)

hypertonic

b)

hypotonic

c)

isotonic

d)

osmotonic

50.

Membrane lipids primarily consist of

a)

cholesterol

b)

glycolipids

c)

phospholipids

d)

none of the above

51.

cells use the process of ______ to take substances inside the cell in a highly specific manner

a)

exocytosis

b)

phagocytosis

c)

pinocytosis

d)

receptor-mediated endocytosis

52.

The ______ membrane is composed of two layers of plasma membrane

a)

inner mitochondrial

b)

nuclear

c)

outer mitochondrial

d)

peroxisomal

53.

Which of the following is accurate for DNA?

I. found in ribosomes

II. most often double-stranded

III. uses both thymine and uracil in its nucleotides

a)

II only

b)

I and II only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II, and III

54.

_____ is the study of the proteins that an organism contains

a)

genomics

b)

proteomics

c)

the genome

d)

the proteome

55.

the nuclear envelope breaks down during

a)

anaphase

b)

metaphase

c)

prophase

d)

telophase

56.

The division of the cell is best described as

a)

cytokinesis

b)

mitosis

c)

cell cycle

d)

mitotic phase

57.

The apical surface of an epithelial cell is oriented towards a _____ direction

a)

deep

b)

superficial

c)

both a and b

d)

either a or b

58.

the reticular lamina is found in the basement membrane, and consists of _______ tissue

a)

connective

b)

epithelial

c)

muscular

d)

nervous

59.

_______ glands secrete substances through exocytosis via membrane budding

a)

apocrine

b)

holocrine

c)

merocrine

d)

all of the above

60.

chondrocytes are primarily found in

a)

adipose tissue

b)

areolar tissue

c)

reticular tissue

d)

none of the above

61.

The transformation of one cell type to another is called

a)

anaplasia

b)

dysplasia

c)

hyperplasia

d)

metaplasia

62.

Sudoriferous glands that act as scent glands and are associated with hair follicles are

a)

apocrine

b)

holocrine

c)

merocrine

d)

none of the above

63.

A clot forms over the open wound during the ______ phase

a)

inflamation

b)

maturation

c)

migratory

d)

proliferative

64.

Scar tissue forms during the ______ phase

a)

inflammation

b)

maturation

c)

migratory

d)

proliferative

65.

Scar tissue above the skin and extending outside the original wound is called

a)

anaplasic

b)

hypertrophic

c)

keloid

d)

myeloid

66.

All of the following are functions of the skeletal system EXCEPT

a)

calcium homeostasis

b)

fat storage

c)

movement

d)

all three are functions of the skeletal system

67.

Osseous extracellular matrix is composed of

a)

collagen crystals

b)

mineral salt fibers

c)

water

d)

all of the above

68.

The _____ is the thin membrane lining the medullary cavity

a)

endosteum

b)

epiosteum

c)

myosteum

d)

periosteum

69.

Haversian systems (osteons) are found in

a)

compact bone tissue

b)

red bone marrow

c)

spongy bone tissue

d)

yellow bone marrow

70.

The removal of old or worn-out bone tissue is called bone

a)

deposition

b)

remodeling

c)

recruitment

d)

resorption

71.

a _____ is a small pit

a)

foramen

b)

fossa

c)

fovea

d)

sulcus

72.

the _____ sinus is the paranasal sinus between the cranial and nasal cavities

a)

ethmoid

b)

frontal

c)

maxillary

d)

sphenoid

73.

rib 12 is a ________ rib

a)

false

b)

floating

c)

both a and b

d)

none of the above

74.

The pterygoid plates are located on the ______ bone

a)

ethmoid

b)

maxillary

c)

sphenoid

d)

temporal

75.

The _______ process is located on the ulna

a)

conoid

b)

coracoid

c)

coronoid

d)

none of the above

76.

In women, the acetabulum is ______ and _______

a)

larger; faces more laterally

b)

larger; faces slightly anteriorly

c)

smaller; faces more laterally

d)

smaller; faces slightly anteriorly

77.

the linea aspera is found on the

a)

femur

b)

fibula

c)

humerus

d)

tibia

78.

a synostosis is the scientific name for a _______ joint

a)

bony

b)

cartilaginous

c)

fibrous

d)

synovial

79.

the articular capsule is composed of the

a)

articular cartilage

b)

synovial fluid

c)

both a and b

d)

none of the above

80.

The ______ joint contains a labrum

a)

glenohumeral

b)

talocrural

c)

both a and b

d)

none of the above

81.

_______ is the inflammation of the synovial membrane, eventually resulting in joint immobilization

a)

gouty arthritis

b)

osteoarthritis

c)

rheumatoid arthritis

d)

subluxation

82.

which of the following is a function of the muscular system?

a)

blood calcium regulation

b)

control of body orifices

c)

heat dissipation

d)

regulating heart rate

83.

A flat, sheet-like extension connecting a muscle to a bone is called a(n)

a)

aponeurosis

b)

ligament

c)

retinaculum

d)

tendon

84.

The descriptor quadratus refers to a muscle's

a)

location

b)

number of origins

c)

shape

d)

size

85.

Muscles named after the hallux can be found in the

a)

abdomen

b)

foot

c)

hand

d)

neck

86.

The levator palpebrae superioris is named for its:

a)

origin

b)

size

c)

both a and b

d)

none of the above

87.

the belly of the ______ muscle is used to delineate the anterior and posterior triangle regions of the neck

a)

digastric

b)

omohyoid

c)

sternocleidomastoid

d)

trapezius

88.

which of the following muscles is an intrinsic hand muscle of the hand

a)

adductor pollicis

b)

extensor digiti minimi

c)

flexor digitorum profundus

d)

palmaris longus

89.

The ______ is one of the lateral rotators of the thigh

a)

gluteus maximus

b)

obturator internus

c)

psoas major

d)

supinator femoris

90.

the dorsal and plantar interosseous muscles of the foot are located in the ______ ventral layer

a)

first

b)

second

c)

third

d)

fourth

91.

Thin filaments contain

a)

actin

b)

tropomyosin

c)

troponin

d)

all of the above

92.

The z-disc marks the boundaries of the

a)

a band

b)

h band

c)

i band

d)

sarcomere

93.

the binding sites on actin filaments for myosin heads are uncovered in the presence of

a)

calcium ions

b)

hydrogen ions

c)

potassium ions

d)

sodium ions

94.

Formation of the cross-bridge occurs in the _____ step of the contraction cycle

a)

first

b)

second

c)

third

d)

fourth

95.

______ is characterized by an increase in muscle tone with the affected reflex

a)

flaccidity

b)

plasticity

c)

rigidity

d)

spasticity

96.

Which type of skeletal muscle fiber has little if any glycogen

a)

FG

b)

FOG

c)

SO

d)

all of the above

97.

In smooth muscle fibers, calcium ions are stored in the

a)

caveolae

b)

dense bodies

c)

myolemma

d)

terminal cisternae

98.

a _______ is a spontaneous contraction of a single muscle fiber and often indicates nerve damage

a)

fasciculation

b)

fibrillation

c)

myositis

d)

tremor

99.

The functions of the nervous system include

a)

generation of sensory input

b)

processing and integration of information

c)

reception of motor output

d)

all of the above

100.

Nissl bodies are found in the

a)

axon

b)

cell body

c)

both a and b

d)

none of the above

101.

Satellite cells in the peripheral nervous system have functions similar to _____ in the CNS

a)

astrocytes

b)

ependymal cells

c)

microglia

d)

oligodendrocytes

102.

A neuron at rest usually has more ______ outside the cell

a)

anions

b)

K+

c)

Na+

d)

none of the above

103.

membrane repolarization are caused by the opening of ________ channels

a)

leak

b)

ligand-gated

c)

mechanically gated

d)

voltage gated

104.

_______ channels on postsynaptic neurons open in response to neurotransmitters binding to the channels

a)

leak

b)

ligand gated

c)

mechanically gated

d)

voltage gated

105.

Which of the following synapses are observed in humans

a)

axoaxonic

b)

dendroaxonic

c)

somatoaxonic

d)

all of the above

106.

Over the course of a second, a neuron receives a total of eighty messages from 6 different neurons. This is an example of:

a)

spatial summation

b)

temporal summation

c)

both a and b

d)

none of the above

107.

_______ is the neurotransmitter used in neuromuscular junctions

a)

acetylcholine

b)

dopamine

c)

GABA

d)

serotonin

108.

Neurotransmitters most commonly used in the CNS include

a)

glycine

b)

norepinephrine

c)

both a and b

d)

none of the above

109.

A cross-section of the spinal cord at L4 would have

a)

lateral horns

b)

medial horns

c)

ventral horns

d)

all of the above

110.

The posterior _______ is directly posterior to the central canal

a)

horn

b)

median sulcus

c)

process of the vertebra

d)

root of the spinal nerve

111.

Which of the following tracts is a motor tract?

a)

cuneate fasciculus

b)

gracile fasciculus

c)

spinoreticular

d)

tectospinal

112.

The _______ is a connective tissue layer immediately superficial to, and wraps around, unmyelinated axons

a)

endoneurium

b)

epineurium

c)

perineurium

d)

none of the above

113.

cords are only found in the _____ plexuses

a)

brachial

b)

cervical

c)

coccygeal

d)

enteric

114.

The obturator nerve originates from the ____ plexus

a)

coccygeal

b)

lumbar

c)

sacral

d)

none of the above

115.

______ nerves are responsible for forming intercostal nerves

a)

cervical

b)

lumbar

c)

sacral

d)

thoracic