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MED ORG P2

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The Lipophilic portion of a local anesthetic primarily consist of:

a)

Methoxy ring

b)

Butyl ring

c)

Phenyl ring

d)

Isopropyl ring

2.

Identify the structureq

a)

Orphenadrine

b)

Scopolamine

c)

Biperiden

d)

Papaverine

3.

Which of the following agents is used to reverse the coma and respiratory depression of opioid overdose?

a)

Naloxone

b)

Tramadol

c)

Pethidine

4.

The major metabolic product of all ester type local anesthetics:

a)

PABA

b)

ASA

c)

NAPQI

d)

Urea

5.

All of the following are selective a1 agonists, EXCEPT:

a)

Midodrine

b)

Methyldopa

c)

Methoxamine

d)

Naphazoline

6.

Which of the following is natural opioid agonist?

a)

Meperidine

b)

Morphine

c)

Fentanyl

d)

Naloxone

7.

Which of the following effects is NOT produced by Morphine?

a)

Analagesia

b)

Miosis

c)

Cough

d)

Euphoria

8.

The following statements are true about Prazosin, Except:

a)

It is preferential alpha 1 receptor blocker

b)

It is useful in benign prostatic

c)

It stimulates ejaculation

9.

Morphine is obtained from:

a)

PAPAVER OMNIFERUM

b)

PAPAVER GONIUM

c)

PAPAVER SOMNIFERIUM

d)

PAPAVER MALAECEA

10.

The following anticholinergics are aminoamides, EXCEPT:

a)

Tropicamide

b)

Benztropine

c)

Darifenacin

d)

All of the choices

e)

None of the choices

11.

The analgesic properties of the opioids are primarily mediated by:

a)

u receptor

b)

s receptor

c)

k receptor

d)

All of the choices

12.

Which of the following is a selective a2 antagonist

a)

Prazosin

b)

Labetalol

c)

Yohimbine

d)

Butaxamine

13.

Which of the following is an indirect-acting sympathomimetic?

a)

Midodrine

b)

Amphetamine

c)

Methoxamine

d)

All of the choices

e)

None of the choices

14.

The following are general adverse effects of anticholinergics, EXCEPT:

a)

Cycloplegia

b)

Dry mouth

c)

Bradycardia

d)

All of the choices

e)

None of the choices

15.

Which of the following has amide functional group?

a)

Cocaine

b)

Bupivacaine

c)

Benzocaine

d)

Chloroprocaine

16.

The active metabolite of Codeine is:

a)

Morphine

b)

Hydrocodone

c)

Meperidine

17.

What is the common mechanism of action of local anesthetics when given in their usual doses?

a)

Inhibition of ligand gated NA channel

b)

Inhibition of Voltage gated sodium channel

c)

Stimulate outward potassium flux

d)

Stimulate calcium extrusion from cell

18.

Which of the following is NOT a beta blocker?

a)

Nadolol

b)

Timolol

c)

Isoproterenol

19.

Which of the following is an injectable general anesthetic?

a)

Propofol

b)

Etomidate

c)

Ketamine

d)

All of the choices

e)

None of the choices

20.

The placement of small alkyl groups(i.e. branching) especially around ester or amide functional groups of local anesthetics:

a)

Increases amidase function

b)

Increases esterase function

c)

Prolongs duration of action

d)

Decreases duration of action

21.

Identify the structure:

a)

Norepinephrine

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Dopamine

d)

Isoproterenol

22.

Which of the following opioid receptor types is responsible for euphoria and respiratory depression?

a)

Kappa-receptors

b)

Delta-receptors

c)

Mu-receptors

d)

All of the choices

23.

Which of the following anticholinergics belong to synthetic aminoalcohol esters?

a)

Scopolamine

b)

Glycopyrrolate

c)

Orphenadrine

d)

Isopropamide

24.

What is the Stage III of General Anesthesia?

a)

Analgesia

b)

Excitement

c)

Surgical Anesthesia

d)

Medullary paralysis

25.

The aromatic ring adds lipophilicity to the local anesthetics and helps the molecule to be:

a)

Absorbed more

b)

Excreted more

c)

Exhaled more

26.

Which of the following is NOT an inhalational Anesthetic?

a)

Ketamine

b)

Halothane

c)

Nitrous oxide

d)

Desflurane

27.

Morphine cause the following effects, EXCEPT:

a)

Constipation

b)

Dilatation of biliary duct

c)

Urinary retention

d)

Bronchiolar constriction

28.

a1 blocker without any effect on blood pressure is:

a)

Tamsulosin

b)

Prazosin

c)

Oxazocin

d)

Terazosin

29.

Which of the following is used in hypertension?

a)

Clonidine

b)

Phenylephrine

c)

Dobutamine

30.

Which of the following is NOT cardio-selective beta blocker?

a)

Bisoprolol

b)

Atenolol

c)

Betaxolol

d)

Nadolol

31.

All of the following are Phenylisopropylamines, EXCEPT:

a)

Methoxamine

b)

Amphetamine

c)

Ephedrine

d)

Phenylephrine

32.

Advantage of cardio-selective beta-blockers over non-selective beta blockers

a)

No bronchoconstriction

b)

No bradycardia

c)

Prolonged action

d)

No drug interaction

33.

Identify the structure

a)

Cyclopentolate HCl

b)

Tropicamide

c)

Atropine

d)

Papaverine

34.

Your patient is to receive a selective beta-2 stimulant drug. Beta-2 selective stimulant drugs are often effective in:

a)

Angina due to coronary insufficiency

b)

Asthma

c)

Chronic Heart failure

35.

Which of the following statements is/ are TRUE about depolarizing neuromuscular blockers?

a)

I only

b)

II and III

c)

I, II and III

d)

I, II, III, and IV

36.

4-amino group on the quinazoline ring is very important for:

a)

alpha-1 receptor affinity

b)

beta-1 receptor affinity

c)

alpha-2 receptor affinity

d)

GABA-receptor affinity

37.

Which of the following is NOT halogenated inhalational anesthetic agent?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

38.

Identify the structure:

a)

Pancuronium

b)

Papaverine HCl

c)

Succinylcholine

d)

Tubocurarine

39.

Which of the following Local Anesthetics is hydrolyzed to para-amino benzoic acid?

a)

Cocaine

b)

Isobucaine

c)

Lidocaine

d)

Bupivacaine

e)

Tetracaine

40.

Which of the following DOES NOT belong to the group?

a)

Clonidineq

b)

Methyldopa

c)

Guanadrel

d)

Guanfacine

41.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Atropine?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Urinary incotinence

c)

Xerostomia

d)

Bradycardia

42.

Which of the following is NOT catecholamine?

a)

Isoproterenol

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Norepinephrine

d)

Amphetamine

43.

Narcotic analgesics should:

a)

Relieve severe pain

b)

Induce loss of sensation

c)

Reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect

d)

Induce stupor or somnolent state

44.

Which of the ff. is simply two molecules of acetylcholine linked through the acetate methyl groups

?

a)

Pancuronium

b)

Papaverine HCl

c)

Succinylcholine

d)

Tubocurarine

45.

The most common cause of death in acute opioid overdoses is:

a)

Paralysis

b)

Cardiac arrest

c)

Cough

d)

Respiratory depression

46.

A narcotic analgesic which is a phenylpiperidine derivative:

a)

Codeine

b)

Dezocine

c)

Fentanyl

d)

Buprenorphine

47.

Which of the following is used as a nasal decongestant?

a)

Clonidine

b)

Phenylephrine

c)

Dobutamine

d)

Salbutamol

48.

Which of the following neuromuscular blockers, is an isoquinoline derivative?

a)

Vecuronium

b)

Pancuronium

c)

Cisatracurium

d)

All of the choices

e)

None of the choices

49.

A beta-1 selective blocker which can also be used for glaucoma:

a)

Timolol

b)

Levobunolol

c)

Carteolol

d)

Betaxolol

50.

Which of the following is NOT clinical use of neuromuscular blocker?

a)

Orthopedic surgery

b)

Facilitate endotracheal intubation

c)

Adjuvant in general anesthesia to induce muscle relaxation

d)

Treatment of glaucoma

51.

After the acute infection, which of the following medications is given to treat asymptomatic colonization state of ENTAMOEBA HISTOLYTICA?

a)

Chloroquine

b)

Iodoquinol

c)

Metronidazole

d)

Primaquine

52.

Drugs which act on EXOERTHROCYTIC cycle of malarial parasite:

a)

Will not be clinically effective

b)

Will be effective for radical cure

c)

Will be effective for suppressive prophylaxis

d)

Will botj be effective for prophylaxis and as a radical cure

53.

Assess the choices. Which of the following is incorrectly pared?

a)

Ceftriaxone- 3rd gen

b)

Cefpirome- 4th gen

c)

Cefaclor- 1st gen

d)

Cefamandole- 2nd gen

54.

Which of the following is a urinary antiseptic?

a)

Suramin

b)

Methenamine

c)

Sodium stibogluconate

d)

Artemisinin

55.

What is the mechanism of action of quinolones?

a)

Injury to plasma membrane

b)

Inhibition of DNA gyrase

c)

Inhibition of protein synthesis

d)

Production of toxic free radicals

56.

Which of the following is an anthelmintic?

a)

Metoclopramide

b)

Lorazepam

c)

Piperazine

d)

Nizatidine

57.

The structure shown below can be present in which of the given antibiotic agents?

a)

Tetracycline

b)

Cefazolin

c)

Ampicillin

d)

Gentamicin

58.

What specie of Plasmodium can cause the most severe cases of malaria?

a)

PLASMODIUM VIVAX

b)

PLASMODIUM FALCIPARUM

c)

PLASMODIUM OVALE

d)

PLASMODIUM MALARIAE

59.

An 18-year-old male is diagnosed with chagas disease. Which medication would be the best for this patient?

a)

Suramin

b)

Nifurtimox

c)

Metronidazole

d)

Sodium stibogluconate

60.

Used as a treatment for various forms of leishmaniasis:

a)

N-acetylcysteine

b)

Pentamidine Isethionate

c)

Sodium Stibogluconate

d)

Emetine

61.

What is the established mechanism of action of sulfonamides?

a)

They competitively inhibit the incorporation of PABA into folic acid, thereby preventing the synthesis of folic acid

b)

They inhibit the transpeptidase that catalyzes the final step in cell wall biosynthesis, the cross-linking of peptidogylcan

c)

They inhibit protein synthesis by binding to a site on the bacterial 23S ribosomal RNA of the 50S subunit

d)

They inhibit the 30S ribosomal subunit, hindering the binding of the aminoacyl

62.

Drug components present in Streptogramins:

a)

Quinupristin (30%), Dalfopristin (70%)

b)

Quinupristin (70%), Dalfopristin (30%)

c)

Quinupristin (20%), Dalfopristin (80%)

d)

Quinupristin (80%), Dalfopristin (20%)

63.

A type of antifungal drug that interferes with the synthesis of fungal cell wall by inhibiting the synthesis of B(1,3)-d-glucan, leading to lysis and cell death

a)

Azoles

b)

Achinocandins

c)

Allylamines

d)

Polyenes

64.

The fungal cell membrane is made up of:

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Ergosterol

c)

Stigmasterol

d)

Phytosterol

65.

Which of the following is a penicillinase-resistant oral penicillin?

a)

Carbenicillin

b)

Oxacillin

c)

Penicillin V

d)

Ampicillin

66.

The following drugs interfere in bacterial cell wall synthesis, EXCEPT:

a)

Meropenem

b)

Aztreonam

c)

Cefuroxime

d)

Amikacin

67.

Fungal cell wall is mainly composed of:

a)

Peptidoglycan

b)

Chitin

c)

Cellulose

d)

Phytosterol

68.

Which of the following is a Monobactam?

a)

Azithromycin

b)

Methicillin

c)

Aztreonam

d)

Streptomycin

69.

Which of the following is/are TRUE about sulfonamides?

a)

I, II, III, AND IV

b)

I, II, AND III

c)

I, III, AND IV

d)

III AND IV

70.

Albendazole, and Piperazine are classified as:

a)

Dye

b)

Antiviral

c)

Anthelmintic

d)

Antifungal

71.

Which of the following is/are MISMATCHED?

a)

I, III, AND IV

b)

II ONLY

c)

I, II, III, AND IV

d)

II AND III

72.

Which of the following is/are effective against Pseudomonas?

a)

Aztreonam

b)

Ticarcillin

c)

Piperacillin

d)

All of the choices

73.

Which of the following antibiotics belong to the ureidopenicillin class of agents?

a)

Carbenicillin

b)

Ticarcillin

c)

Piperacillin

d)

Bacampicillin

74.

A nucleoside antifungal that has synergistic effect with Amphotericin B

a)

Griseofulvin

b)

Miconazole

c)

Butenafine

d)

Flucystosine

75.

What is the established mechanism of action of sulfonamides?

a)

They competitively inhibit the incorporation of PABA into folic acid, thereby preventing the synthesis of folic acid

b)

They inhibit the transpeptidase that catalyzes the final step in cell wall biosynthesis, the cross-linking of peptidoglycan

c)

They inhibit protein synthesis by binding to a site on the bacterial 23S ribosomal RNA of the 50S subunit

d)

They inhibit the 30S ribosomal subunit, hindering the binding of the aminoacyl- tRNA to the acceptor site on the mRNA ribosome complex

76.

The combination of pyrimethamine with sulfadoxine has synergistic antimalarial effects through the sequential blockade of 2 steps in folic acid synthesis. How does pyrimethamine exhibit its action?

a)

By inhibiting the enzyme dihydropteroate synthase

b)

By forming quinoline-quinone metabolites, which are electron-transferring redox compounds that act as cellular oxidants

c)

By inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase enzyme

d)

By inhibiting the action of heme polymerase, which causes the buildup of toxic heme in plasmodium species

77.

Benzylpenicillin is also known as:

a)

Penicillin G

b)

Penicillin V

c)

Oxacillin

d)

Ampicillin

78.

Which of the following is metabolized in the food vacuole of the parasite forming toxic free radicals and is the standards of care for all chloroquine-resistant malaria?

a)

Pyrimethamine

b)

Atovaquone

c)

Doxycycline

d)

Artemisinin

79.

The drug most effective against malarial parasites in the liver but not effective against parasites within erythrocytes:

a)

Primaquine

b)

Pyrimethamine

c)

Quinacrine

d)

Chloraquine

80.

Which of the following is the mechanism of action for Cycloserine?

a)

Inhibits Oxygen dependent mycolic acid synthesis

b)

Inhibits ara binosyl transferase enzymes that are involved in cell wall synthesis of arabinogalactan

c)

Inhibits bacterial DNA-dependent RNA synthesis inhibition

d)

Inhibits D-alanine racemase and D-alanyl-D-alanine synthetase to prevent bacterial cell wall synthesis

81.

Drugs which act on ERYTHROCYCTIC cycle of malarial parasite:

a)

Will not be clinically effective

b)

Will be effective for radical cure

c)

Will be effective for suppressive prophylaxis

d)

Will both be effective for prophylaxis and as a radical cure

82.

A drug combined together with trimethoprim synergistically to treat infections such as PNEUMOCYSTIS CARINII pneumonia, nocardiosis and severe traveler's diarrhea. What is the structure of this drug?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

83.

The common side effect associated with the structure below is:

a)

Gray baby syndrome

b)

Teeth discoloration and bone growth inhibition

c)

Red man syndrome

d)

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

84.

A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency room with headache, stiff neck, and fever for 2 days and is diagnosed with meningitis. Which is the best choice for the treatment of meningitis for this patient?

a)

Cefazolin

b)

Cefdinir

c)

Cefotaxime

d)

Cefuroxime

85.

Most phototoxic fluoroquinolone:

a)

Lomefloxacin

b)

Sparfloxacin

c)

Ciprofloxacin

d)

Gatifloxacin

86.

A group of college students are traveling to chloroquine resistant malaria area for a mission trip. Which of the following medications can be used for both prevention and treatment of malaria in these students?

a)

Pyrimethamine

b)

Artemisinin

c)

Atovaquone + Prooguanil

d)

Melarsoprol

87.

Which of the following is a common structural feature of quinoline- containing anti-malarial drugs?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

88.

Suramin is a bisurea derivative containing _____ sulfonic acid groups

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

89.

What is the old active ingredient of Kwell?

a)

Lindane

b)

Permethrin

c)

Crotamition

d)

Benzyl benzoate

90.

A 55-year-old female presents to the hospital with shortness of breath, fever and malaise. She has a history of breast cancer, which was diagnosed 3 months ago, and has been treated with chemotherapy . Her chest x-ray shows respiratory cultures are positive for Aspergilus fumigatus. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate choice for the treatment?

a)

Voriconazole

b)

Fluconazole

c)

Flucytosine

d)

Ketoconazole

91.

Macrolide antibiotics have these common characteristics:

a)

I, III, AND IV

b)

I, II, III, AND IV

c)

I AND III

d)

II AND IV

92.

A type of anti-fungal drug that interferes with fungal ergosterol biosynthesis at an early stage by epoxidation of squalene catalyzed by squalene epoxidase in which this enzyme will be inhibited that causes accumulation of squalene which will damage the fungal cell membrane

a)

Azoles

b)

Echonocandins

c)

Allylamines

d)

Polyenes

93.

All of the following statements are TRUE about penicillins, EXCEPT:

a)

They are obtained from the genus of streptomyces

b)

Piperacillin and ticarcillin have activity against Pseudomonas species

c)

The addition of Clavulanic acid to Amoxicillin preparations protects the drug from beta-lactamases

d)

Use of any penicillin is contraindicated in a patient who has an allergic reaction to any one penicillin

94.

Which of the following structure stops the growth of bacteria by allosterically binding to the 30S prokaryotic ribosomal unit during protein synthesis

a)

A

b)

B

95.

Which among the given structure is likely to cause cinchonism?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

96.

Beta-Lactamase inhibitor:

a)

Clavulanic acid

b)

Tazobactam

c)

Sulbactam

d)

All of the choices

97.

Cycloserine can be isolated from the following Streptomyces species, EXCEPT:

a)

STRETOMYCES ORCHIDACEUS

b)

STREPTOMYCES NODOSUS

c)

STREPTOMYCES GARYPHALUS

d)

STREPTOMYCES LAVENDULUS

98.

A glycopeptide antibiotic isolated from STREPTOMYCES ORIENTALIS:

a)

Bacitracin

b)

Vancomycin

c)

D-cycloserine

d)

Valinomycin

99.

Kirsty has recently suffered burn infections in her legs due to an accident. She was prescribed to take a sulfonamide to prevent and treat such infection. What do you think is the sulfonamide prescribed?

a)

TMP-SMX

b)

Sulfacetamide Sodium

c)

Silver sulfadiazine

d)

Dapsone

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