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Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which structure listed contains cerebrospinal fluid?

a)

posterior median sulcus

b)

epidural space

c)

foramen magnum

d)

subarachnoid space

e)

subdural space

2.

Which layer of protective connective tissue covers a nerve and fuses with the outer menix layer?

a)

Endoneurium

b)

Dura Mater

c)

Epineurium

d)

Perineurium

e)

Pai Mater

3.

What parts of a neuron within a nerve is/are wrapped in a protective endoneurium?

1. Myelinated axon

2. Unmyelinated axon

3. Dendrites

a)

1 Only

b)

2 Only

c)

3 Only

d)

Both 1 and 2

e)

1,2 and 3

4.

Sensory information travels to the brain via

a)

Anterior Roots

b)

Descending Tracts

c)

Direct Motor Pathways

d)

Ascending Tracts

e)

Intergration Tracts

5.

In response to a muscle being stretched, a muscle spindle initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes

1. contraction of the effector muscle.

2. relaxation of the antagonist muscle.

3. contraction of the antagonist muscle.

4. relaxation of the effector muscle.

a)

1 and 3

b)

2 and 4

c)

4 Only

d)

2 Only

e)

1 and 2

6.

In response to a tendon being stretched excessively, a tendon organ initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes

1. contraction of the effector muscle.

2. relaxation of the antagonist muscle.

3. contraction of the antagonist muscle.

4. relaxation of the effector muscle.

a)

3 and 4

b)

3 Only

c)

2 Only

d)

1 and 2

e)

4 Only

7.

Excitation of the quadriceps femoris group and inhibition of the hamstring group is termed ________ innervation.

a)

crossed-extensor

b)

antagonist-effector

c)

reciprocal

d)

Intersegmental

e)

ipsilateral

8.

A typical spinal nerve has how many connections to the spinal cord?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

6

9.

Which branch of a spinal nerve serves the deep muscles and skin of the posterior surface of the trunk?

a)

Meningeal branch

b)

Rami communicantes

c)

Intercostal nerve

d)

Posterior ramus

e)

Anterior ramus

10.

In this diagram which area is continuous with the 4th ventricle of the brain?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

I

d)

J

e)

G

11.

In this diagram which structure is the conus medullaris?

a)

H

b)

E

c)

G

d)

I

e)

F

12.

Which of the nerves in this diagram innervates muscles that extend the toes and if damaged results in foot drop (plantar flexion)?

a)

C

b)

E

c)

F

d)

A

e)

G

13.

An individual suffers a stroke and loses control over their left arm. The individual is affected with________paralysis.

a)

monoplegia

b)

quadriplegia

c)

hemiplegia

d)

paraplegia

e)

diplegia

14.

The spinal cord ends

a)

between L1 and L2

b)

between T9 and T10

c)

at L5

d)

at S5

e)

at T12

15.

The area of the skin that provides sensory input to the CNS via one pair of spinal nerves is called

a)

a microtome

b)

perineurium

c)

a dermatome

d)

a fascicle

e)

an epitome

16.

A severed obturator nerve will lead into paralysis of which region of the body?

a)

Lumbar

b)

Cervical

c)

Arms

d)

Thigh

e)

Thoracic

17.

Which of the following spinal nerves does NOT travel through an intervertebral foramen to reach its destination?

a)

thoracic spinal nerve 12

b)

lumbar spinal nerve 2

c)

cervical spinal nerve 1

d)

sacral spinal nerve 1

e)

cervical spinal nerve 7

18.

Which of the following lists the connective tissue coverings of the axons, fascicles, and entire nerve in the correct order?

a)

endoneurium, perineurium, epineurium

b)

perineurium, epineurium, endoneurium

c)

endoneurium, epineurium, perineurium

d)

epineurium, endoneurium, perineurium

19.

In reciprocal innervation of the tendon reflex stimulation of afferent fibers causes

a)

inhibition of antagonist muscles

b)

excitation of effector muscles

c)

excitation of antagonist muscles

d)

excitation of muscles on the contralateral side

e)

inhibition of effector muscles

20.

A patient is being examined for muscle weakness. To assess their condition, the doctor tests their knee-jerk reflex by tapping the patellar tendon with a reflex hammer and tapping his lower jaw with your finger. Both pathways are considered monosynaptic. What do they have in common?

a)

They are both somatic, autonomic reflexes

b)

They both a two neuron pathway, sensory to motor

c)

The sensory neurons exit the same segment of the spinal cord.

d)

They are both autonomic, cranial reflexes

21.

The brain and spinal cord develop from the ________ neural tube.

a)

Ectodermal

b)

Mesodermal

c)

Medoendodermal

d)

Ectoendodermal

e)

Endodermal

22.

Which of the following brain structures consists of the medulla oblongata, pons, and midbrain?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Diencephalon

d)

Brain stem

e)

Dura mater

23.

Which of the following brain structures consists of the thalamus, hypothalamus and epithalamus?

a)

Brain stem

b)

Diencephalon

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Cerebrum

e)

Dura mater

24.

The periosteal and meningeal layer are part of the

a)

Cranial pia mater

b)

Cranial dura mater

c)

Spinal arachnoid mater

d)

Cranial arachnoid mater

e)

Spinal dura mater

25.

Which region of the brain contains the pontine respiratory group that helps control breathing?

a)

Pons

b)

Medulla oblongata

c)

Thalamus

d)

Midbrain

e)

Cerebellum

26.

Which portion of the cerebellum contributes to equilibrium and balance?

a)

Anterior lobe

b)

Tentorium cerebelli

c)

Transverse fissure

d)

Flocculonodular lobe

e)

Posterior lobe

27.

During brain development, the gyri of the cerebrum are formed because

a)

the white matter enlarges faster than the overlying gray matter.

b)

the cerebral cortex folds to fit within the cranium.

c)

the tracts must be fully formed before gray matter can develop

d)

the oligodendrocytes cannot myelinate neurons quickly

e)

the gray matter grows faster than the underlying white matter.

28.

Which of the following conducts nerve impulses between the two cerebral hemispheres?

a)

Commissural tracts

b)

Septum pellucidum

c)

Basal nuclei

d)

Association tracts

e)

Projection tracts

29.

Which functional area of the cerebrum is responsible for perception of touch, coldness, and warmth?

a)

Broca’s area

b)

Primary visual area

c)

Common integrative area

d)

Prefrontal cortex area

e)

Primary somatosensory area

30.

Which functional area of the cerebrum is responsible for the ability to form words?

a)

Broca’s area

b)

Primary visual area

c)

Common integrative area

d)

Primary olfactory area

e)

Primary somatosensory area

31.

Which cranial nerves control movements of the eyeball?

a)

optic (II) nerve, oculomotor (III) nerve, and trochlear (IV) nerve

b)

olfactory (I) nerve, trigeminal (V) nerve, and vagus (X) nerve

c)

oculomotor (III) nerve, glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve, and trigeminal (V) nerve

d)

oculomotor (III) nerve, trochlear (IV) nerve, and abducens (VI) nerve

e)

vagus (X) nerve, accessory (XI) nerve, and hypoglossal (XII) nerve

32.

A patient shows no effect when the doctor shines a light in the right eye, but shining a light into the left eye causes both pupils (right and left) to constrict. This could be caused by a lesion on the ________ nerve.

a)

optic

b)

throchlear

c)

trigeminal

d)

facial

33.

Hand preference when writing or throwing is an example of

a)

cranial nerve damage.

b)

hemispheric lateralization.

c)

damage to the olfactory nerve.

d)

damage to Broca’s area.

34.

An electroencephalogram (EEG) measures brain waves primarily generated by

a)

neurons in the pons.

b)

neurons in the medulla oblongata.

c)

neurons in the thalamus.

d)

neurons in the cerebral cortex.

e)

neurons in the cerebellum.

35.

Which type of brain wave occurs at regular intervals when a person is awake but not when a person is sleeping?

a)

Alpha waves

b)

Beta waves

c)

Theta waves

d)

Delta waves

e)

All of the selections are correct

36.

Brain waves that generally appear during periods of sensory input and mental activity are called

a)

alpha waves

b)

beta waves

c)

theta waves

d)

delta waves

e)

P waves

37.

Brain waves that appear during deep sleep are called

a)

alpha waves

b)

beta waves

c)

theta waves

d)

delta waves

e)

P waves

38.

Which part of the cerebrum is found deep to the other parts and thus cannot be observed from the surface?

a)

occipital

b)

temporal

c)

parietal

d)

insula

e)

frontal

39.

A common type of disabling senile dementia that results in progressive loss of intellectual ability, is called

a)

Alzheimer disease.

b)

Agnosia

c)

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.

d)

Transient ischemic attack syndrome.

e)

Prosopagnosia.

40.

An individual cannot feel tactile sensation on the right side of the face. A lesion could be in which brain stem region?

a)

Medulla oblongata

b)

Pons

c)

Midbrain

d)

Tectum

41.

The largest autonomic plexus is called the

a)

superior mesenteric plexus.

b)

hypogastric plexus.

c)

cardiac plexus.

d)

celiac plexus.

e)

renal plexus.

42.

The two main neurotransmitters of the autonomic nervous system are

a)

norepinephrine and acetylcholine.

b)

adrenaline and acetylcholine.

c)

norepinephrine and dopamine.

d)

acetylcholine and dopamine.

e)

noradrenaline and adrenaline.

43.

Cholinergic receptors include

a)

adrenergic and nicotinic receptors

b)

nicotinic and adrenergic receptors

c)

alpha, beta, and nicotinic receptors

d)

nicotinic and muscarinic receptors

e)

muscarinic, alpha, and beta receptors

44.

Autonomic tone is regulated by the

a)

hypothalamus.

b)

medulla oblongata.

c)

cerebrum.

d)

cerebellum.

e)

vermis.

45.

Jennifer is at a stoplight and begins to accelerate into traffic when the light turns green. She stops suddenly as a truck runs the red light and is only a few inches away from her front bumper. Which effect would you NOT expect to see in Jennifer's body?

a)

Increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine

b)

Increased heart rate

c)

Increased pupil diameter

d)

Airway dilation

e)

Increased secretion of digestive juices

46.

Which sympathetic ganglion supplies the stomach with postganglionic neurons?

a)

Renal ganglion

b)

Superior cervical ganglion

c)

Celiac ganglion

d)

Inferior mesenteric ganglion

e)

Ciliary ganglion

47.

Parasympathetic innervation of the liver occurs through

a)

oculomotor (III) nerve

b)

facial (VII) nerve

c)

pelvic splanchnic nerve.

d)

glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve

e)

vagus (X) nerve

48.

A doctor makes an injection of medication to relieve upper abdominal pain due to chronic pancreatitis. What area in the diagram is the nerve block targeting?

a)

C

b)

D

c)

M

d)

F

e)

B

49.

________ is characterized by an exaggerated response of the sympathetic division of the ANS that occurs in most individuals with spinal cord injury at or above T6.

a)

Reflex sympathetic dystrophy

b)

Autonomic dysreflexia

c)

Horner’s Syndrome

d)

Raynaud’s phenomenon

e)

Diabetic neuropathy

50.

Which disorder is a type of neuropathy often caused by long term diabetes mellitus?

a)

Autonomic dysreflexia

b)

Reflex sympathetic dystrophy

c)

Diabetic neuropathy

d)

Raynaud’s phenomenon

e)

Horner’s Syndrome

51.

Which disorder involves the loss of sympathetic innervation to one side of the face due to inherited mutation, injury, or disease?

a)

Reflex sympathetic dystrophy

b)

Diabetic neuropathy

c)

Autonomic dysreflexia

d)

Horner’s Syndrome

e)

Raynaud’s phenomenon

52.

Thoracolumbar is another name for which division of ANS?

a)

Sympathetic nervous system

b)

Parasympathetic nervous system

c)

Central nervous system

d)

Somatic nervous system

e)

Peripheral nervous system

53.

Which of the following lists the components of an autonomic reflex arc in the proper sequence of activation?

a)

receptor – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – effector

b)

receptor – motor neuron – integrating center – sensory neuron – effector

c)

integrating center – receptor – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector

d)

receptor – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector – integrating center

e)

effector – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – receptor

54.

One of the main differences between a somatic reflex and autonomic reflex is the type of effectors that are activated. The effectors in somatic reflexes are ________, while the effectors in autonomic reflexes are _____.

a)

glands; skeletal muscles, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle

b)

skeletal muscles; smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

c)

striated muscles; smooth muscle and glands

d)

smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands; skeletal muscles

e)

skeletal muscles and glands; smooth muscle and cardiac muscle

55.

Which of the following regions of the brain serve as the major control and integration center of the ANS?

a)

pituitary

b)

thalamus

c)

cerebrum

d)

hypothalamus

e)

cerebellulum

56.

If a doctor administers atropine IV, a muscarinic antagonist, followed by a high dose of ACh, you still see an increase in heart rate. Where is the ACh acting?

a)

Muscarinic receptors of the postganglionic sympathetic neuron causing NE release to the heart, increasing heartrate.

b)

Nicotinic receptors of the postganglionic sympathetic neuron causing NE release to the heart, increasing heartrate.

c)

Nicotinic receptors of the postganglionic parasympathetic neuron preventing ACh release to the heart, increasing heartrate

d)

Nicotinic receptors of the postganglionic parasympathetic neuron causing ACh release to the heart, increasing heartrate

57.

Olfactory epithelium is found

a)

only in the mid-nasal ridges.

b)

only in the inferior portion of the nasal cavity.

c)

from the vestibule to the pharynx.

d)

only in the superior portion of the nasal cavity.

e)

throughout the nasal cavity.

58.

Which papillae increase surface area but do not aid in direct gustation?

a)

Fungiform

b)

Circumvallate

c)

Vallate

d)

Foliate

e)

Filiform

59.

Pink eye is an infection of the thin mucous membrane that protects the inner aspect of the eyelids and the anterior portion of the sclera. What membrane is involved?

a)

Palpebral fissure

b)

Conjunctiva

c)

Lateral commissure

d)

Cornea

e)

Choroid

60.

How many extrinsic eye muscles are responsible for moving each eye?

a)

20

b)

4

c)

12

d)

10

e)

6

61.

Which is the transparent layer on the anterior of the eyeball through which the iris can be observed?

a)

Sclera

b)

Cornea

c)

Retina

d)

Ciliary Body

e)

Choroid

62.

The ________ regulates the amount of light entering the eyeball through the pupil.

a)

iris

b)

cornea

c)

fovea centralis

d)

lens

e)

retina

63.

________are proteins that make up the refractive portion of the lens.

a)

Ciliary bodies

b)

Collagen

c)

Crystallins

d)

Keratin

e)

Elastin

64.

What lies between the lens and the retina?

a)

Vitreous chamber

b)

Aqueous humor

c)

Anterior chamber

d)

Cornea

e)

Anterior cavity

65.

What ear structure vibrates back and forth when sound waves strike?

a)

cochlea

b)

tympanic membrane

c)

pinna

d)

vestibulocochlear nerve

e)

spiral organ

66.

Dynamic equilibrium is maintained by the

a)

spiral organ.

b)

cochlea.

c)

utricle and saccule.

d)

vestibule.

e)

semicircular canals.

67.

In the retina diagram, where is the bipolar cell layer?

a)

C

b)

A

c)

D

d)

B

68.

The second order neurons of the olfactory pathway are in which region of the diagram?

a)

I

b)

C

c)

B

d)

K

e)

A

69.

How many days after fertilization do the eyes begin to develop?

a)

55

b)

150

c)

5

d)

10

e)

22

70.

During embryonic development, the first portion of the ear to develop is the

a)

external ear.

b)

bony labyrinth.

c)

membranous labyrinth.

d)

internal ear.

e)

middle ear.

71.

How many days after fertilization do the ears begin to develop?

a)

55

b)

150

c)

5

d)

22

e)

10

72.

Presbycusis refers to age-associated

a)

progressive loss of hearing in both ears.

b)

otitis media.

c)

progressive loss of hearing in one ear.

d)

progressive loss of vision.

e)

vertigo.

73.

Cataract leads to blindness due to

a)

a high intraocular pressure.

b)

scotoma.

c)

trachoma.

d)

photophobia.

e)

loss of transparency of the lens.

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