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Entrepreneurship Final

Total questions: 106

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which is not a function of management (EN,BC,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8)

a)

control

b)

plan

c)

finance

d)

organize

2.

What are the four components of the business process? (EN,BC,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8)

a)

production, marketing, management, finance

b)

sales, marketing, public relations, finance

c)

consumer, product, development, profit

d)

control, plan, e-commerce, recall

3.

Public businesses are motivated to earn a profit? (EN,BC,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8)

a)

true

b)

false

4.

A small business may also be referred to as a "mom and pop" business? (EN,BC,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8)

a)

true

b)

false

5.

________________________ decides what needs to be done and how it will be accomplished (EN,BC,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8)

a)

planning

b)

development

c)

organization

d)

control

6.

What is 5% of 20? (EN,BM, 1,2,3,4,5,6,7)

a)

1

b)

2

c)

5

d)

10

7.

0.02 is read as _____. (EN,BM, 1,2,3,4,5,6,7)

a)

2 tens

b)

2 hundreds

c)

2 tenths

d)

2 hundredths

8.

At a movie premiere, the number of children, men and women who attended were in the ratio 2:3:4. If 236 children watched the premiere, how many persons were in the audience? (EN,BM, 1,2,3,4,5,6,7)

a)

826

b)

1500

c)

980

d)

1062

9.

What is 2/3 of 12? (EN,BM, 1,2,3,4,5,6,7)

a)

4

b)

6

c)

8

d)

7

10.

20% of what number is 16? (EN,BM, 1,2,3,4,5,6,7)

a)

80

b)

3.2

c)

15\frac{1}{5}

d)

0.20

11.

Maria assembled widgets M-F as follows: 23, 34, 52, 47, 31

She gets paid P4.25 per widget. How much did she get paid? (EN,BM, 1,2,3,4,5,6,7)

a)

P794.75

b)

P748

c)

P770

d)

P765

12.

Emily is a baker. She bakes 24 loaves of bread, and places them into 4 bags. How many loaves are in each bag? (EN,BM, 1,2,3,4,5,6,7)

a)

48

b)

60

c)

6

d)

4

13.

What is Body Language? (EN CS, 1,2,3,4)

a)

Postures, gestures, and facial expressions.

b)

The exchange of information through the use of words.

c)

Your words say one thing but your body language say another.

d)

Speak from your point of view.

14.

Good listening skills include what? (EN CS, 1,2,3,4)

a)

Smiling and waving at people

b)

Yelling loud at people

c)

Writing in slang.

d)

None the above.

15.

Three Styles of Communication (EN CS, 1,2,3,4)

a)

Aggressive, Active Listening, communication

b)

Passive, “I” Messages, Assertive

c)

Aggressive, passive, and assertive

d)

None of the above

16.

When a person states his/her position in a firm but positive manner is (EN CS, 1,2,3,4)

a)

Aggressive

b)

Assertive

c)

Passive

d)

None of the above

17.

A situation in which your words say one thing but your body language says another is (EN CS, 1,2,3,4)

a)

An “I” Message

b)

A mixed message

c)

Body Language

d)

Active listening

18.

A person that is overly forceful, pushy, hostile or otherwise attacking in approach is known as (EN CS, 1,2,3,4)

a)

Asserive

b)

Active listener

c)

Aggressive

d)

Passive

19.

Which of the following is considered a speaking skill? (EN CS, 1,2,3,4)

a)

Make clear, simple statements

b)

Paying attention

c)

Rereading your words before you send a message

20.

Two types of communication are: (EN CS, 1,2,3,4)

a)

Verbs and Nouns

b)

Verbal and information

c)

Verbal and non-verbal

d)

Happy and sad

21.

1. The term “Entrepreneur” has been derived from the word “entreprendre” which means: (EN ES 1)

a)

a. To give

b)

b. To undertake

c)

c. To choose

d)

d. To decide

22.

3. What is the hallmark of a successful entrepreneur? (EN ES 1)

a)

a. Risk bearing capacity

b)

b. Persistence

c)

c. Flexibility

d)

d. Self-confidence

23.

Which of the following is used by entrepreneurs to acquire experience in an international market before making a major commitment?(EN ES 1)

a)

a) Merger

b)

b) Minority Interest

c)

c) Joint venture

d)

d) Majority interest

24.

Having less than 50 percent of equity share in an international venture is called:(EN ES 1)

a)

a) Joint Venture

b)

b) Majority interest

c)

c) Minority interest

d)

d) Exporting

25.

Which one of the following is the process of entrepreneurs developing new products that over time make current products obsolete?(EN ES 1)

a)

a) New business model

b)

b) Anatomization

c)

c) None of the given options

d)

d) Creative destruction

26.

4. Which type of entrepreneurs utilizes a chance to introduce a new technique or new product? (EN ES 1)

a)

a. Innovative entrepreneur

b)

b. Instigated entrepreneur

c)

c. Initiative entrepreneur

d)

d. Fabian entrepreneur

27.

Which of the following is a remedy to solve the problems of women entrepreneurs? (EN ES 1)

a)

a. Social attitude

b)

b. Finance cells

c)

c. Stiff Competition

d)

d. Supervision

28.

What can be defined as an attractive project idea which an entrepreneur accepts as a basis for his investment decision? (EN ES 1)

a)

a. Possibility

b)

b. Business

c)

c. Opportunity

d)

d. Notion

29.

Ownership capital is also known as? (EN ES 1)

a)

a. Debt

b)

b. Equity

c)

c. Loan

d)

d. Mortgage

30.

When dealing with disputes you refer to IPR what is it? (EN ES 1)

a)

a. Industrial Policy Resolutions

b)

b. Industrial Protection Resolutions

c)

c. Independent Policy Reforms

d)

d. Income Plan Rewards

31.

Which form of growth of the business is diversification? (EN ES 1)

a)

a. External

b)

b. Vertical

c)

c. Horizontal

d)

d. Internal

32.

An optimum capital structure can be defined as a financing mix incurring the ___ cost but yielding the ___ results. (EN ES 1)

a)

a. Least & maximum

b)

b. Maximum & least

c)

c. Least & minimum

d)

d. Maximum & minimum

33.

Good sources of information for an entrepreneur about competitors can be obtained from_________. (EN ES 1)

a)

A. Websites.

b)

B. Product information leaflets.

c)

C. Company reports and published accounts.

d)

D. All the above.

34.

Entrepreneurs are motivated by _________. (EN ES 1)

a)

A. money.

b)

B. personal values.

c)

C. pull influences.

d)

D. All the above.

35.

State of confusion about what is ethically right or wrong. (EN E 1,2,3,4)

(a)  

36.

Which out of these are benefits of ethics in business? (EN E 1,2,3,4)

a)

High employee morale

b)

Good public image

c)

High employee turnover

d)

Low market reputation

37.

Listen to the audio and identify which product advertisement does this audio belong to? (EN E 1,2,3,4)

a)

Pepsi

b)

KFC

c)

Cadbury Silk

d)

Adidas

38.

Integrity in business means (EN E 1,2,3,4)

a)

To be honest and forthright with one another and with customers, communities, suppliers, and other stakeholders.

b)

To say what you mean, to deliver what you promise, and to stand up for what is right.

c)

To obey all laws of the countries where you do business

d)

To treat others with dignity and fairness

39.

Below are the areas concerning of ethics in businesses, EXCEPT? (EN E 1,2,3,4)

a)

Honest

b)

Friendship

c)

Citizenship

d)

Integrity

40.

The following are the examples of environmental issues associated with businesses ethics, EXCEPT? (EN E 1,2,3,4)

a)

Air pollution

b)

Water pollutions

c)

Unsafe workplace

d)

Toxic waste disposal

41.

The importance of ethics in entrepreneurship are include (EN E 1,2,3,4)

a)

attract employees to the firm's products and boosting the sales and profit

b)

make customers want to stay with the company and reduce turnover.

c)

attract investors and keep the company's share price high

d)

none of the above

42.

which of the following not to improve ethics in entrepreneurship? (EN E 1,2,3,4)

a)

Respect

b)

Integrity

c)

oriented

d)

All of the above

43.

Gross profit is calculated by... (ENT FIS 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

Revenue - Total Costs

b)

Revenue + Variable Costs

c)

Revenue - Cost of Sales

d)

Revenue - Fixed Costs

44.

Cost of sales is calculated by... (ENT FIS 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

Opening stock + purchases - closing stock

b)

Opening stock + purchases + closing stock

c)

Adding up all of the stock bought during the year

d)

Opening stock - closing stock

45.

Which of the following are different terms for fixed costs? (ENT FIS 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

Expenses

b)

Expenditure

c)

Overheads

d)

Indirect costs

46.

Which of the following are different terms for variable costs? (ENT FIS 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

Direct costs

b)

Indirect costs

c)

Materials

d)

Cost of sales

47.

How do you calculate net profit? (ENT FIS 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

Gross profit - expenses

b)

Revenue - total costs

c)

Gross profit - variable costs

d)

Revenue - indirect costs

48.

COGS stands for (ENT FIS 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

cost of goods sales

b)

cost of goods serviced

c)

cost of goods sold

49.

Examples may include salaries, utilities, rent, insurance, and office supplies. (ENT FIS 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)
Revenue
b)
Expense
c)
Net Income
d)
Net Loss
50.

Revenue = 1000

Cost of Goods Sold = 200

Expenses = 300

Gross Profit = ? (ENT FIS 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

800

b)

500

c)

700

d)

300

51.

Revenue = 1000

Cost of Goods Sold = 200

Expenses = 300

Net Profit = ? (ENT FIS 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

800

b)

500

c)

700

d)

300

52.

Net Profit = 500

Revenue = 2000

Expenses = 1000

Cost of Goods Sold = ? (ENT FIS 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

1500

b)

1000

c)

3000

d)

500

53.

Risk management is understood to be an executive function. (ENT LRM 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8)

a)

True

b)

False

54.

The goal a company wants to achieve with its risk management strategy must be compatible with the overall business objectives. (ENT LRM 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8)

a)

True

b)

False

55.

This step contains the risk politics of the organization, order and liability. (ENT LRM 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8)

(a)  

56.

The (a)   is a regulation which passed the US Congress in 2002 as a reaction to different financial scandals. (ENT LRM 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8)

57.

Classical risks which can be strategic, financial and operational nature or concern the legal environment, so-called (a)   must be all considered. (ENT LRM 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8)

58.

(a)   shows a very generally held base which tries to consider all the different risk within an organization. (ENT LRM 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8)

59.

Give the three guides were published for the successful application of the ISO 31000. (ENT LRM 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8)

4 lines
60.

Company's strategy and culture is nothing to do in risk management. (ENT LRM 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8)

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Emerging risks are global risks. (ENT LRM 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8)

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Strategy Audit is included in Internal Control System of ERM. (ENT LRM 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8)

a)

True

b)

False

63.

What term refers to people that are responsible for running a business? (ENT M 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)
Stockholders
b)
Officers
c)
Management
64.

How many functions of management do most managers carry out? (ENT M 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)
Two
b)
Three
c)
Four
d)
One
65.

Planning, organizing, leading, and controlling are the four __________ of management. (ENT M 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)
Characteristics
b)
Functions
c)
Objectives
66.

Which function of management involves reviewing the performance of employees? (ENT M 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)
Organizing
b)
Planning
c)
Leading
d)
Controlling
67.

How would you classify a manager that's in charge of a department? (ENT M 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)
Top-Level Manager
b)
Operational Manager
c)
Middle Manager
d)
Low-Level Manager
68.

Which function of management involves creating goals, objectives, and ways to achieve them? (ENT M 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)
Organizing
b)
Planning
c)
Controlling
d)
Leading
69.

Name the function of management that involves monitoring how the business is performing. (ENT M 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)
Leading
b)
Controlling
c)
Planning
d)
Organizing
70.

Who makes the decisions that middle managers carry out? (ENT M 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)
Operational Managers
b)
Top-Level Managers
71.

Which function of management requires leaders to provide a direction and vision for a business? (ENT M 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)
Leading
b)
Planning
c)
Organizing
d)
Controlling
72.

What management function involves monitoring customer satisfaction? (ENT M 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)
Planning
b)
Leading
c)
Organizing
d)
Controlling
73.

Pieces of information collected directly by an individual or organization. (ENT MR 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

Databa

b)

Focus

c)

Primary Data

d)

Social Trend

74.

A group that includes a cross section of the entire population that is targeted. (ENT MR 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

Marketing research

b)

Data

c)

Secondary data

d)

Representative sampling

75.

Provides insight into what people think about a topic. Comes from research questions that require judgement, instead of "yes or no" answers. (ENT MR 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

Qualitative data

b)

Market research

c)

Quantitative data

d)

Database

76.

Facts and figures from which conclusions can be drawn. (ENT MR 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

Qualitative data

b)

Market research

c)

Quantitative data

d)

Database

77.

A group of people brought together to discuss a specific topic. Usually consist of 6-9 people (ENT MR 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

Observation

b)

Interview

c)

Focus group

d)

Survey

78.

A set of questions posed to a group of people to determine how that group thinks. (ENT MR 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

Observation

b)

Interview

c)

Focus Group

d)

Survey

79.

Information, statistics, or other type of data that already exists. Someone has already collected the information, but others can use it. (ENT MR 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

Market research

b)

Primary data

c)

Variable

d)

Secondary data

80.

A pattern of change in consumer behavior that leads to changes in the marketing mix. Often combines research on customers, competition, and possible opportunities. (ENT MR 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

Primary

b)

Marketing trend

c)

Secondary data

d)

Focus group

81.

The patterns of change in society as a whole. They often lead to changes in consumer behavior. (ENT MR 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

Marketing trend

b)

Secondary Data

c)

Observation

d)

Social trend

82.

Gathering, storing, and using customer data for marketing directly to customers based on their histories. (ENT MR 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

Marketing information system

b)

Database marketing

c)

Quali

d)

Quantitative data

83.

Searching through large amounts of digital data to find useful patterns or trends. (ENT MR 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

Raw data

b)

Follow-up

c)

Data analysis

d)

Data mining

84.

The quality of providing consistent and dependable measurement and results. (ENT MR 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

Validity

b)

Order bias

c)

Reliability

d)

Data mining

85.

The extent to which questions address the intended marketing-research topics. (ENT MR 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

Validity

b)

Order bias

c)

Reliability

d)

Data mining

86.

The skewing of results caused by the order in which questions are placed in a survey. It happens if answer choices for questions are not rotated among all surveys given. (ENT MR 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

Reliability

b)

Validity

c)

Order bias

d)

Data mining

87.

Gathering and analyzing information to help make sound marketing decisions. (ENT MR 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

Data

b)

Marketing Research

c)

Primary Date

d)

Survey

88.

What roles do promotions play in marketing? (ENT MP 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

Persuade

b)

Inform

c)

Remind

d)

The three roles that promotion plays in marketing are to inform, persuade, and remind consumers about products and services.

89.

Which is true of Interpersonal Communications? (ENT MP 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

Highly targeted

b)

It can be inefficient & costly

c)

Frequently used in business-to-business marketing

d)

All of the above

90.

Influencer marketing is a form of social media marketing involving endorsements and product placement from influencers, people and organizations who have a purported expert level of knowledge or social influence in their field (ENT MP 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Consumer promotions are all around us in the form of "coupons, percent-off discounts, free trials and samples, buy one get one free deals, rebates, premiums, ad specialties, and contests and sweepstakes (ENT MP 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

True

b)

False

92.

Consumer Promotions are intended to build brand awareness. (ENT MP 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

True

b)

False

93.

What is NOT true about public relations? (ENT MP 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

You do NOT pay for it

b)

It can be positive or negative.  You DO NOT control it.

c)

The public tends to believe that information from PR is a trusted and reliable resource.

d)

Public Relations is all about sales.

94.

What is NOT an example of public relations? (ENT MP 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

Media & Press Kit

b)

Event Marketing

c)

Celebrity Endorsements

d)

Guerilla Marketing

95.

Slotting Allowances do NOT pay for: (ENT MP 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

TV Spots

b)

Penalties for poor sales

c)

Store advertising

d)

Display costs

96.

Which is NOt true about direct mail? (ENT MP 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)

a)

Electronic or Printed

b)

Cost of production

c)

Some may not open the mail

d)

Always successful

97.

Operations Management is a _________ process: (ENT POM 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15)

a)

Translation

b)

Transformation

c)

Transaction

d)

Transition

98.

Which of these Managers would be least likely to be considered in an operations management role within an organization?: (ENT POM 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15)

a)

Production Manager

b)

Reservations Manager

c)

Financial Risk Manager

d)

Quality Manager

99.

Which of these would an operations manager not be responsible for?: (ENT POM 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15)

a)

Safety and maintenance

b)

Sales and marketing

c)

Selecting suppliers

d)

Recruiting employees

100.

Which of these statements accurately captures a current trend in operations? (ENT POM 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15)

a)

Cost competition is more important than any other basis for competition

b)

There is increased focus on local markets and local competition.

c)

Products and services are designed more quickly and by teams.

d)

Jobs are increasingly specialized as workers focus on basic assembly tasks

101.

Productivity increases when : (ENT POM 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15)

a)

Outputs decrease while inputs remain the same.

b)

Inputs and outputs increase proportionately.

c)

Inputs decrease while outputs remain the same.

d)

Inputs increase while outputs remain the same.

102.

Which one of the following would not generally be considered an aspect of operations management? (ENT POM 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15)

a)

Work methods

b)

Secure financial resources

c)

Maintain quality

d)

Product or service design

103.

Which one of the following is not a typical question dealt with by an operations managers? (ENT POM 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15)

a)

How much capacity will be needed in the months ahead?

b)

What is a satisfactory location for a new facility?

c)

Which products/services should be offered?

d)

How to motivate employees?

104.

Which of the following would NOT normally be considered a general characteristic of a service? (ENT POM 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15)

a)

Production and consumption can always be spatially separated.

b)

Low contact services can often be made more efficient than high contact services.

c)

Production and consumption are simultaneous.

d)

Many services involve both tangible and intangible outputs.

105.

The dominant operation for a bank is: (ENT POM 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15)

a)

Processing complaints

b)

Processing materials

c)

Processing information

d)

Processing customers

106.

The first step in choosing a location for a service facility involves answering which of the following questions?: (ENT POM 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15)

a)

What is the purpose of the service and how will success be measured?

b)

How many facilities will be constructed?

c)

Are the potential sites limited due to access, zoning restrictions, labor availability…?

d)

All of the above questions must be asked.