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AI Business Paper 2 Quiz

Total questions: 103

Worksheet time: 26hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following calculations would you use to find total costs?

a)

Fixed Costs + Variable Costs

b)

Selling Price – Fixed Costs

c)

Total Fixed Costs / Selling Price – Variable Cost

d)

Total Fixed Costs/Variable Cost Per Item

2.

If there was a rise in variable costs what effect would this have on the break even chart?

a)

total cost line pivots downwards

b)

fixed cost line and total cost line move upwards in a parallel shift

c)

total cost line pivots upwards

d)

revenue line pivots upwards

3.

If there was a fall in fixed costs what impact would this have on the break-even output?

a)

smaller output is necessary to break-even

b)

break-even is achieved at a lower level of output

c)

greater output necessary to break-even

d)

break-even is reached at a higher level of output

4.

On a break-even chart, what line does the total revenue line meet at the break-even point?

a)

The fixed cost line

b)

The variable cost line

c)

The total cost line

d)

Semi variable cost line

5.

If average variable cost is £10, and average selling price is £25, then what is contribution?

a)

£35

b)

£15

c)

£-15

d)

£40

6.

If the average variable costs £10, average selling price is £25 and fixed costs are £60,000, then what is the break-even output?

a)

5000

b)

7000

c)

6000

d)

4000

7.

What is a business doing when it sells output beyond the break-even point?

a)

Making a loss

b)

Making a profit

c)

Making neither a profit or loss

d)

It is not possible to tell from the graph

8.

What is the break-even point in units for company where total fixed costs are £275,450

selling price per units £16

variable cost per unit is £14.75

a)

220,360

b)

183,633

c)

150,300

d)

225,120

9.

What is the margin of safety?

a)

The difference between units sold and the break-even amount

b)

The margin between units and sales

c)

The margin between each break-even point

d)

The margin between profit and loss

10.

The break even level of output for a firm is 800 units and it is currently making 950 units. What is its margin of safety?

a)

150 units

b)

250 units

c)

300 units

d)

1750 units

11.

Two of these formulas are correct for working out the break-even point. Which two

a)

Fixed Costs / Contribution Margin per unit

b)

Total Costs - Fixed Costs x variable costs per unit

c)

Fixed Costs / Sales price per unit - variable costs per unit

d)

Contribution Margin per unit / Fixed Costs

12.

Which of the following is a limitation of break-even?

a)

It helps projected sales

b)

It is based on multiple products

c)

It assumes all units produced are sold.

d)

It considers stock wages

13.

We are going to manufacture Whats-Its. The Whats-It machine costs £4000.It also costs £5 for materials and labour for each Whats-It. We are planning to sell our Whats-Its for £12 each. How many Whats-Its must we sell in order to breakeven?

a)

571.42

b)

572

c)

570. 63

d)

571

14.

Purpose of a budget is to:

a)

identify cash in and out flows of a business

b)

determine the actual cash on hand for a previous period

c)

identify revenue earned for the current period

d)

determine expenses incurred for the current period

15.

What is one advantage of preparing a cash budget?

a)

Higher credit rating

b)

Knowing when cash my be idle & can therefore be invested

c)

It makes doing the business annual tax return quicker

d)

It is quick and easy to do

16.

What are the two types of budget we've studied

a)

Temporary

b)

Futuristic

c)

Historical

d)

Zero-based

17.

If a business's costs exceeds it sales revenue, it will experience a ........?

a)

loan

b)

profit

c)

loss

d)

debt

18.
What is the definition of a variable cost?
a)
Costs that vary with output
b)
Costs that do not vary with output
c)
Costs that are always changing
d)
Costs that cannot change
19.
Remembering that revenue means earnings (or income)...what is revenue in the example?
a)
£1
b)
£1.50
c)
£2.50
d)
£5
20.

How do you calculate Gross Profit Margin?

a)

gross profit / sales (revenue) x 100

b)

gross profit x sales (revenue) / 100

c)

gross profit / sales (revenue) / 100

d)

gross profit x sales (revenue) x 100

21.

How do you calculate Net Profit Margin?

a)

net profit / sales (revenue) x 100

b)

net profit x sales (revenue) / 100

c)

net profit / sales (revenue) / 100

d)

net profit x sales (revenue) x 100

22.
Kelly makes and sells quilted blankets out of her home. She charges $50 per blanket.  For each blanket she makes, she must spend $1 on thread, $2 in electricity and $12 on cloth.  This month she made and sold 15 blankets. What is Kelly's total REVENUE?
a)
$25
b)
$225
c)
$375
d)
$750
23.

A Business Has The Following:


Fixed Assets = £6000

Current Assets = £2000

Inventory = £1000

Current Liabilities = £500


Calculate It's Current Ratio

a)

4 : 1

b)

25 : 1

c)

2 : 1

d)

5 : 1

e)

1 : 5

24.

A Business Has The Following:


Fixed Assets = £6000

Current Assets = £2000

Inventory = £1000

Current Liabilities = £500


Calculate It's Acid Test Ratio

a)

4 : 1

b)

25 : 1

c)

2 : 1

d)

5 : 1

e)

1 : 5

25.

A Business Has The Following:


Fixed Assets = £20,000

Current Assets = £4,620

Inventory = £3,321

Current Liabilities = £2,000


Calculate It's Acid-Test Ratio

a)

0.65 : 1

b)

1.45 : 1

c)

0.45 : 1

d)

45 : 1

e)

54 : 1

26.

A Business Has The Following:


Fixed Assets = £12,050

Current Assets = £13,500

Inventory = £6,040

Current Liabilities = £7,000


Calculate It's Acid-Test Ratio

a)

1.07 : 1

b)

1.11 : 1

c)

0.93 : 1

d)

1.02 : 1

e)

0.99 : 1

27.

What is the correct definition of Positive Liquidity

a)

A business has enough cash to pay off their liabilities.

b)

A business does not have enough cash to pay off their liabilities.

c)

A business has enough fixed assets to sell in order to pay off their current liabilities

d)

A business has a greater amount of fixed assets than current assets.

e)

A business has more money going going to creditors than it is receiving from debtors.

28.

What is the correct definition of Poor Liquidity

a)

A business has enough cash to pay off their liabilities.

b)

A business does not have enough cash to pay off their liabilities.

c)

A business has enough fixed assets to sell in order to pay off their current liabilities

d)

A business has a greater amount of fixed assets than current assets.

e)

A business has more money going going to creditors than it is receiving from debtors.

29.

Identify the correct formula for the current ratio.

a)

Current Liabilities / Current Assets

b)

Current Assets / Current Liabilities

c)

Current Liabilities / (Current Assets - Inventory)

d)

(Current Assets - Inventory) / Current Liabilities

30.

Identify the correct formula for the Acid Test Ratio.

a)

Current Liabilities / Current Assets

b)

Current Assets / Current Liabilities

c)

Current Liabilities / (Current Assets - Inventory)

d)

(Current Assets - Inventory) / Current Liabilities

31.

A business has a Acid Test ratio of 0.9 : 1


What does this mean.

a)

For every £1 of current assets they have £0.90 of current liabilities.

b)

For every £1 of current liabilities they have £0.90 of current assets.

c)

For every £1 of current assets less inventories they have £0.90 of current liabilities.

d)

For every £1 of current liabilities they have £0.90 of current assets less inventories.

32.

A business has a acid-test ratio of 1.3 : 1


What does this mean.

a)

For every £1 of current assets they have £1.30 of current liabilities.

b)

For every £1 of current liabilities they have £1.30 of current assets.

c)

For every £1 of current assets less inventories they have £1.30 of current liabilities.

d)

For every £1 of current liabilities they have £1.30 of current assets less inventories.

33.

The maximum output that a process or facility could achieve under normal conditions is called:

a)

Capacity utilisation

b)

Peak Capacity

c)

Effective Capacity

d)

None of the above

34.

Operation at peak capacity involves:

a)

Sustained low utilisation rates

b)

Marginal methods of production

c)

Maximum output under normal conditions

d)

None of the above

35.

A possible disadvantage of operating at very high levels of capacity utilisation is:

a)

Labour productivity is low

b)

Less able to respond to sudden increases in demand

c)

Break-even output will be higher

d)

Cannot invest in new technology

36.

A business policy of permanently reducing production capacity is known as:

a)

Outsourcing

b)

Rationalisation

c)

Redundancies

d)

Depreciation

37.

What is the capacity utilisation rate for a factory that can produce 20,000 units per month with an actual output of 18,000 units per month

a)

90%

b)

80%

c)

111%

d)

20%

38.

a factory that can make 6000 units per week but actually produces 4500 units has a capacity utilisation of

a)

25%

b)

75%

c)

40%

d)

60%

39.

If a business is working at 60% capacity utilisation and is producing 9,000 units, what is its capacity

a)

6,333 units

b)

20,000 units

c)

15,000 units

d)

9,000 units

40.

A disadvantage of a business having significant spare capacity is that:

a)

Higher return on investment in fixed assets

b)

Employees may become de-motivated and bored

c)

Business can respond to sudden increases in demand

d)

Fixed costs are a low percentage of total costs

41.

Which of these could be a useful measure of production efficiency?

a)

Overheads per employee

b)

Output per machine or employee

c)

Total direct production costs

d)

Sales returns per week

42.

When is the capacity utilisation rate for a business likely to fall?

a)

During a prolonged industrial dispute

b)

When there is a sudden increase in demand

c)

During peak trading sessions in the year

d)

When employees are asked to work overtime

43.

Which of the following might result in increased spare capacity?

a)

A major competitor goes bust

b)

Successful response to a marketing campaign

c)

Closure of a surplus production facility

d)

A major product reaches end of product life cycle

44.

What is over-utilisation

a)

When you buy too many raw materials

b)

When you buy too many capital goods

c)

When there are too many workers to employ

d)

When resources are being stretched uncomfortably

45.

How do train companies improve capacity utilisation

a)

Serve food onboard

b)

Charge more during peak times and less during off peak

c)

Run more regular services

d)

Buy more trains

46.

What is the formula for capacity utilisation

a)

Output per worker/Total output

b)

(Maximum possible output/Current Output) *100

c)

(Current output/Maximum possible output) *100

d)

Total output/Output per worker

47.

What is the purpose of performing a SWOT Analysis? (CRE)

a)

Identifies internal and external factors that may affect the business future performance.

b)

Access a organisations performance

c)

Evaluates whether the business venture is a good idea.

d)

Gives the management team a broader view on the potential opportunity

48.

Mr. Jonas discovered that a new competitor has entered the market. At which stage of the SWOT analysis would this discovery probably be made? (ANA)

a)

Analysis of strengths

b)

Analysis of weaknesses

c)

Analysis of opportunities

d)

Analysis of threats

49.

Due to an increase in disposable income (purchasing power) over the last six years, local residents have more money to spend on leisure activities.

a)

Strength

b)

Weakness

c)

Opportunity

d)

Threat

50.

Which option below lists the external factors of a SWOT analysis?

a)

Strengths and Opportunities

b)

Weaknesses and Threats

c)

Weaknesses and Strengths

d)

Threats and Opportunities

51.

Great customer service would be considered a (n)

a)

Strength

b)

Weakness

c)

Opportunity

d)

Threat

52.

When your competitors have access to better channels of distribution, that would be considered a(n)

a)

Strength

b)

Weakness

c)

Opportunity

d)

Threat

53.

Identify an opportunity from the options below:

a)

New market opened up

b)

Minimum wage so higher wages have to be paid

c)

Negative publicity

d)

Good financial situation

54.

Identify a weakness from the following

a)

Overseas demand for a product

b)

Falling number of customers within specific age group

c)

Making a profit

d)

Poor quality goods

55.

Identify a threat from the list below:

a)

New market opened up

b)

Competitor opening a new outlet next to your business

c)

Poor staff training

d)

Expansion overseas

56.
PESTLE Analysis identifies factors that occur within the organisation.
a)
True
b)
False
57.

Which of the following is not an element of Porter’s 5 Forces Model?

a)

The firm’s macroeconomic environment.

b)

The firm’s existing competition.

c)

The bargaining power of suppliers.

d)

The potential competition from new entrants.

58.

In Porter’s five forces model, conditions are more favourable for firms within an industry if:

a)

Buyer power is high

b)

Supplier power is high

c)

Entry threat is low

d)

Substitute threat is high

59.

People appear to be more health conscious. This may create opportunities for some businesses e.g., fitness centres. Which factor is this?

a)

Economical Factors

b)

Social Factors

c)

Environmental Factors

d)

Political Factors

e)

Technological Factors

60.

An increase in Minimum wage may impact a business because…

a)

It will increase profits

b)

It will increase total costs of the business

c)

It will increase consumer products

d)

It will increase customers

61.

Porter’s 5 Forces model helps to do what?

a)

analyze the potential attractiveness and profitability of specific company

b)

analyze the potential attractiveness and profitability of any start-up at any time

c)

analyze the potential attractiveness and profitability of specific industry

d)

analyze the potential attractiveness and profitability of IT start-ups

62.

In case there are many (potential) suppliers, this means that...?

a)

you should regularly change the suppliers

b)

most probably the suppliers are not powerful

c)

most probably the suppliers are powerful

d)

you should never change the suppliers

63.

11) The price of prescription medicine is high, partly because when someone is sick there is no real alternative to buying medicine if they want to get better. Which of Porter's five forces explains how this aspect of the prescription medicine industry helps keep profitability high?

a)

A) Rivalry Among Existing Firms

b)

B) Threat of New Entrants

c)

C) Threat of Substitutes

d)

D) Bargaining Power of Buyers

e)

E) Bargaining Power of Suppliers

64.

9) In general, industries are more attractive when the ________.

a)

A) majority of the threats are high

b)

B) majority of the threats are low

c)

C) threat of each of the forces is neutral-neither low nor high

d)

D) threat of each of the five forces is high

e)

E) threat of each of the five forces is low

65.

12) Which of Porter's five forces is most closely associated with the concept "barrier to entry"?

a)

A) Bargaining Power of Suppliers

b)

B) Rivalry Among Existing Firms

c)

C) Threat of New Entrants

d)

D) Bargaining Power of Buyers

e)

E) Threat of Substitutes

66.

When calculating moving averages with an even number of seasons, what should be used? (Unless otherwise stated)

a)

Centring

b)

Rounding

c)

Median smoothing

d)

Cyclical data smoothing

67.

Using the table shown, calculate the value of the three year moving average in 1965

a)

2

b)

3

c)

1.5

d)

2.5

68.

Using the table shown, calculate the value of the three year moving average in 2005

a)

12

b)

13

c)

12.5

d)

11.5

69.

Using the table, find the 3-point moving average y-value for t=2

a)

61

b)

62

c)

63

d)

64

70.

Using the table, find the 5-point moving average y-value for t=3

a)

66.4

b)

65.4

c)

62.4

d)

64.5

71.

Using the table, find the 4-point centred moving average y-value for t=3

a)

60.25

b)

48.2

c)

241

d)

60.6

72.
Your teacher has asked you to explain the difference between quantitative and qualitative observations. Which statement is correct?
a)
Quantitative observations use numbers, qualitative uses the senses.
b)
Quantitative observations use the senses, qualitative uses numbers.
c)
Quantitative observations use measurement, qualitative uses numbers.
d)
Quantitative observations use colors, qualitative uses the senses.
73.
What words would be most appropriate to see if a student was describing the QUALITATIVE properties of a metal? 
a)
 melts at 1,500 degrees F
b)
density of 1.75 pounds per cubic inch
c)
reflective shine
d)
15.3% copper
74.
What words would be most appropriate to see if a student was describing the QUANTITATIVE properties of a classmate?
a)
He is short
b)
He is tall
c)
He is 5 foot 11
d)
He needs to loose weight
75.

Define the term trend in reference to time series data.

a)

The general tendency of the data to increase or decrease during a long period of time

b)

The repetitive and predictable movement around the trend line in one year or less.

c)

The oscillations that occur over long periods about the trend line or curve

d)

The movements that appear irregularly and generally during short periods. Irregular variations do not follow a particular model and are not predictable.

76.

Define the term cyclical fluctuations in reference to time series data.

a)

The general tendency of the data to increase or decrease during a long period of time

b)

The repetitive and predictable movement around the trend line in one year or less.

c)

The oscillations that occur over long periods about the trend line or curve

d)

The movements that appear irregularly and generally during short periods. Irregular variations do not follow a particular model and are not predictable.

77.

Define the term random fluctuations in reference to time series data.

a)

The general tendency of the data to increase or decrease during a long period of time

b)

The repetitive and predictable movement around the trend line in one year or less.

c)

The oscillations that occur over long periods about the trend line or curve

d)

The movements that appear irregularly and generally during short periods. Irregular variations do not follow a particular model and are not predictable.

78.

Using the table, find the 4-point centred moving average y-value for t=4

a)

62.125

b)

49.7

c)

248.5

d)

63.16

79.
The scatter plot shows the relationship between the number of chapters and the total number of pages for several books.  Use the trend line to predict how many chapters would be in a book with 180 pages. 
a)
12 chapters
b)
15 chapters
c)
18 chapters
d)
21 chapters
80.

When are quantitative sales forecasts more reliable (pick two)

a)

The forecast is for a short period of time

b)

They are constantly revised to take into account new data

c)

When the market is fast changing

d)

When there is little market research data available

81.

When are quantitative sales forecasts more reliable (pick two)

a)

The forecast is for a long period of time

b)

They are kept the same when new data comes to light

c)

When the market is slow changing

d)

When there is lots of market research data available

82.

When are quantitative sales forecasts more reliable (pick two)

a)

The forecast is for a long period of time

b)

They are kept the same when new data comes to light

c)

Those preparing the forecast have a good understanding of how to use the data to produce a forecast

d)

Those preparing the forecast have a good knowledge of the market and can adjust forecasts to consider other variables.

83.

The sales of a new popular ice-cream flavour in a beach resort. Choose the true statement.

a)

positive secular trend

b)

seasonal pattern

c)

cyclic pattern

d)

random pattern

84.

The number of daily births in a particular country hospital over a period of 10 days.

a)

negative secular trend

b)

seasonal pattern

c)

cyclic pattern

d)

random pattern

85.

This formula calculates...

a)

Gearing Ratio

b)

Return on Capital Employed (ROCE)

c)

Current ratio

d)

Acid test ratio

86.

This formula calculates...

a)

Gearing Ratio

b)

Return on Capital Employed (ROCE)

c)

Current ratio

d)

Acid test ratio

87.

A higher gearing ratio means more loans compared to share capital will mean the business will be considered riskier by creditors.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

A highly geared company is more secure as it doesn't have to pay much interest on loans

a)

True

b)

False

89.

What value would be considered good for return on capital employed (ROCE)

a)

at least 10%

b)

at least 20%

c)

at least 30%

d)

One that is higher than its competitors.

90.

A common feature of a business with high gearing is...

a)

Tend to operate in the secondary sector

b)

Shareholders suffer lower dividends per share

c)

More difficult to raise additional bank finance

d)

Profits increase when interest rates rise

91.

An alternative name for gearing is

a)

Liquidity

b)

Leverage

c)

Equity

d)

Capital Intensity

92.

Which of the following would reduce gearing?

a)

Offering customers longer trade credit terms

b)

Reducing inventories to lower the bank overdraft

c)

Launching a new product portfolio

d)

Issuing new share capital to pay off long-term debt

93.

A good reason for a firm to operate with high gearing is where...

a)

The firm experiences significant changes in profits and cash flow

b)

Shareholders consider the business to be high risk

c)

The firm has strong liquidity and predictable future cash flows

d)

Interest rates are expected to rise in the long-term

94.

Each of these actions should reduce gearing, except one. Which is the odd one out?

a)

Raise finance through a share issue

b)

Convert the bank overdraft into a bank loan

c)

Convert part of a bank loan into shares

d)

Retain profits rather than pay out as dividends

95.

A reason why highly-geared firms suffer during an economic downturn is:

a)

Profits and cash flows fall but interest costs remain high

b)

Share prices fall as the stock market declines

c)

Shareholders are less likely to accept lower dividends

d)

Interest rates fall due to higher unemployment

96.

In recent years highly-geared businesses in the UK have benefitted from

a)

Easy availability of bank loans

b)

High share prices

c)

Understanding bank managers

d)

Very low interest rates

97.

A firm has sales of £4m and an operating profit margin of 25%. If capital employed is £5m what is the ROCE

a)

17.5%

b)

20%

c)

25%

d)

40%

98.

Other things being equal, which THREE of the following would result in an improved ROCE?

a)

Reduced overhead costs

b)

A higher gross profit margin

c)

A reduction in corporation tax

d)

A reduction in working capital

e)

Higher shareholder dividends

99.

Which TWO of the following are excluded from the profit used to calculate ROCE?

a)

Raw materials

b)

Business overheads

c)

Taxation

d)

Distribution costs

e)

Interest costs and income

100.

A possible reason why a firm's ROCE may be understated is that

a)

A one-off profit had been earned

b)

Fixed assets such as property are under-valued

c)

Year-end stocks are lower than normal

d)

The firm pays a low rate of tax

101.

How should ratios be compared so that the comparisons are most useful. Select all that apply

a)

With historical results from the same company.

b)

With firms with different working capital needs and profit margins

c)

With the most profitable firms in the world

d)

With firms with similar working capital needs and profit margins

102.

What is one problem of using the balance sheet for ratio analysis

a)

The data in it is only estimates

b)

It only shows a snapshot of the firms assets and liabilities on one day

c)

The data is very inaccurate

d)

It doesn't take into account current assets and liabilities

103.

Which of the following are reasons why firms may engage in window dressing (artificially manipulating businesses accounts). Select all that apply

a)

Managers may want praise and rewards.

b)

A business is not looking for any new finance so wants to look good.

c)

If the owners want to sell, then a better financial picture will increase the price they are likely to get.

d)

Worsening the financial picture may lower the amount of tax paid.