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ACCT 2001 QUESTIONS REVIEW

Total questions: 104

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which is an advantage of corporations relative to partnerships and sole proprietorships?

a)

reduced legal liability for investors

b)

most common form of organization

c)

harder to transform ownership

d)

increased difficulty of raising funds

2.

To which of the following questions will internal users want answers

a)

What selling price for our product will maximize the company's net income?

b)

Which product line is most profitable?

c)

Is cash sufficient to pay dividends stockholders?

d)

All of the answer choices are correct.

3.

Which of the following is an example of a financing activity?

a)

Selling goods on acounnts

b)

Buying inventory

c)

Buying delivery equipment

d)

Issuing shares of common stock

4.

The payment of dividends is an example of a(n):

a)

Delivery activiity

b)

financing activity

c)

investing activity

d)

operating activity

5.

How is the issuance of common stock reported on the statement of cash flows?

a)

Marketing activity

b)

investing activity

c)

operating activity

d)

financing activity

6.

Which section of the annual report presents highlights of favorable trends and identifies significant events and uncertainties affecting a company's ability to pay near-term obligations, and a company's ability fund operations and expansion?

a)

Management discussion and analysis

b)

auditor's report

c)

Notes to the financial statements

d)

Financial statements

7.

Which financial statement report assets, liabilities, and stockholders' equity?

a)

balance sheet

b)

income statement

c)

statement of cash flows

d)

retained earnings statement

8.

The correct order of presentation in a classified balance sheet for the following current assets is

a)

inventories, cash, accounts receivable, prepaid insurance

b)

accounts receivable, cash, prepaid insurance, inventories

c)

cash, inventories, accounts receivable, prepaid insurance

d)

cash, accounts receivable, inventories, prepaid insurance

9.

Current liabilities are $10,000, long-term liabilities are $20,000, common stock is $50,000, and retained earning s totals $70,000. How much is total stockholders' equity?

a)

$150,000

b)

$120,000

c)

$140,000

d)

$70,000

10.

Which one of the following does not affect retained earning?

a)

Issuance of common stock

b)

Net loss

c)

Net income

d)

Dividends

11.

How much is the debt to assets ratio?

a)

40%

b)

30%

c)

20%

d)

60%

12.

How much is earnings per share?

a)

$0.15

b)

$0.56

c)

$1.20

d)

$1.80

13.

Earnings per share is computed by dividing net income

a)

by the average common shares outstanding

b)

by the ending common shares outstanding

c)

less preferred stock dividends by the ending common shares outstanding

d)

less preferred stock dividends by the average common shares outstanding

14.

What are the accounting rules that have substantial authoritative support and are recognized as a general guide for financial reporting purposes in the U.S.?

a)

generally accepted accounting standards

b)

generally accepted auditing principles

c)

general accounting principles

d)

generally accepted accounting principles

15.

What are generally accepted accounting principles?

a)

usually established by the Internal Revenue Service

b)

the guidelines used to resolve ethical dilemmas

c)

a set of accounting rules and practices that have authoritative support

d)

fundamental truths that can be derived from the laws of nature

16.

Receipt of an unearned revenue

a)

decreases a liability; increases stockholders' equity

b)

decreases a revenue; increase stockholders' equity

c)

increase an asset; increases a liability

d)

increases an asset; increases a revenue

17.

If an expense is paid with cash

a)

expenses will decrease

b)

retained earnings will increase

c)

liabilities will increase

d)

assets will decrease

18.

Debits

a)

decrease assets and increase liabilities

b)

increase assets and decrease liabilities

c)

decrease both assets and liabilities

d)

increase both assets and liabilities

19.

Which statement about an account is true?

a)

there are separate accounts for specific assets and liabilities but only one account for stockholders' equity items

b)

the right side of an account is the debit side

c)

an account is an individual accounting record of increases and decreases in specific asset, liability, and stockholders' equity item

d)

in its simplest form, an account consists of two parts

20.

At September 1, 2017, Five-O Inc. reported retained earnings of $136,000. During the month, Five-O generated revenues of $20,000, incurred expenses of $12,000, purchased equipment for $5,000 and paid dividends of $2,000. What is the balance in retained earnings at September 30, 2017?

a)

$136,000 debit

b)

$142,000 credit

c)

$8,000 credit

d)

$137,000 credit

21.

What is evidence that a transaction has occured?

a)

Journal

b)

Anyone of the answer choices can be considered evidence

c)

source document

d)

ledger

22.

Which of the following is not a part of a complete journal entry?

a)

the balance of each account affected by the transaction

b)

a brief explanation of the transaction

c)

the accounts and amounts to be debited and credited

d)

the date of the transaction

23.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events?

a)

analyze a transaction; post it to the ledger; record it in the journal

b)

none of the answer choices provides the correct sequence

c)

analyze a transaction; record it in the journal; post it to the ledger

d)

record a transaction in the journal; analyze the transaction; post it to the ledger

24.

What type of account is unearned revenue?

a)

Expense

b)

Revenue

c)

Liability

d)

Asset

25.

In what section of the statement of cash flows would the purchase of office equipment for $10,000 cash appear?

a)

operating activities

b)

financing activities

c)

in the notes to the statement of cash flows

d)

investing activities

26.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events?

a)

Journalize; post; prepare a trial balance

b)

Prepare a trial balance; post; journalize

c)

Prepare a trial balance; journalize; post

d)

Post; journalize; prepare a trial balance

27.

Ignatenko Company purchased office supplies costing $5,000 and debited Supplies for the full amount. Supplies on hand at the end of the accounting period were $1,300. The appropriate adjusting journal entry to be made would be

a)

Supplies $1,300

Supplies Expense $4,000

b)

Supplies Expense $3,700

Supplies $3,700

c)

Supplies $3,700

Supplies Expense $3,700

d)

Supplies Expense $1,300

Supplies $1,300

28.

Cash received before services are preformed which is recorded as a debit to a cash account and a credit to a liability account is called

a)

an accrued revenue

b)

an unearned revenue

c)

an unrecorded revenue

d)

none of these answer choices are correct

29.

What is the periodicity assumption?

a)

companies should match expenses with revenues

b)

the fiscal year should correspond with the calendar year

c)

companies should recognize revenue in the accounting period in which the performance obligation is satisfied

d)

the economic life of a business can be divided into artificial time periods

30.

In 2017, Costello Company performs work for a customer and bills the customer $10,000; it also pays expenses of $3,000. The customer pays Costello in 2018. If Costello uses the accrual-basis of accounting, then Costello will report

a)

net income of $7,000 in 2018

b)

revenue of $10,000 in 2018

c)

expenses of $3,000 in 2018

d)

revenue of $10,000 in 2017

31.

How much is the debt to assets ratio?

a)

40%

b)

30%

c)

20%

d)

60%

32.

Which is the correct order of steps in the accounting cycle?

a)

Post transactions, journalize transactions, prepare a trial balance, prepare financial statements.

b)

Prepare financial statements, prepare adjusting entries, prepare closing entries, prepare a post-closing trial balance.

c)

Journalize and post transactions, journalize and post closing entries, journalize and post adjusting entries.

d)

Journalize and post transactions, journalize and post adjusting entries, journalize and post closing entries.

33.

The final step in the accounting cycle is to prepare

a)

financial statements.

b)

a post-closing trial balance.

c)

adjusting entries.

d)

closing entries.

34.

The closing entry process consists of closing

a)

all asset and liability accounts.

b)

out the Retained Earnings account.

c)

all temporary accounts.

d)

all permanent accounts.

35.

During the adjusting process two transactions were missed. The first is for unearned rent revenue of which $450 was earned during the period, the second was for accrued interest payable of which $275 is owed for the period. As a result of these omissions

a)

net income is understated by $175.

b)

assets are overstated by $725.

c)

liabilities are overstated by $725.

d)

revenue is overstated by $725.

36.

Saira works for a sports franchise, which pays wages and salaries earned on a monthly basis. A new accountant was hired by the sports franchise in late May. Due to inexperience, the new accountant failed to accrue Saira’s salary for May. What is the impact on the May 31 financial statements of the sports franchise?

a)

Liabilities are understated; assets are overstated.

b)

Revenues are overstated; net income is understated.

c)

Expenses are understated; net income is overstated.

d)

Liabilities are overstated; retained earnings is overstated.

37.

Net income is $15,000, operating expenses are $20,000, net sales total $75,000, and sales revenues total $95,000. How much is the profit margin?

a)

75%

b)

20%

c)

16%

d)

79%

38.

Which of the following items does not result in an entry to the Inventory account under a perpetual system?

a)

Payment of freight costs for goods received from a supplier

b)

A purchase of merchandise

c)

A return of Inventory to the supplier

d)

Payment of freight costs for goods shipped to a customer

39.

When credit terms of 1/15, n/60 are offered, how long is the discount period?

a)

1 day

b)

45 days

c)

60 days

d)

15 days

40.

In a perpetual inventory system, which accounts will the seller credit when merchandise is returned by a customer?

a)

Sales Returns and Allowances and Accounts Receivable

b)

Accounts Receivable and Cost of Goods Sold

c)

Sales Returns and Allowances and Inventory

d)

Inventory and Cost of Goods Sold

41.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

a)

A company which uses a perpetual inventory system needs only one journal entry when it sells merchandise.

b)

A company which uses a perpetual inventory system needs two journal entries when it sells merchandise.

c)

A company which uses a perpetual inventory system debits inventory and credits cost of goods sold when it sells merchandise.

d)

None of the answer choices are correct.

42.

Which one of the following will result in gross profit?

a)

Sales revenue less cost of goods sold

b)

Operating expenses less cost of goods sold

c)

Operating expenses less net income

d)

Sales revenue less operating expenses

43.

Which of the following will be shown on the income statement for a merchandising company?

a)

Gross profit

b)

Cost of goods sold

c)

A sales revenue section

d)

All of the answer choices are correct

44.

Net income is $15,000, operating expenses are $20,000, and net sales total $75,000. How much is cost of goods sold?

a)

$15,000

b)

$60,000

c)

$40,000

d)

$35,000

45.

Under what system is cost of goods sold determined at the end of an accounting period?

a)

periodic inventory system

b)

double entry inventory system

c)

perpetual inventory system

d)

single entry inventory system

46.

Which of the following would affect the gross profit rate if sales remain constant?

a)

an increase in cost of goods sold

b)

a decrease in depreciation expense

c)

a decrease in insurance expense

d)

an increase in advertising expense

47.

Cecil gives goods on consignment to Jerry who agrees to try to sell them for a 25% commission. At the end of the accounting period, which of the following parties includes in its inventory the consigned goods?

a)

Cecil

b)

Jerry

c)

Both Cecil and Jerry

d)

Neither Cecil and Jerry

48.

Which of the following should not be included in the physical inventory of a company?

a)

Goods in transit from another company shipped FOB shipping point

b)

Good shipped on consignment to another company

c)

All of the answer choices are correct

d)

Goods held on consignment from another company

49.

Which one of the following is not a consideration that affects the selection of an inventory costing method?

a)

perpetual versus periodic inventory system

b)

tax effects

c)

income statement effects

d)

balance sheet effects

50.

In a period of falling prices, which of the following methods will give the largest net income?

a)

LIFO

b)

average-cost

c)

specific identification

d)

FIFO

51.

What is the LIFO reserve?

a)

an amount used to adjust inventory to the lower-of-cost-or-market

b)

the difference between cost of goods sold under LIFO compared to FIFO

c)

an amount used to adjust the LIFO inventory to historical cost

d)

the difference between the value of the inventory under LIFO and the value under FIFO

52.

Which of the following will not require an adjusting entry?

a)

bank service charges

b)

NSF checks

c)

deposits in transit

d)

book errors

53.

Under which of the following do computer programs that limit unauthorized access to certain files fall?

a)

independent internal verification

b)

physical controls

c)

documentation procedures

d)

human resource controls

54.

Which of the following is not a principle of internal control?

a)

collusion between employees

b)

documentation procedures

c)

bonding of employees

d)

segregation of duties

55.

For which of the following might a bank issue a debit memorandum to a depositor's account?

a)

collection of a note receivable

b)

interest earned

c)

monthly service charges

d)

deposits in transit

56.

Why should a bank reconciliation be prepared?

a)

To make sure the actual cash balance is the same as the cash received from customers.

b)

To explain any difference between the depositor's balance per books and the balance per bank.

c)

To explain any difference between the bank deposits and the checks written.

d)

To make sure employees have not committed fraud.

57.

For which of the following will an adjusting entry be required as the result of a bank reconciliation?

a)

NSF checks

b)

deposits in transit

c)

outstanding checks

d)

bank errors

58.

On June 15, Kersee Company sold merchandise on account to Eng Co. for $1,000, terms 2/10, n/30. On June 20, Eng Co. returns merchandise worth $300 to Kersee Company. On June 24, payment is received from Eng Co. for the balance due. What is the amount of cash received on June 24?

a)

$700

b)

$680

c)

$686

d)

None of the answer choices are correct

59.

Which one of the following is part of the transaction that is recorded when an account is written off under the allowance method?

a)

Bad Debts Expense account is debited.

b)

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is debited.

c)

Accounts Receivable account is debited.

d)

Loss on Accounts Receivable account is debited.

60.

Factoring is the process of

a)

determining the average collection period.

b)

determining the allowance for doubtful accounts value.

c)

selling accounts receivable at a discount to another party.

d)

determining the percentage of accounts receivable expected to be collected.

61.

Good Stuff Retailers accepted $50,000 of Citibank Visa credit card charges for merchandise sold on July 1. Citibank charges 4% for its credit card use. Which of the following is/are the debit entry(ies) required to record this transaction by Good Stuff Retailers?

a)

Accounts receivable $48,000 and service charge expense $2,000

b)

Cash $50,000

c)

Cash $48,000 and service charge expense $2,000

d)

accounts receivable $50,000

62.

Notes receivable are reported in the current assets section of the balance sheet at

a)

the selling price at which the inventory was sold to the customers

b)

total principal plus interest for the term of the loan

c)

market value

d)

cash (net) realizable value

63.

On May 2, Wainwright Company receives a $3,000, 4-month, 10% note from Fulton Company as a settlement of its accounts receivable. What entry will Wainwright Company make when it receives the note on May 2?

a)

Notes Receivable 3,000

Accounts Receivable 3,000

b)

Notes Receivable 3,000

Interest Receivable 100

Accounts Receivable

3,000

Interest Revenue 100

c)

Notes Receivable 3,100

Sales Revenue 3,100

d)

Notes Receivable 3,100

Accounts Receivable

3,100

64.

Which of the following is the debit effect of the journal entry to record the dishonor of a note receivable?

a)

bad debts expense

b)

loss on notes receivable

c)

allowance for doubtful accounts

d)

accounts receivable

65.

Which one of these statements about promissory notes is incorrect?

a)

A promissory note is not a negotiable instrument

b)

The party to whom payment is to be made is called the payee.

c)

A promissory note is more liquid than an account receivable.

d)

The party making the promise to pay is called the maker.

66.

Eddy Corporation had net credit sales during the year of $800,000 and cost of goods sold of $500,000. The balance in receivables at the beginning of the year was $100,000 and at the end of the year was $150,000. How much is the accounts receivables turnover?

a)

5.3

b)

6.4

c)

4.0

d)

8.0

67.

Which one of the following costs will not be included in the cost of equipment?

a)

installation

b)

freight

c)

testing

d)

annual insurance

68.

Coronado Company purchased land for $80,000. The company also paid $12,000 in accrued taxes on the property, incurred $5,000 to remove an old building, and received $2,000 from the salvage of the old building. At what amount will the land be recorded in the accounting records?

a)

$80,000

b)

$83,000

c)

$92,000

d)

$95,000

69.

Able Towing Company purchased a tow truck for $60,000 on January 1, 2015. It was originally depreciated on a straight-line basis over 10 years with an estimated salvage value of $12,000. On December 31, 2017, before adjusting entries had been made, the company decided to change the remaining estimated life to 4 more years as of January 1, 2017, and the salvage value was adjusted to $2,000. How much is depreciation expense for 2017?

a)

$4,800

b)

$6,000

c)

$15,000

d)

$12,100

70.

An asset purchased on January 1 for $60,000 has an estimated salvage value of $3,000. The current useful life is 8 years. How much is total accumulated depreciation using the straight-line method at the end of the second year of life?

a)

$7,500

b)

$7,125

c)

$15,000

d)

$14,250

71.

What is depreciation?

a)

a cash accumulation approach

b)

an adjustment to market value over time

c)

a valuation approach

d)

a cost allocation method

72.

Which one of the following is not a depreciable asset?

a)

Land

b)

equipment

c)

driveways

d)

buildings

73.

Which depreciation method calculates annual depreciation expense based on book value at the beginning of each year?

a)

straight-line

b)

salvage method

c)

units-of-activity

d)

declining-balance

74.

When a plant asset is retired, the difference between original cost and the book value of the asset is

a)

subtracted from the accumulated depreciation account

b)

recognized on the income statement as a loss on disposal of plant asset

c)

debited to the sale of plant assets account

d)

an increase to cash

75.

A company sold for $3,000 a plant asset that had a cost of $10,000 and accumulated depreciation of $7,500. What gain or loss did the company experience?

a)

gain of $3,000

b)

loss of $7,000

c)

gain of $500

d)

loss of $500

76.

If a company reports goodwill as an intangible asset on its books, what is the one thing you know with certainty?

a)

The company purchased another company.

b)

The goodwill will generate a lot of positive business for the company for many years to come

c)

The company is a valuable company worth investing in.

d)

The company has a well-established brand name.

77.

Which of the following statements is false?

a)

If an intangible asset has a finite life, it should be amortized.

b)

The amortization period of an intangible life can exceed 20 years.

c)

Goodwill is recorded only when a business is purchased.

d)

Research and development costs are expensed when incurred, except when the research and development expenditures result in a successful patent.

78.

The Jacksonville Jaguars sell season tickets to NFL football games. There are 10 home games during the season, which runs from August through December. During February, 65,000 season tickets were sold for $12,000,000 cash. Which account will be credited by the Jacksonville Jaguars upon receipt of the $12,000,000?

a)

tickets receivable

b)

prepaid tickets

c)

unearned ticket revenue

d)

ticket revenue

79.

Andre Company collected $4,515 from cash sales to customers, which includes both sales revenue and 5% sales taxes. How much should be recognized as sales revenue?

a)

$4,000

b)

$4,289.25

c)

$4,515

d)

$4,300

80.

To be classified as a current liability, how or when must a debt be expected to be paid?

a)

beyond one year

b)

either out of existing current assets or by crediting other current liabilities

c)

by creating other current liabilities

d)

out of existing current assets

81.

A corporation issued a $50,000, 9%, 4-month note on July 1. The corporation's year-end is September 30. Which one of the following is the adjusting entry for interest on September 30?

a)

Interest Expense 1,125

Notes Payable 1,125

b)

Interest Expense 1,125

Interest Payable

1,125

c)

Interest Expense 1,500

Interest Payable

1,500

d)

Interest Expense 1,500

Notes Payable

1,500

82.

On September 1, Banner Co. borrowed $70,000 from the City Bank for five months at 9%. Which journal entry will Banner Co. make on December 31 before issuing its financial statements?

a)

Interest Expense 1,575

Interest Payable 1,575

b)

Interest Expense 2,100

Interest Payable 2,100

c)

Interest Expense 6,300

Notes Payable

6,300

d)

Interest Expense 2,625

Notes Payable 2,625

83.

Which statement describes the market interest rate?

a)

It is listed in the bond indenture.

b)

It is the contractual interest rate used to determine the amount of cash interest paid by the borrower.

c)

It is the rate investors demand for loaning funds.

d)

It is the rate stated on the bond certificate that determines the value at which bonds will sell.

84.

What term is used for bonds that have specific assets pledged as collateral?

a)

discount bonds

b)

convertible bonds

c)

secured bonds

d)

callable bonds

85.

Nashville Rail Co. issued $100,000 in 10-year bonds in 2009 at 103. The final interest payment was made and recorded. What entry will Nashville record for the redemption of its bonds at maturity?

a)

Bonds Payable 100,000

Cash 100,000

b)

Bonds Payable 103,000

Cash 103,000

c)

Bonds Payable 103,000

Premium on Bonds Payable 3,000

Cash 100,000

d)

Bonds Payable 103,000

Gain on Bonds Redemption 3,000

Cash 100,000

86.

What is the nature of a bond premium?

a)

it increases the cost of borrowing

b)

it doesn't change the cost of borrowing

c)

none of these

d)

it reduces the cost of borrowing

87.

Tanner, Inc. issued a 10%, 5-year, $100,000 bond when the market rate of interest was 12%. At what value will the bond sell?

a)

par

b)

a premium

c)

face value

d)

a discount

88.

A $500,000 bond is retired at 101¼ when the unamortized premium is $4,500. Which of the following is one effect of recording the retirement?

a)

a $6,250 gain

b)

a $10,806 loss

c)

a $1,750 loss

d)

a $6,250 loss

89.

Which one of the following is a major disadvantage of a corporation?

a)

limited liability of stockholders

b)

additional taxes

c)

transferable ownership rights

d)

limited life

90.

If a corporation issues 1,000 shares of $3 par common stock for $7 a share, how much is the legal capital?

a)

$7,000

b)

$3,000

c)

$4,000

d)

$0

91.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of the corporate business form?

a)

No income taxes

b)

Government regulation

c)

Continuous life

d)

Easy acquisition of capital

92.

DT Inc. issued 3,000 shares of $5 par value common stock for $6 per share. Which of the following is one part of the journal entry to record the issuance?

a)

debit to paid-in-capital in excess of par value for $3,000

b)

debit to cash for $15,000

c)

credit to common stock for $15,000

d)

credit to common stock for $18,000

93.

For what reason might a company acquire treasury stock?

a)

To reissue the shares to officers and employees under bonus and stock compensation plans

b)

To signal to the stock market that management believes the stock is overpriced

c)

To increase profit

d)

To increase the number of shares of stock outstanding

94.

Harrison, Inc. issued 600 shares of common stock at $10 per share. If the stock was no-par value stock, which of the following will be part of the journal entry to record the issuance?

a)

Debit to Cash for $600

b)

Credit to Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par for $600

c)

Credit to Common Stock for $6,000

d)

Debit to Paid-in Capital $6,000

95.

Which statement about stock dividends is true?

a)

Stock dividends reduce a company’s cash balance.

b)

A stock dividend has no effect on total stockholders’ equity.

c)

A stock dividend decreases total stockholders’ equity.

d)

A stock dividend increases total stockholders’ equity for the par value of the stock being distributed.

96.

M-Bot Corporation has 10,000 shares of 8%, $100 par value, cumulative preferred stock outstanding at December 31, 2017. No dividends were declared in 2015 or 2016. If M-Bot wants to pay $375,000 of dividends in 2017, how much will common stockholders receive?

a)

$0

b)

$295,000

c)

$215,000

d)

$135,000

97.

How are dividends in arrears reported in the financial statements?

a)

as a liability

b)

as an expense

c)

in a footnote

d)

as an equity item

98.

Weeds Inc. has a balance of $10,000,000 in retained earnings and declares a 5% stock dividend on its 1,000,000 shares of $5 par value common stock. The current market value of the stock is $25 per share. What is the entry to record this transaction at the declaration date?

a)

Stock Dividends 1,250,000

Common Stock 1,250,000

b)

Stock Dividends 1,250,000

Common Stock Dividends Distributable 250,000

Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par Value 1,000,000

c)

Stock Dividends 250,000

Common Stock Dividends Distributable

250,000

d)

Common Stock Dividends Distributable

250,000

Common Stock 250,000

99.

When a stock dividend is declared, which of the following accounts is debited?

a)

common stock dividends distributable

b)

paid-in capital in excess of par value

c)

stock dividends

d)

common stock

100.

In recording a factoring transaction:

a)

IFRS focuses on loss of control.

b)

GAAP focuses on loss of control and risks and rewards.

c)

IFRS and GAAP allow partial derecognition.

d)

IFRS allows partial derecognition.

101.
a)

21.25%

b)

20.00%

c)

19.5%

d)

18.75%

102.

What amount should be recorded as the cost of the equipment?

a)

$25,400

b)

$25,800

c)

$25,200

d)

$24,000

103.
a)

$9,500,000

b)

$5,500,000

c)

$11,500,000

d)

$7,500,000

104.
a)

$56,000

b)

$70,000

c)

$84,000

d)

$75,250