wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

FINAL REVIEW

Total questions: 207

Worksheet time: 3hrs 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
As a whole, Giants are considered hotter than White Dwarfs.
a)
True
b)
False
2.
In the diagram given, what happens as we move to the left?
a)
Stars Get Larger
b)
Stars get Colder
c)
Stars get hotter
3.
Which star is the coldest?
a)
Yellow Star
b)
Red Star
c)
Orange Star
d)
Blue Star
4.
Compared to the rest of the stars, our sun is considered...
a)
Extremely Large and Cold
b)
Small with a medium temperature
c)
Medium size with medium temperature
5.
Which category is our Sun located in?
a)
White Dwarfs
b)
Supergiants
c)
Main Sequence
d)
Giants
6.
Which category is our Sun located in?
a)
White Dwarfs
b)
Supergiants
c)
Main Sequence
d)
Giants
7.
The category that contains the most stars is...
a)
Main Sequence
b)
Supergiants
c)
Giants
8.

What characteristics are used to classify stars?

a)

Flammability, weight, and reactivity

b)

Temperature/color and brightness

c)

Conductivity, luster, and density

d)

Malleability, distance, and viscoscity

9.

Using the HR diagram, choose the color of Zeta Eridani

a)

blue

b)

white

c)

yellow

d)

red

10.

Which star is hotter than Deneb

a)

Procyon

b)

Sun

c)

Regel

d)

Banard's Star

11.

Which star is brighter than the sun?

a)

Sirius B

b)

Procyon B

c)

Van Maanan's Star

d)

Aldebaran

12.

Which star is brighter than Alpha Centauri B, but dimmer than the sun?

a)

Pollux

b)

Spica

c)

Tau Ceti

d)

Mira

13.

Which star is considered a giant star?

a)

Mira

b)

Zeta Arindani

c)

Barnard's Star

d)

Betelgeuse

14.

Knowing the color of a star also tells us its __________

a)

age

b)

location

c)

temperature

d)

name

15.
What is found on the x axis of an H-R diagram?
a)
Luminosity
(or brightness)
b)
Temperature
c)
Star Size
d)
Distance
16.
Which spectral class does our star, the sun, belong to?
a)
M
b)
K
c)
G
d)
F
17.
As you move from the bottom to the top of the H R diagram the __________ changes.
a)
Temperature
b)
Luminosity or Brightness
18.

How does the mass of a hot, bright main sequence star compare to a cool, faint main sequence star?

a)

They have more mass

b)

They have the same mass

c)

They have less mass

19.
As a whole, Giants are considered hotter than White Dwarfs.
a)
True
b)
False
20.

What force causes a galaxy to form?

a)

Gravity

b)

Nuclear Fusion

c)

Kinetic Energy (Movement)

d)

Thermal Energy (Heat)

21.

What is the shape of most galaxies?

a)

Elliptical

b)

Spiral

c)

Irregular

22.

What shape is common for older galaxies?

a)

spiral

b)

elliptical

c)

irregular

d)

barred spiral

23.

What type of galaxy is the milky way?

a)

Spiral

b)

Barred Spiral

c)

Elliptical

d)

Irregular

24.

The Milky Way Galaxy is a

a)

Spiral Galaxy

b)

Elliptical Galaxy

c)

Peculiar Galaxy

d)

Trash Galaxy

25.
Why do other stars appear so much smaller than the sun?
a)
They are actually much smaller
b)
They are so far away
c)
They are not as bright
d)
They are dwarf stars
26.
What color of star is the hottest?
a)
Blue
b)
Red
c)
Yellow
d)
Orange
27.
What color of star is the coolest?
a)
Red
b)
Yellow
c)
Blue
d)
White
28.
What is the name of the gas/dust clouds where all stars form?
a)
Nebulas
b)
Protostars 
c)
Supernova
d)
Neutron Star
29.
What are stars?
a)
Rocky bodies
b)
Burning balls of gas
c)
5 pointed shapes
d)
Hollywood actors
30.
True or False
The Sun is the biggest star in the sky.
a)
True
b)
False
31.
Which star is closest to Earth?
a)
Betelgeuse
b)
Orion
c)
the sun
d)
Antares
32.
The color of a star tells us its
a)
magnitude
b)
temperature
c)
size
d)
age
33.
The life cycles of stars are determined by their:
a)
mass (size)
b)
color
c)
distance from Earth
d)
luminosity
34.
Galaxies are composed of 
a)
billions of stars
b)
a star and the planets that orbit around it
c)
all of the bodies and objects in space
35.
Most stars are made of which gases?
a)
Hydrogen only
b)
Hydrogen and Lithium
c)
Hydrogen and Sodium
d)
Hydrogen and Helium
36.
Our sun is currently in what star stage?
a)
Protostar
b)
Nebula
c)
Main Sequence
d)
Red Giant
37.
Which is not an end stage of a star?
a)
black giant
b)
black hole
c)
neutron star
d)
black dwarf
38.
After the main sequence, a low mass star becomes a
a)
black dwarf
b)
protostar
c)
red giant
d)
supergiant
39.
After the main sequence, a high mass star becomes a
a)
black dwarf
b)
protostar
c)
red giant
d)
supergiant
40.
The final stage of a low mass star is a 
a)
neutron star
b)
nebula
c)
black hole
d)
black dwarf
41.
After a supergiant, a high mass star explodes and forms a
a)
supernova
b)
red giant
c)
black hole
d)
planetary nebula
42.
When a nebula heats up, a "baby" star forms in the middle. It is called a
a)
supernova
b)
supergiant
c)
white dwarf
d)
protostar
43.
What are the reasons for the seasons?
a)
Earth's tilt and rotation.
b)
Earth's rotation and revolution.
c)
Earth's tilt and revolution.
d)
Earth's tilt and resolution
44.
Which of the following statements is most accurate about the Movement of Earth and the Sun?
a)
The Sun revolves around the Earth
b)
The Earth rotates around the Sun
c)
The Earth revolves around the Sun
d)
The Earth rotates and revolves around the Sun 
45.
What is illuminating the Moon?
a)
Nuclear Fusion
b)
Sunlight
c)
Mirrors
d)
Flood Lights
46.

The Earth completes one of these every 365.25 days

a)

rotation

b)

revolution

47.
This is the reason we experience day and night
a)
rotation
b)
revolution
48.
The motion of one object around another object
a)
rotation
b)
revolution
49.
Takes about 24 hours to complete one
a)
rotation
b)
revolution
50.
What is the name of the imaginary line running through the North Pole to the South Pole?
a)
orbit
b)
axis
c)
equator
d)
latitude
51.
Why do globes lean sideways?
a)
To allow them to spin easier.
b)
To demonstrate the tilt of Earth's axis.
c)
To demonstrate the effects of gravity.
d)
To demonstrate day and night.
52.
Why is it warmer in the summer?
a)
Closer to the sun
b)
More direct light from Earth's tilt
c)
Stronger light from the sun
d)
Earth spins slower
53.
Which season is taking place in the Northern Hemisphere in Position 1?
a)
Winter
b)
Spring
c)
Summer
d)
Fall
54.
If it's ____ in the Northern hemisphere, then its summer in the Southern hemisphere. 
a)
spring
b)
summer
c)
fall
d)
winter
55.

In which hemisphere do we live (in US)?

a)

Northern

b)

Southern

56.

The day of the year with the most daylight hours is the

a)

spring equinox

b)

fall equinox

c)

summer solstice

d)

winter solstice

57.

In the northern hemisphere, the winter solstice happens in which month?

a)

March

b)

June

c)

September

d)

December

58.

In the northern hemisphere, the summer solstice happens in which month?

a)

March

b)

June

c)

September

d)

December

59.

The day of the year with the fewest daylight hours is called the

a)

spring equinox

b)

fall equinox

c)

summer solstice

d)

winter solstice

60.

When daylight hours are almost equal to night time hours, it is called

a)

equinox

b)

solstice

61.

On the day that the northern hemisphere has it's longest day, the southern hemisphere will have it's shortest day.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

The day with the longest night time hours is the fall equinox.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Earth is tilted at _____________ degrees.

a)

23.5

b)

90

c)

0

d)

25.3

64.

Vernal equinox marks the onset of which season?

a)

Summer

b)

Autumn

c)

Spring

d)

Winter

65.

Gravity is the force between two objects

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Any object with mass experiences gravity

a)

True

b)

False

67.

Why do astronauts bounce so high on the moon?

a)

The moon has more gravity

b)

The moon has no gravity

c)

The moon has less gravity

68.

The mass of most objects are too small for them to experience gravity between them.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Earth's gravity pulls everything toward:

a)

North

b)

South

c)

East

d)

The center of the earth

70.

Gravitational force is smaller between

a)

Larger objects

b)

Smaller objects

71.

As distance increases, gravitational forces:

a)

Decrease

b)

increase

c)

Disappear

d)

Stay the same

72.

As mass increases, gravitational forces:

a)

Increase

b)

decrease

c)

stay the same

d)

disappear

73.
the tendency of an object to resist a change in its motion
a)
acceleration
b)
inertia
c)
mass
d)
frame of reference
74.
push or pull acting on an object
a)
speed
b)
force
c)
position
d)
mass
75.
What is the tendency of an object to resist a change in motion?
a)
coffee
b)
motion
c)
inertia
d)
gravity
76.
Objects with greater _________ also have greater inertia.
a)
speed
b)
mass
c)
temperature
d)
friction
77.
Newton's 1st law is also called....
a)
friction 
b)
inertia
c)
unbalanced forces
d)
Newtons
78.
Because of inertia, a moving object will keep ________.
a)
at rest
b)
moving
c)
in one spot
d)
inertia 
79.
A mineral must by formed by ___________.
a)
processes that occur in the natural world
b)
processes that occur in the human world
80.
A mineral must be a___________.
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
gas
81.
A mineral must be ___________.
a)
organic
b)
inorganic
82.

A crystalline structure means

a)

disorderly internal structure

b)

atoms or ions are arranged in an orderly repetitive manner

83.

A naturally formed, inorganic solid that has a definite crystalline structure is known as a:

a)

Rock.

b)

Compound.

c)

Element.

d)

Mineral.

84.

In class you learned that there are five criteria that make a mineral, a mineral. Based on what you learned, what are the five criteria?

a)

Solid, Naturally Occurring, Inorganic, Fixed Chemical Formula, and Crystal Structure.

b)

Fixed Chemical Formula, Organic, Living, Bright Color, and Crystal Structure.

c)

Inorganic, Naturally Occurring, Plastic, Solid, and Fixed Chemical Formula.

d)

Organic, Naturally Occurring, Crystal Structure, Solid, and Liquid.

85.

Coal is NOT a mineral because

a)

It is not solid.

b)

It is not naturally occurring.

c)

It is organic.

d)

It is inorganic.

86.

Native copper is a solid, inorganic substance found in Earth. What would it be classified as?

a)

Soil.

b)

Animal.

c)

Mineral.

d)

Vegetable.

87.

Plastic is a clear substance that is a solid. Plastic has a fixed chemical formula and is a man - made product.


Is plastic a mineral or not?

Please select two answers.

a)

Yes, plastic is a mineral because it is formed from a man - made substance.

b)

No, plastic is not a mineral because it is not naturally occurring in the environment.

c)

Yes, plastic is a mineral because it is a solid substance that has a fixed chemical formula.

d)

No, plastic is not a mineral because it does not have a crystal structure.

88.

Read the description below. Use the definition of minerals to choose the correct statement about ivory.


Ivory is a hard, solid, white material that comes from the tusks, or teeth, of animals, usually elephants.

a)

Ivory is a mineral because minerals either come from living things or are man - made.

b)

Ivory is a mineral because minerals are always white in color.

c)

Ivory is not a mineral because minerals don't come from living things.

d)

Ivory is not a mineral because minerals are not solids.

89.

Read the description below. Which detail(s) show that Sulfur is a mineral?


At room temperature Sulfur is a yellow crystalline solid. It's has a chemical formula of S8 and is found near volcanic vents.


HINT: There may be more than one answer!

a)

It is yellow.

b)

It is a solid.

c)

It can be defined by a chemical formula.

d)

All of the above.

90.

Guess the Mineral!


This mineral is found in your toothpaste. It plays a key role in keeping your teeth healthy and strong. What is it?

a)

Zinc.

b)

Copper.

c)

Fluorite.

d)

Salt.

91.

Guess the Mineral!


This mineral can be crushed into a white powder that is widely known as baby powder. This powder has the ability to absorb moisture, oils, and odor. What is the name of the mineral?

a)

Zinc.

b)

Talc.

c)

Fluorite.

d)

Salt.

92.

Guess the Mineral!


This mineral is the hardest naturally occurring mineral. It is most often used in jewelry but can also be used on the tips of saw blades. What is the name of the mineral?

a)

Fluorite.

b)

Talc.

c)

Diamond.

d)

Sulfur.

93.

One way that minerals form is by the crystallization of cooling

a)

magma.

b)

water.

94.
Some minerals form when solutions ___________.
a)
evaporate
b)
boil
95.
The color of a mineral in powder form is called the mineral's 
a)
hardness
b)
specific gravity
c)
luster
d)
streak
96.
How light reflects off of a mineral is called the mineral's 
a)
luster
b)
streak
c)
cleavage
d)
fracture
97.
A mineral's resistance to being scratched is called?
a)
streak
b)
luster
c)
hardness
d)
heft
98.
Breakage along smooth, flat planes
a)
fracture
b)
cleavage
c)
streak
d)
ore
99.
Breakage along rough or jagged edges
a)
cleavage
b)
fracture
c)
streak
d)
luster
100.
Which mineral property is being shown here?
a)
luster
b)
hardness
c)
cleavage
d)
streak
101.
Diamond has a hardness of ___ on Mohs Hardness Scale.
a)
1
b)
5
c)
8
d)
10
102.
The definition of a mineral does NOT include:
a)
crystalline structure
b)
solid
c)
organic
d)
natural
103.
A naturally occurring, inorganic solid which has a definite crystalline structure
a)
Mineral
b)
Element
c)
Compound
d)
Rock
104.
Repeating pattern of atoms or molecules that is present throughout a solid
a)
Compound
b)
Crystals
c)
Elements
d)
Molecules
105.
Which test is not reliable in identifying minerals
a)
streak
b)
luster
c)
specific gravity
d)
color
106.
A mineral breaks into pieces like are shown in the picture. How would you describe its breakage?
a)
Fracture
b)
Cleavage
c)
Glassy
d)
Waxy
107.

What evidence indicates that Earth has a solid inner core and a liquid outer core?

a)

P-waves and S-waves

b)

A-waves and B-waves

c)

through drills

d)

there is no evidence

108.

In which layer of the Earth are temperature and pressure greatest?

a)

Crust

b)

Mantle

c)

Outer Core

d)

Inner Core

109.

Which of the following lists Earth's layers in order from outermost to innermost?

a)

inner core, outer core, mantle, crust

b)

mantle, outer core, inner core, crust

c)

crust, mantle, outer core, inner core

110.
The most dense layer of the Earth is the
a)
Inner Core
b)
Outer Core
c)
Lower Mantle
d)
Upper Mantle
111.
Do the layers move?
a)
No, they are all stuck in place...rocks are solid
b)
Yes, but only the crust
c)
All the layers but the mantle.  It is too thick to really move.
d)
All the layers are moving, some with convection, some are rotating.
112.
What kind of wave travels through the earth?
a)
Seismic Wave
b)
Ocean Wave
c)
Light Wave
113.
What kind of plate boundary is shown here?
a)
divergent
b)
convergent
c)
transform
d)
submergent
114.
What kind of plate boundary is shown here?
a)
divergent
b)
convergent
c)
transform
d)
subducting
115.
What kind of plate boundary is shown here?
a)
divergent
b)
convergent
c)
transform
d)
strike slip
116.
Name the boundary
a)
convergent boundary
b)
divergent boundary
c)
transform boundary
d)
sergent boundary
117.
Name the boundary
a)
convergent boundary
b)
divergent boundary
c)
transform boundary
d)
sergent boundary
118.
Plates move towards one another at ______________ boundaries.
a)
divergent
b)
convergent
c)
transform
d)
detergent
119.
Plates slide past one another at ____________ boundaries.
a)
divergent
b)
convergent
c)
transform
d)
submergent
120.
The area where two or more plates meet is called a __________________.
a)
fault
b)
plate boundary
c)
plate edge
d)
ring of fire
121.
This rock was formed when heat and pressure changed its minerals around into new minerals. What type of rock is it?
a)
Metamorphic Rock
b)
Igneous Rock
c)
Sedimentary Rock
d)
Boring Rock
122.
This rock was formed when molten rock cooled into a solid. What type of rock is it?
a)
Igneous Rock
b)
Metamorphic Rock
c)
Sedimentary Rock
123.
This rock formed when bits of other rocks became pressed into a solid. What type of rock is it?
a)
Sedimentary Rock
b)
Metamorphic Rock
c)
Igneous Rock
124.
What are the 3 major types of rocks?
a)
Igneous, Metamorphic, Sedimentary
b)
Metamorphic, Igneous, Cementation
c)
Brown, Red, Gray
d)
Streak, Hardness, Breakage
125.
What is a rock?
a)
Rock that forms when melted, or molten rock from deep below Earth's surface cools and hardens.
b)
A solid material made up of one or more minerals.
c)
Rock that forms when existing rocks are changed by heat, pressure, or chemicals beneath the Earth's surface.
126.
This type of rock is usually formed in layers.
a)
Igneous
b)
Sedimentary
c)
Metamorphic
127.
This type of rock is formed by  heat and pressure.
a)
Igneous
b)
Sedimentary
c)
Metamorphic
128.
Most fossils are found in this type of rock.
a)
Igneous
b)
Sedimentary
c)
Metamorphic
129.
This type of rock is a rock that has changed from another type of rock.
a)
Igneous
b)
Sedimentary
c)
Metamorphic
130.
Sandstone is an example of this type of rock.
a)
Igneous
b)
Sedimentary
c)
Metamorphic
131.
The process that presses sediments together
a)
clastic rock
b)
cementation
c)
compaction
d)
deposition
132.

The "special minerals" referred to in Revelation by Pastor Tim are said to cover the walls of ____________.

a)

New Bethelehem

b)

Orlando

c)

New Jerusalem

d)

Jericho

133.

An example of an isotropic crystal is...

a)

Flourite

b)

Topaz

c)

Diamond

d)

Feldspar

134.

Isotropic crystal turn ________ in direct, focused light.

a)

Red

b)

White

c)

Black

d)

Green

135.

The doors/gates of New Jerusalem will be carved from:

a)

Diamond

b)

Gold

c)

Pearl

d)

Topaz

136.

Which layer of soil are these roots growing in?

a)

subsoil

b)

topsoil

137.

When plants, animals, and other organisms die, they break down and become part of the soil. What is this part of the soil called?

a)

sand

b)

silt

c)

clay

d)

humus

138.

What is the layer of soil that contains the roots of the big trees?

a)

Organic

b)

Topsoil

c)

Subsoil

d)

Bedrock

139.

Which layer is the bottom of the soil profile?

a)

Partially Weathered Parent Material

b)

Separated rock

c)

Bedrock

d)

Topsoil

140.

Layers of soil are also known as?

a)

Soil Profiles

b)

Soil Horizons

c)

Soil sheets

d)

Soil cores

141.

In which layer of the soil profile contains the MOST humus?

a)

Layer 1

b)

Layer 2

c)

Layer 3

d)

Layer 4

142.

In which layer of the soil profile contains a solid layer of rock?

a)

Layer 1

b)

Layer 2

c)

Layer 3

d)

Layer 4

143.

Soil is made of?

a)

weathered rocks and minerals

b)

dead plants and animals

c)

air and water

d)

all of the above

144.

The first layer of soil, called the A horizon is also known as?

a)

Bedrock

b)

Parent Material

c)

Topsoil

d)

Subsoil

145.

Which type of soil drains the slowest?

a)

silt

b)

clay

c)

sand

d)

loam

146.
How does freezing water cause the weathering of rocks?  The freezing water—
a)
keeps the rocks in place
b)
makes the rocks last longer
c)
expands cracks and breaks rocks
d)
causes rocks to fall in landslides
147.
The process that breaks down rocks and other materials on Earth's surface is called
a)
weathering
b)
erosion
c)
soil conservation
d)
decomposition
148.
How does wind abrasion work?
a)
Sediment is blown off a surface from wind.
b)
Wind-blown sediment strikes a surface.
c)
Wind blows large chunks of rock off a surface.
d)
Sediment falls off of a surface on its own.
149.
What is mechanical weathering?
a)
Process through which rocks are physically broken into smaller pieces.
b)
Rocks are broken down through chemical changes.
c)
Rocks are worn away from acid in plant roots.
d)
Rocks broken down by machinery.
150.
During chemical weathering, what can happen to the type of rock that has undergone chemical weathering?
a)
a new rock is produced that is larger than the original rock
b)
a new rock is produced that is the same as the original rock
c)
a new rock is produced that is different from the original rock 
d)
no new rock is created - it is just smaller in size
151.
The diagrams  shows a natural process that weathers rock.
 Which statement best explains why this process results in weathering?
a)
frozen water acts as a solute
b)
water expands when it freezes
c)
the mass of water increases when it freezes
d)
frozen water dissolves most types of rock
152.
Which of the following is an example of mechanical weathering?
a)
Acidic groundwater dissolving limestone
b)
frost wedging
c)
Paper being burned
153.
Which agents  break down earth materials?
a)
wind only
b)
earthquakes and gravity
c)
ice and 007
d)
wind, water, and ice
154.
What are the two factors that affect the rate at which weathering occurs?
a)
climate and mass of rock
b)
climate and size of rock
c)
type of rock and size of rock
d)
type of rock and climate
155.
Rust that forms on rocks or metal because of extended exposure to oxygen is what example of chemical weathering?
a)
carbon dioxide (carbonic acid)
b)
acid rain
c)
oxidation
d)
lichens
156.
Which type of climate will have faster chemical weathering?
a)
Hot and Wet
b)
Cold and Dry
c)
Hot and Cold
d)
Cold and Wet
157.
When wind blows over the land, it picks up the smallest particles of sediment.
a)
True
b)
False
158.

What is a principal that states that geologic processes that occurred in the past can be explained by current geologic processes.

a)

Catastrophism

b)

Unconformity

c)

Uniformitarianism

d)

Angular Unconformity

159.
A delta at the mouth of a river is the direct result of 
a)
runoff from sewage
b)
deposition of sediment
c)
an ancient glacier that passed through
d)
an underground river flowing to the ocean
160.
Which rock particles will remain suspended in water for the longest time?
a)
pebbles
b)
silt
c)
clay
d)
sand
161.
When a stream flows into a lake, in what order are sediments deposited?
a)
clay, silt, sand then pebbles
b)
sand, silt, clay then pebbles
c)
pebbles, clay, silt then sand
d)
pebbles, sand, silt then clay
162.

The BREAKING DOWN into small pieces of rock or sand

a)

deposition

b)

erosion

c)

weathering

163.

The MOVEMENT of small pieces of rock or sand

a)

deposition

b)

erosion

c)

weathering

164.

The PILING UP or GATHERING of small pieces of rock or sand.

a)

deposition

b)

erosion

c)

weathering

165.

Weathering, erosion, and deposition happen _____________.

a)

very quickly

b)

very slowly

166.

Process in which sediment is laid down in new locations due to gravity's downward pull

a)

alluvial fan

b)

Floodplain

c)

Deposition

d)

Erosion

167.

an area along a river that forms from sediments deposited when the river overflows its banks

a)

alluvial fan

b)

Erosion

c)

Floodplain

d)

creep

168.

Processes by which rock, sand, and soil are broken down and carried away

a)

dune

b)

creep

c)

Erosion

d)

alluvial fan

169.

a fan-shaped mass of material deposited by a stream on dry land

a)

alluvial fan

b)

creep

c)

dune

d)

glacial drift

170.

the slow downhill movement of weathered rock material

a)

Loess

b)

glacial drift

c)

dune

d)

creep

171.

A hill or ridge of sand shaped by the wind

a)

contour line

b)

glacial drift

c)

dune

d)

Loess

172.

A wind-formed deposit made of fine particles of clay and silt

a)

Topography

b)

contour line

c)

Loess

d)

contour interval

173.

What is runoff?

a)

The process of sediment moving or being weathered away by wind or water.

b)

Water that moves over Earth's surface, because it doesn't infiltrate the ground.

c)

Water moving from the liquid state to the gaseous state.

d)

Observations described in words or letters.

174.

What is a tributary?

a)

A competitor in the Hunger Games; eg, Katniss Everdeen volunteered as a tributary in place of her sister.

b)

A mass of frozen water slowly moving over land; eg, you can see tributaries in Tributary National Park, in Montana.

c)

A larger stream or river that flows into a smaller one; eg, the Mississippi River is a tributary of the Kanawha River.

d)

A smaller stream or river that flows into a larger one; eg, the Kanawha River is a tributary of the Ohio River.

175.

With a steeper slope, we would expect to see...

a)

less erosion

b)

more erosion

c)

the same amount of erosion

d)

no erosion at all

176.
The steeper the slope, the ________ the stream.
a)
Slower
b)
Broader
c)
Faster
d)
Curvier
177.
At which location is the greatest amount of sediment most likely being deposited?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
178.
The diagram below shows a portion of a stream. The sand bar formed as a direct result of 
a)
erosion due to a decrease in stream velocity 
b)
erosion due to an increase in stream velocity
c)
deposition due to a decrease in stream velocity
d)
deposition due to an increase in stream velocity 
179.
Flash flooding often occurs in city areas because
a)
runoff decreases during preciptiation
b)
ground water storage is usually very large
c)
roads, pavements and buildings reduce the infiltration of water into the ground
d)
the heat generated by the city areas decreases actual evapotranspiration 
180.
_____ is one of the two types of glaciers.
a)
Valley
b)
Mountain
c)
Plain
d)
Ocean
181.
_____ is one type of glacier.
a)
Mountain
b)
Ocean
c)
Continental
d)
Plain
182.
A _____ glacier carves a V-shaped valley into a U-shaped valley.
a)
Valley
b)
Continental
c)
Mountain
d)
Plain
183.
A glacier is __________
a)
series of frozen lakes that line up parallel to one another 
b)
series of frozen seas that rest in the interior of continents 
c)
o  large body of ice that does not move across the earth's surface 
d)
large body of ice and snow that shows evidence of movement 
184.
Glaciers form when _____.
a)
less snow falls than melts 
b)
more snow falls than melts 
c)
less rain falls than freezes 
d)
more rain falls than freezes 
185.

Which is less dense?

a)

snow

b)

ice

186.
What happens when layers of snow keep piling up?
a)
The bottom layers are compressed into ice
b)
The top layers melt into water
c)
The top layers are compressed into ice
d)
The bottom layers melt into water
187.
How do glaciers erode land?
a)
By picking up soil and rocks and depositing them in new location
b)
By picking up water from lakes and streams and carrying it to the ocean
c)
By causing rain and snow in an area
d)
By lowering the atmospheric pressure, causing intense windstorms
188.

Which of the following is a sign that a valley glacier has moved through an area?

a)
pock-marks
b)
striation and grooves
c)
water deposits
d)
large boulders
189.
Which of the following is a true statement about glaciers?
a)
They often move at a rate of 2 kilometers per hour
b)
They exist on every continent except Africa
c)
North America is covered by valley glaciers
d)
Antarctica is covered with continental glaciers
190.
Deposited sediment from glaciers forms different land features, including hills called
a)
mountains
b)
piles
c)
moraines
d)
grooves
191.

Waves ERODE the land by

a)

picking up sediment like sand and gravel

b)

abrasion

c)

impact

d)

all of the above

192.

Where rock is softer, waves erode it faster

a)

True

b)

Flase

193.

Over time the waves may erode a small hollow area in a part of a rock called a

a)

sea cave

b)

sea arch

c)

beach

d)

non of the above

194.

When waves erode softer a layer of softer rock and becomes completely hollowed through

a)

sea cave

b)

sea arch

c)

beach

d)

none of the above

195.

Where wave-washed sediment along a coast drops

a)

sea arch

b)

sea cave

c)

beach

d)

None of the above

196.

Which of the following is considered a wave EROSION feature

a)

beach

b)

kettle

c)

oxbow lake

d)

sea cave

197.

Which of the following is considered a wave EROSION feature

a)

alluvial fan

b)

beach

c)

sea arch

d)

plucking

198.

Which image shows a sea cave?

a)
b)
c)
d)

None of the above

199.

Which image shows a sea arch?

a)
b)
c)
d)

None of the above

200.

Karst topography is an area that has

a)

lots of mountains

b)

many lakes

c)

caves and sinkholes

201.

Rock that is very likely to easily weather is

a)

igneous - granite

b)

sedimentary - limestone

c)

metamorphic - gneiss

202.

When a stalactite and stalagmite grow together (emotionally and physically), they form a(n)

a)

aquifer

b)

spectacularite

c)

column

d)

aquiclude

203.

An area with a lot of caves and sinkholes is called a ______ area.

a)

krast

b)

karst

c)

holey

d)

sinkhole

204.

A collapsed cave is called a

a)

karst

b)

sinkhole

c)

well

d)

zone of aeration

205.

Rock formations hanging from a roof are called ________.

a)

stalactites

b)

stalagmites

c)

troglodytes

d)

minerals

206.

This feature is formed when calcium carbonate is deposited on the floor of a cave.

a)

stalagmite

b)

sink hole

c)

stalactite

d)

pillar

207.

The layer of rock beneath the soil.

a)

transported soil

b)

bedrock

c)

soil

d)

parent rock

Similar Resources on Wayground

Y3 Physiopathology

208 questions

Y3 Physiopathology

quiz

Worksheet

•

KG - University

MAP Review

203 questions

MAP Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th - 8th Grade

IPAS Rangka dan Energi Alternatif PTS

210 questions

IPAS Rangka dan Energi Alternatif PTS

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th Grade