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Biology Final Review

Total questions: 209

Worksheet time: 4hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A plant growing towards the light is an example of 
a)
reproduction.
b)
responding to a stimuli.
c)
metabolism.
d)
homeostasis.
2.
A maggot changing into a fly is an example of 
a)
reproduction.
b)
growth and development.
c)
homeostasis.
d)
evolution.
3.
The maintenance of an organism’s internal environment is called:
a)
compensating
b)
homeostasis
c)
balancing
d)
routine
4.
What is an adaptation?
a)
A feature or behavior that helps an animal survive.
b)
The food that an animal eats.
c)
How energy moves in a food web.
d)
How animals evolve throughout time.
5.
What is the main source of energy on Earth?
a)
stars
b)
moon
c)
water
d)
sun
6.
The image seen here is of a person shivering due to cold temperature. This is an example of an organism maintaining ________________ in action!
a)
Homeostasis
b)
Adaptations
c)
Evolution
d)
Development
7.
The process whereby an organism produces more of its own kind
a)
development
b)
adaptation
c)
homeostasis
d)
reproduction
8.
 All organisms contain instruction molecules that help determine which traits the organism will have is an example of 
a)
universal genetic code (DNA/RNA)
b)
metabolism
c)
evolution
d)
growth and development
9.

What is the charge and location of electrons?

a)

0, nucleus

b)

-, nucleus

c)

-, electron cloud

d)

+, electron cloud

10.

What is the charge and location of neutrons?

a)

0, nucleus

b)

-, nucleus

c)

0, electron cloud

d)

+, electron cloud

11.

What is the charge and location of protons?

a)

+, nucleus

b)

-, nucleus

c)

0, electron cloud

d)

+, electron cloud

12.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of all living organisms?

a)

made of cells

b)

can reproduce

c)

based on a universal genetic code (DNA or RNA)

d)

multicellular

13.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of all living organisms?

a)

grows and develops

b)

responds to stimuli (environment)

c)

maintains homeostasis

d)

contains organelles

14.

Which is an example of quantitative data?

a)

The ball rolled 7m before stopping.

b)

Most of the bears had brown fur.

c)

Research participants were young adults.

d)

The more shrimp the flamingos ate, the pinker their feathers became.

15.

Which hypothesis is the best?

a)

If fertilizer is added to the plants, then they will grow taller than unfertilized plants.

b)

Does fertilizer make plants grow taller?

c)

I think that more fertilizer will make the plants grow taller.

d)

If fertilizer is added to the plants, they will be taller.

16.

You want to determine which type of fruit birds in your backyard like the most. What is the independent variable?

a)

type of fruit

b)

location of birdfeeder

c)

how the birds act

17.

You want to determine which type of fruit birds in your backyard like the most. What is the dependent variable?

a)

type of fruit

b)

location of birdfeeder

c)

how the birds act

18.

What is NOT evidence that science has been done well/can be trusted?

a)

the published paper has been peer-reviewed

b)

a large sample size

c)

the findings were found many times

d)

the author works for a large university

19.
the central region of an atom where its neutrons and protons are is its 
a)
nucleus 
b)
electron cloud
c)
core 
d)
center 
20.
What is the number of protons that the element in this image contain?
a)
14
b)
7
c)
15
d)
18
21.

If an atom has 12 protons, which of the following must it also have to be considered a neutral atom?

a)

12 neutrons

b)

12 electrons

c)

12 protons

d)

24 protons and neutrons

22.
If an atom has 10 protons, 10 neutrons, and 10 electrons, what is the mass of the atom?
a)
10
b)
20
c)
30
23.

What charge does an atom have when it GAINS electrons?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Neutral

24.

If the mass number of this chlorine atom is 36, how many neutrons does it have?

a)

17

b)

18

c)

19

d)

can't be determined

25.
An atom with an unequal number of protons and electrons is said to have (a) ___.
a)
no charge
b)
balance
c)
charge
d)
unbalance
26.
What two elements make up water?
a)
Helium and oxygen
b)
Hydrogen and oxygen
c)
helium and carbon
d)
oxygen and carbon
27.
What word describes when water is attracted to other substances?
a)
cohesion
b)
adhesion
c)
capillary action
d)
surface tension
28.
Attractions between the negative Oxygen atom of one water molecule and the positive Hydrogen atom of another water molecule are called
a)
Covalent bonds
b)
Ionic bonds
c)
Polar bonds
d)
Hydrogen bonds
29.
Why does ice float?
a)
As water freezes, it expands and its density decreases.
b)
As water freezes, it takes up more hydrogen from the atmosphere, causing it to have a greater buoyancy.
c)
As water freezes, air becomes trapped between the hydrogen bonds of water molecules.
d)
As water freezes, it takes up more oxygen from the atmosphere, causing it to have a greater buoyancy.
30.
Which end of the water molecule has a slightly positive charge?
a)
the oxygen end
b)
the hydrogen end
c)
both ends are slightly positive
d)
neither end is positive
31.
Water is a universal solvent because it...
a)
It can be found anywhere
b)
It freezes when it gets cold
c)
floats when frozen
d)
Dissolves most substances
32.
Large bodies of water, such as lakes and oceans, do not quickly fluctuate in temperature. What is the reason for this phenomenon?
a)
Water is an acid.
b)
Water is a versatile solvent.
c)
Water has a high heat capacity.
d)
 Water acts as a buffer.
33.
 Small insects can walk across the surface of calm water. Their feet push the surface of the water down slightly, somewhat like a person walking across a trampoline, but they do not break the surface. What is the best explanation for why this happens?
a)
The insects are light enough so that they do not break the hydrogen bonds holding the water molecules together
b)
The insects actually use their wings to hover slightly above the water's surface and they only skim it with their feet
c)
The insects' feet are non-polar, so they are repelled by the polar water molecules and are pushed away from the water's surface
d)
The insects are small enough to see the individual water molecules, so they are able to step carefully from one molecule to the next
34.
A(n) ______ is a substance with a pH less than 7
a)
Acid
b)
Alkaline
c)
Base
d)
Buffer
35.
What is the only substance with a neutral pH of 7?
a)
Milk
b)
Orange Juice
c)
Water
d)
Blood
36.

The electrons in a polar covalent molecule are shared...

a)

Evenly

b)

Unevenly

c)

Electrons are not shared

d)

None of the Above

37.

What does the suffix -phobia mean?

a)

study of

b)

life

c)

hundred

d)

fear

38.

If a surface absorbs and attracts water molecules it is....

a)

clear

b)

a leaf

c)

hydrophobic

d)

hydrophilic

39.
Proteins are made of monomers called ___________
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Glycerol and fatty acids
40.
The element _______is found in all of the organic compounds.
a)
Iron
b)
Nitrogen
c)
Carbon
d)
Oxygen
41.
DNA and RNA are examples of 
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
42.
Nucleotides are monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
43.
Monosaccharides are monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
44.
Waxes, oils and fats are examples of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
45.
Glycerol and fatty acids are the monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
46.
The organic compounds that have many structural purposes and are used in many processes within the
cell are called ____________________.
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
47.
What is the function of nucleic acids?
a)
store genetic information
b)
store energy (long-term)
c)
store energy (short-term)
d)
build skin, hair, nails, muscles
48.

Which macromolecule is shown?

a)

lipid

b)

protein

c)

nucleic acid

d)

carbohydrate

49.
What type of macromolecule are enzymes?
a)
Protein
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Lipid
d)
Nucleic Acid
50.
Which of the following organic compounds is the main source of energy for living things?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
lipids
c)
nucleic acids
d)
proteins
51.
Which macromolecule stores energy, insulates us, and makes up the cell membrane?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
52.
What are the four macromolecules?
a)
proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids
b)
monosaccharides, lipids, polysaccaharides, and proteins
c)
RNA, DNA, proteins, and carbohydrates
d)
proteins, DNA, RNA, and steroids
53.
What suffix (word ending) is used in the names of most carbohydrates?
a)
-ase
b)
-nic
c)
-ose
d)
-yme
54.
With what 3 letters do enzymes typically end?
a)
-ose
b)
-ase
c)
-ese
d)
-tic
55.
Enzymes are...
a)
nucleic acids
b)
proteins
c)
lipids
d)
carbohydrates
56.
What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?
a)
The enzymes die.
b)
The shapes of the enzyme are altered denature
c)
The enzymes' amino acid sequence changes.
d)
The enzymes remain the same
57.
Where do substrates bind on an enzyme?
a)
voltage-gated channels
b)
surface receptor
c)
calcium channels
d)
active site
58.
What is a substance called if it speeds up a chemical reaction?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
59.

What is indicated by letter C?

a)

enzyme

b)

product

c)

substrate

d)

active site

60.

What is indicated by letter B?

a)

enzyme

b)

product

c)

substrate

d)

active site

61.
Connects monomers to form a polymer
a)
Dehydration synthesis
b)
hydrolysis
62.
Breaks up polymers, forming monomers
a)
dehydration synthesis
b)
hydrolysis
63.
The following figure is illustrating
a)
Dehydration Synthesis
b)
Hydrolysis
64.
The following figure is illustrating
a)
Dehydration Synthesis
b)
Hydrolysis
65.
This is the most basic unit of life
a)
atom
b)
cell
c)
nucleus
d)
DNA
66.
Cells come only from what?
a)
existing cells
b)
nucleus
c)
fission
d)
budding
67.
The Cell Theory states...
a)
atoms create all matter
b)
living things evolve
c)
the cell is the backbone of all matter
d)
cells are the basic unit of structure and organization of organisms
68.
Which of the following statements is not part of the cell theory?
a)
Cells are the basic unit of structure and function in all living things.
b)
All cells are produced from other cells.
c)
Only animal cells are composed of cells.
d)
All living things are composed of cells.
69.
This organelle helps plants keep their rigid structure. 
a)
Cell wall
b)
Cell membrane
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Nucleus
70.
This organelle turns the light energy into a simple sugar. 
a)
Mitochondria
b)
ER
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Nucleus
71.
This organelle makes proteins. 
a)
Cell membrane
b)
Nucleus
c)
Ribosome
d)
ER
72.
What is the fluid inside a cell called? 
a)
Endoplasimic Reticulum
b)
Orange Juice
c)
Water
d)
Cytoplasm
73.
Where is DNA stored in a cell? 
a)
Lysosomes
b)
Golgi Complex
c)
Ribosomes
d)
Nucleus
74.
This organelle creates energy.
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Mitochondria
d)
ER
75.
Which organelle is only found in a plant cell? 
a)
nucleus
b)
chloroplast
c)
mitochondria
d)
cell membrane
76.
The Golgi apparatus _____.
a)
packages cell products for export
b)
eliminates waste
c)
stores DNA
d)
makes energy
77.
A phospholipid has 2 parts. What are they called? 
a)
Hydrophilic Head, Hydrophobic Tail 
b)
Hydrophobic Head, Hydrophilic Tail 
78.
___________ have 2 functions in the cell membrane.
1.) They act like gatekeepers, only let certain things in. 
2.) Enzyme receptors embedded in the membrane.
a)
Carbohydrates 
b)
Proteins 
c)
Phospholipids 
d)
Cholesterol
79.
Something is ___________ ____________
when some molecules can cross the membrane while others cannot. 
a)
Selectively (or Semi) Permeable 
b)
Totally Transparent
c)
Liquid Licorice 
d)
Heavily Patrolled 
80.
The function of the plasma membrane is....
a)
to regulate what enters and leaves the cell.
b)
fight bacteria and viruses that enter the cell.
c)
provide rigid support and protection to the cell.
d)
make sure each cell can move
81.
Which type of Passive Transport is being represented in this picture?
a)
Passive Diffusion
b)
Simple Diffusion
c)
Active Diffusion
d)
Facilitated Diffusion
82.
What type of solution is this cell in?
a)
Isotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Hypotonic
d)
diffused
83.
What type of solution is this cell in?
a)
Isotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Hypotonic
d)
diffused
84.
What type of solution is this cell in?
a)
Isotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Hypotonic
d)
diffused
85.
which of the following terms means the movement of water from high concentration to low concentration
a)
diffusion
b)
prokaryotes
c)
osmosis
d)
concentration
86.
Movement of materials from high to low concentration through a protein channel. 
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
87.
This picture represents what type of cell transport?
a)
endocytosis
b)
exocytosis
c)
osmosis
d)
passive transport
88.
What process does a multi-cellular organism use to replace its damaged body cells?
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
replication
d)
transcription
89.
Which of these phases of mitosis take place first?
a)
anaphase
b)
telophase
c)
prophase
d)
metaphase
90.
Identify the stage of mitosis.
a)
interphase
b)
prophase
c)
metaphase
d)
anaphase
91.
Identify the stage of mitosis. 
a)
interphase
b)
prophase
c)
anaphase
d)
cytokinesis
92.

What is the image above:

a)

Chromosome

b)

Chromotid

c)

Centromere

d)

Centriole

93.

A chromosome is packaged

a)

DNA

b)

Protein

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Lipids

94.

What stage of mitosis is depicted here

a)

Prophase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Metaphase

95.

What stage of mitosis is depicted here

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

96.

What stage of mitosis is depicted here

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

97.

Nuclear membrane breaks down, spindle fibers form describes:

a)

Prophase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Telophase

98.

Spindle fibers attach, centrioles line chromosomes in the center of the cell describes:

a)

Prophase

b)

Telophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

99.

Centrioles pull the chromosomes apart towards the opposite sides of the cell describes:

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Anaphase

100.
Cancer creates abnormal cells by disrupting
a)
the cell cycle
b)
red blood cell formation
c)
DNA replication
d)
ATP synthesis
101.
An abnormal mass of cancer cells is called a 
a)
tumor
b)
cyst
c)
lesion
d)
polyp
102.
Any substance that is known to cause cancer is called a
a)
carcinogen
b)
nicolyte
c)
pathogen
d)
retrovirus
103.
Metastasis is
a)
the spread of cancer from one part of the body to another.
b)
the growth of tumors in the lungs
c)
cancer of the blood cells
d)
cancer that is found in connective tissues
104.

Where in a plant cell does photosynthesis take place

a)

Palisade cells

b)

Chlorophyll

c)

Chloroplasts

d)

Vacuole

105.

What is the purpose of photosynthesis?

a)

To release energy

b)

To create glucose

c)

To grow

d)

To get oxygen for respiration

106.

What are the products of photosynthesis?

a)

Oxygen and Energy

b)

Carbon Dioxide and Glucose

c)

Glucose and Oxygen

d)

Oxygen and Water

107.
The main source of energy for all life comes from ____.
a)
the Earth
b)
the moon
c)
the sun
d)
the food we eat/make
108.
What molecule absorbs sunlight for photosynthesis?
a)
chloroplast
b)
thylakoid
c)
grana
d)
chlorophyll
109.

The Calvin Cycle occurs in the

a)

Thylakoid

b)

Grana

c)

Inner membrane of chloroplast

d)

Stroma

110.
Where do the light reactions happen?
a)
mitochondria membrane
b)
thylakoid membrane
c)
stroma
d)
central vacuole
111.
What is the main purpose of the light dependent reactions?
a)
To provide the energy for the calvin cycle
b)
To capture energy and make sugar
c)
To reflect green light
d)
To make sugars
112.

Choose the statement that best describes light reaction.

a)

It converts CO2 to sugar molecule

b)

It converts light energy to chemical energy of ATP and NADPH

c)

It takes place in the stroma

113.
Glucose is a ...
a)
sugar
b)
carbohydrate
c)
source of quick energy
d)
all are correct
114.
What kind of cells are made in MEIOSIS?
a)
Haploid Gametes
b)
Diploid Somatic Cells
c)
Skin Cells
d)
Liver Cells
115.
Diploid Cells are represented by
a)
2n
b)
n
c)
4n
d)
1/2 n
116.
When an area of a chromatid is exchanged with the matching area on a chromatid of its homologous chromosome, _________________ occurs
a)
crossing over
b)
mutagenesis
c)
hybridization
d)
fertilization
117.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.  
a)
homozygous 
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
118.
How many daughter cells are produced at the end of meiosis?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
119.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
120.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
121.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
122.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
123.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
124.
The process of making an mRNA strand from a DNA template is called
a)
Replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Protein Synthesis
125.
The process of using an mRNA to make a protein is called
a)
Replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Cell Division
126.
Transcription takes place in the 
a)
cytoplasm
b)
chloroplast
c)
nucleus
d)
mitochondria
127.
Contains a phosphate group
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Both
128.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
129.
What mutation has occurred here? 
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift 
130.
Any change in the sequence of DNA is...
a)
transgenic shift
b)
Single Genotype
c)
Monohybrid Trait
d)
Mutation
131.
ATTTGAGCC- Original
ATTGAGCC - Mutated
The example above is an example of a 
a)
Insertion- Frameshift
b)
Deletion- Substitution
c)
Deletion -Frameshift
d)
All of the above
132.
A type of substitution in which no  amino acids change is called 
a)
Missense
b)
Nonsense
c)
Silent
d)
Deletion
133.
What is it called when a sperm and egg meet?
a)
meiosis
b)
fertilization
c)
cell division
d)
mitosis
134.
A male shark has 40 chromosomes in each of its sex cells. How many would be present in its body cells?
a)
20
b)
40
c)
80
d)
160
135.
Compared to the number of chromosomes contained in a body cell, how many chromosomes would normally be contained in a gamete?
a)
The same number
b)
One-fourth as many
c)
Twice as many
d)
Half as many
136.
What causes genetic variation in meiosis?
a)
chromosomes lining up
b)
crossing over of chromosomes
c)
separation of chromosomes
d)
chromosomes pulling apart
137.
A human being has a somatic cell that has 46 chromosomes.  What is the haploid number found in a gamete?
a)
23
b)
46
c)
69
d)
92
138.
Diploid Cells are represented by
a)
2n
b)
n
c)
4n
d)
1/2 n
139.
Which enzyme has the job of unzipping the double helix?
a)
Helicase
b)
Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primerase
140.
Sometimes, DNA is called "semi-conservative." Why might this be?
a)
The old strand is "conserved" and used to make the new strands
b)
Uracil is "conserved" in that it is only used to make the new strands
c)
ATP is "conserved" via the usage of facilitated diffusion
d)
Ligase is "conserved" in that it is denatured by the process
141.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
142.
The mRNA leaves the ________ to find the ribosome to make proteins.
a)
cell
b)
nucleotide
c)
nucleus
143.

Choose the sequence of the mRNA strand that would be match up with to the following strand:

GTAGTCA

a)

UATUAGA

b)

ACGACTG

c)

CAUCAGU

d)

CATCAGT

144.
The main function of tRNA is to...
a)
carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins
b)
form a portion of ribosomes
c)
string together complementary RNA and DNA strands
d)
bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
145.
What part of protein synthesis does this diagram represent?
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
RNA
146.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
147.
DNA travels outside of the nucleus.
a)
true
b)
false
148.
Where do cells get the information to make proteins?
a)
RNA
b)
DNA
c)
phosphate group
149.
Messenger RNA carries a copy of the DNA code.
a)
true
b)
false
150.

Which of Mendel's laws states that alleles are separated during meiosis?

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Independent Assortment

151.

Which of Mendel's laws states that alleles are distributed to gametes independent of one another?

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Independent Assortment

152.

If a dominant allele is present, the trait will always appear in the organism.

a)

Law of Segregation

b)

Law of Dominance

c)

Law of Independent Assortment

153.

The image is showing two possible ways non-homologous chromosomes may line up during metaphase 1 of meiosis 1. Which of Mendel's laws is this image depicting?

a)

Mendel's Law of dominance

b)

Mendel's Law of recessive

c)

Mendel's Law of random assortment

d)

Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment

154.

Passing on traits from parents to offspring

a)

Chromosome

b)

Genotype

c)

Heredity

d)

Allele

155.

The study of heredity

a)

Genetics

b)

Genome

c)

Allele

d)

Punnett Square

156.

The instructions of this allele are covered up by the other allele in a homologous pair. Symbolized by a small letter.

a)

Homozygous

b)

Dominant

c)

Recessive

d)

Genetics

157.

The instruction of one allele covers up the instruction

of the other allele in a homologous pair. Symbolized by a capital letter.

a)

Recessive Allele

b)

Dominant Allele

c)

Heredity

d)

Trait

158.

A genotype where only dominant alleles were passed on

from both parents for one trait

BB AA TT LL

a)

Homozygous Recessive

b)

Homozygous Dominant

c)

Dihybrid

d)

Heredity

159.

A genotype where only recessive alleles

were passed on from both parents for one trait

bb aa tt ll

a)

Heredity

b)

Homozygous Dominant

c)

Homozygous Recessive

d)

Phenotype

160.

A genotype where one dominant and one recessive allele was passed on from both parents for one trait.

Bb Aa Tt Ll

a)

Allele

b)

Homozygous Dominant

c)

Homozygous Recessive

d)

Heterozygous

161.

The observable traits dictated by the genotype

a)

Phenotype

b)

Genotype

c)

Homozygous Recessive

d)

Homozygous Dominant

162.

Referring to the original parents.

a)

P1

b)

F1

c)

F2

d)

Homozygous

163.

First Filial (child) Generation: the offspring of P1

a)

P1

b)

F2

c)

F1

d)

Heterozygous

164.

Second Filial Generation: the offspring of F1

a)

P1

b)

F1

c)

F2

d)

Homozygous Recessive

165.

The chance that a genotype or phenotype

will actually occur in offspring

a)

Probability

b)

Phenotype

c)

Genotype

d)

Homozygous Recessive

166.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
167.
What allele combination should go in the missing box?
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
d)
none of these
168.
G = green, g = yellow
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
all of the choices result in yellow
169.
If B = brown hair and b = blonde hair, what is the probability of brown hair?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
0%
d)
75%
170.
What is the probability of homozygous dominant offspring?
a)
0%
b)
100%
c)
50%
d)
25%
171.
What is the probability of heterozygous offspring?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
0%
d)
100%
172.
incomplete dominance means that there traits are,,,
a)
expressed equally
b)
dominant
c)
recessive
d)
blended
173.

What pattern of inheritance is shown in this image?

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

c)

Complete dominance

174.

What pattern of inheritance is shown in this image?

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

c)

Complete dominance

175.
Which term(s) best describes the inheritance of human blood types? 
a)
incomplete dominance and multiple alleles
b)
codominance and epistasis
c)
codominance and multiple alleles
d)
incomplete dominance and codominance
176.

A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Independent assortment

d)

Recessive inheritance

177.

Snap dragon color is a incomplete dominant trait. A red flower (RR) is crossed with white flower (R'R')? What color are flowers that are RR'?

a)

Red

b)

Red and White

c)

White

d)

Pink

178.

There are many different alleles for fur color in cats. What is this an example of?

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete Dominance

c)

Multiple Alleles

d)

Polygenic Traits

179.

A piece of a chromosome is copied and remains within the chromosome

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

180.

The portion or segment of the DNA strand that codes for a particular protein is called a _____________________.

a)

gene

b)

chromosome

c)

codon

d)

anticodon

181.

Which statement best defines a mutation?

a)

a physical trait that negatively impacts the organism

b)

an adaptive trait that allows the individual to be better fit for survival

c)

a change in the order, number, or type of bases in the genetic code

d)

an identical copy of the original DNA strand

182.

Chemical or physical agents in the environment that may cause mutations are called:

a)

mutants

b)

mutagens

c)

chromosomal mutations

d)

missense mutations

183.

Mutations that change a single base pair, usually involving a substitution of one base for another:

a)

chromosomal mutation

b)

polyploidy

c)

translocation

d)

point mutation

184.

Insertions and deletions are also known as:

a)

frameshift mutations

b)

chromosomal mutations

c)

silent mutations

d)

polyploidy

185.

______________________________________ is a type of chromosomal mutation when part of the chromosome breaks off and attaches to another chromosome.

a)

duplication

b)

translocation

c)

subtraction

d)

deletion

186.

Mutations can be beneficial because they increase genetic _____________________ and can make the individual and species more likely to survive.

a)

diseases

b)

complications

c)

disorders

d)

diversity

187.

What type of chromosomal mutation is shown in the picture?

a)

Inversion

b)

Translocation

c)

Deletion

d)

Duplication

188.
Advantages of genetically modified crops include(s)
a)
insect resistance
b)
drought/freeze resistance
c)
higher yield
d)
all of these are reasons for using GMOs
189.
Putting the gene for bioluminescence into a fish is an example of...
a)
Genetic Engineering
b)
Selective Breeding
c)
Artificial Selection
d)
Gene Mutation
190.
If this pedigree shows an autosomal recessive disorder, what MUST the genotype of individual II-3 be?
a)
HH
b)
Hh
c)
hh
d)
None of the above
191.

What type of heredity is shown in the pedigree?

a)
Sex-Linked Dominant
b)
Sex-Linked Recessive
c)
Autosomal Dominant
d)
Autosomal Recessive 
192.
In a pedigree, what shape represents a male?
a)
circle
b)
square
c)
triangle
d)
diamond
193.
How many generations are shown in this pedigree?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
194.
This pedigree represents the inheritance of hemophilia in this family. How many of the females have the hemophilia trait?
a)
8
b)
5
c)
2
d)
3
195.
Huntington's Disease is a dominant trait.
What is the correct genotype for individual I-2?
a)
HH
b)
Hh
c)
hh
d)
H_
196.
Does this pedigree show a dominant or recessive trait?
a)
Dominant
b)
Recessive
197.
Hemophilia is a recessive sex-linked trait. If H = normal & h = has hemophilia, which genotype represents a male with hemophilia. 
a)
XHY
b)
XHXh
c)
XhXh
d)
XhY 
198.
Give the genotype for person III-3
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
199.

The pedigree is showing a _____________ trait.

a)

autosomal dominant

b)

autosomal recessive

c)

sex linked recessive

200.
This trait is recessive.  What is the genotype for person II-1?
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
can't be determined
201.
What is the genotype of the mother?
a)
BB
b)
bb
c)
Bb
d)
BB or Bb
202.
What is the genotype of the father?
a)
AA
b)
aa
c)
Aa
d)
AA or aa
203.

This is a __ trait.

a)

autosomal recessive

b)

sex-linked recessive

c)

autosomal dominant

204.

Generation 2 individuals 5 and 6 are

a)

brother and sister.

b)

cousins.

c)

married.

d)

not related.

205.
Who was the naturalist that traveled the world to study plants and animals?
a)
Albert Einstein
b)
Charles Darwin
c)
Charles Barkley
d)
Isaac Newton
206.
Which term refers to the process by which individuals that are better suited to the environment survive and reproduce therefore passing down their genes to their offspring? 
a)
Evolution 
b)
Variation 
c)
Adaptation
d)
Natural Selection 
207.
Genetic differences between organisms of the same species
a)
Variation
b)
Adaptation
c)
Behavior
d)
Environment
208.
Mutations are important because they bring about
a)
death of the organism in which they develop
b)
genetic variation needed for a population to evolve
c)
benefits for the individual, not for the population
d)
Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a population
209.
The ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its specific environment 
a)
diversity.
b)
evolution
c)
adaptation
d)
 fitness

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