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Sports Medicine II Final Exam

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which type of joint is feely movable and held together by ligaments

a)

synarthrotic

b)

amphiarthrotic

c)

diarthrtoic

2.

Which type of synovial joint allows for only flexion and extension

a)

condyloid

b)

gliding

c)

hinge

d)

saddle

3.

Which type of synovial joint allows for the widest range of motion

a)

hinge

b)

ball-and-socket

c)

pivot

d)

saddle

4.

Which directional movement describes moving a limb AWAY from the midline

a)

abduction

b)

adduction

c)

flexion

d)

extension

5.

Which motion occurs when one bone turns on a stable axis

a)

dorsiflexion

b)

plantar flexion

c)

circumduction

d)

rotation

6.

Which movement involves "pointing" the toes and is characterized by the sole of the foot moving downward

a)

dorsiflexion

b)

plantar flexion

c)

supination

d)

pronation

7.

Which anatomical plane separates the body into anterior and posterior portion

a)

transverse

b)

sagittal

c)

coronal/frontal

8.

The phalanges are _ to the elbow

a)

proximal

b)

distal

9.

The eyes are _ to the nose

a)

inferior

b)

superior

10.

performing a squat is an example of a(n) _ kinetic chain exercise

a)

closed

b)

open

11.

A contusion would be an example of which force

a)

Tension

b)

Bending

c)

Torsion

d)

Compression

12.

An ankle sprain is caused by which type of force

a)

tension

b)

compression

c)

shear

d)

torsion

13.

Blisters are an example of which force

a)

compression

b)

torsion

c)

bending

d)

shearing

14.

Which phase of healing involves a 6 step sequence that starts immediately after injury

a)

fibroblastic repair

b)

remodeling

c)

acute inflammatory response

15.

Which is NOT a sign of inflammation

a)

palness

b)

tenderness

c)

loss of function

d)

heat

16.

Which phase of healing is the longest?

a)

acute inflammatory

b)

fibroblastic repair

c)

maturation-remodeling

17.

Which is NOT a phase of bone healing

a)

soft callus

b)

remodeling

c)

fibroblastic repair

d)

blood

18.

Which law states "repaired tissue will adapt to the forces placed upon it"

a)

murphy's law

b)

wolff's law

c)

newton's law

d)

coulomb's law

19.

When bone is remodeling, which cells are responsible for breaking down bone cells

a)

osteocytes

b)

osteoclasts

c)

osteoblasts

20.

Which factor does NOT negatively affect soft tissue healing

a)

poor nutrition

b)

young age

c)

infection

d)

diabetes

21.

Which ankle ligament is located on the medial side of the ankle

a)

anterior talofibular ligament

b)

calcaneofibular

c)

posterior tibiofibular ligament

d)

deltoid ligament

22.

Which bone forms the lateral malleolus of the ankle

a)

tibia

b)

talus

c)

fibula

d)

navicular

23.

Which anatomical structure is responsible for reinforcing the medial longitudinal arch

a)

anterior tibiofibular ligament

b)

posterior tibiofibular ligament

c)

spring ligament

d)

deltoid ligament

24.

Which bone is NOT one of the tarsals

a)

navicular

b)

capitate

c)

cuboid

d)

calcaneus

25.

Which ligament is the most commonly sprained ligament in the ankle

a)

anteirior talofibular ligament

b)

calcaneofibular ligament

c)

posterior talofibular ligament

d)

deltoid ligament

26.

The _ malleolus is the most common type of ankle fracture

a)

medial

b)

lateral

27.

_ affects the distal 1/3 of the tibia and occurs due to over use

a)

medial tibial stress syndrome

b)

tarsal tunnel syndrome

c)

hallux vaglus

d)

retrocalcaneal bursitis

28.

Which fracture occurs in the 5th metatarsal

a)

Boxer's fracture

b)

Bennet's fracture

c)

Colle's fracture

d)

Jones' Fracture

29.

Which injury is common in athletes with pes planus and is characterized by sharp pain in the bottom of the foot

a)

Turf Toe

b)

Hallux Valgus

c)

Metarsalgia

d)

Plantar Fasciitis

30.

Which injury is caused by hyperextension of the UCL ligament in the great toe

a)

metarsalgia

b)

turf toe

c)

hallux valgus

d)

subungal hematoma

31.

Which ligament protects against valgus force in the knee

a)

MCL

b)

ACL

c)

PCL

d)

LCL

32.

In which direction is the knee LEAST stable

a)

medial and lateral

b)

anterior and posterior

33.

Which is NOT true about the menisci

a)

they stabilize the knee in flexion

b)

they maintain joint space between the femur and tibia

c)

cushion the knee with movement

d)

has great blood supply

34.

Which anatomical landmark serves as the attachment for the patella tendon

a)

tibial tuberosity

b)

pes ansurine

c)

gerdy's tubercle

35.

Which is NOT a muscle of the quadriceps

a)

biceps femoris

b)

rectus femoris

c)

vastus lateralis

d)

vastus medialis

36.

Which injury affects 20% of the population and occurs when the synovial capsule fails to close

a)

osteochondritis

b)

knee plica syndrome

c)

chondromalacia

d)

osgoo-schlatter

37.

Which injury causes pain on the lateral aspect of the knee from friction

a)

jumper's knee

b)

osgood schlatter

c)

osteochondritis

d)

runner's knee

38.

Which ligament would most likely be damaged during a non-contact injury such as cutting on a planted foot with valgus force or hyperextension of the knee

a)

LCL

b)

ACL

c)

PCL

d)

MCL

39.

Which injury of the knee is characterized by the deterioration of the cartilage under the knee cap

a)

knee plica syndrome

b)

patella subluxation

c)

chondromalacia

d)

meniscus tear

40.

What injury occurs when the patella laterally displaces from the femoral groove and stays out

a)

subluxation

b)

dislocation

41.

What is the strongest bone in the body

a)

ilium

b)

ischium

c)

pubic

d)

femur

42.

Which anatomical landmark of the hip creates the "socket"

a)

femoral head

b)

obturator foramen

c)

acetabulum

d)

greater sciatic notch

43.

Which anatomical landmark serves as the attachment site for the hamstring

a)

ischial tuberosity

b)

iliac crest

c)

PSIS

d)

ASIS

44.

Which muscle is responsible for hip extension

a)

TFL

b)

pectinus

c)

gluteus maximus

d)

psoas major

45.

What might be the cause of an anteriorly tilted pelvis

a)

tight quadriceps

b)

tight hamstrings

c)

tight gracilis

d)

tight TFL

46.

What anatomical landmark is a large opening created by the ischium and pubis to allow blood vessels and nerves to pass

a)

obturator foramen

b)

greater sciatic notch

c)

acetabulum

d)

iliac crest

47.

Which quadriceps muscle is most commonly injured muscle

a)

vastus lateralis

b)

vastus medialis

c)

rectus femoris

d)

vastus intermedius

48.

Which condition might lead to the development of myositis ossificans?

a)

using massage within 48 hours of injury

b)

using ice within 48 hours of injury

c)

flexing the knee within 48 hours of injury

d)

using an ace wrap within 48 hours of injury

49.

immediate pain, spasm and inability to rotate the trunk are signs of which injury

a)

hip dislocation

b)

hip pointer

c)

myositis ossificans

50.

Which athlete is more likely to experience a femoral stress fracture

a)

male sprinter

b)

female sprinter

c)

male cross country athlete

d)

female cross country athlete

51.

Which is NOT an articulation of the shoulder complex

a)

glenohumeral

b)

sternoclavicular

c)

scapulothroacic

d)

acromiocoracoid

52.

Where can I palpate the proximal biceps tendon?

a)

intertubecular groove

b)

subacromial space

c)

between first rib and clavicle

d)

attached to the coracoid process

53.

Which ligament is the main source of stability for the shoulder

a)

acromioclavicular

b)

glenohumeral

c)

sternoclavicular

d)

coracoclavicular

54.

Which is NOT a rotator cuff muscle

a)

supraspinatus

b)

teres minor

c)

rhomboid major

d)

infraspinatus

55.

Which anatomical landmark is the anterior projection of the scapula?

a)

acromion process

b)

deltoid tuberosity

c)

greater tubercle

d)

coracoid process

56.

A step deformity/keyboard sign in the shoulder can indicate which injury

a)

AC joint sprain

b)

biceps tendonitis

c)

tight pectoral muscles

d)

shoulder dislocation

57.

Which is the most common type of shoulder dislocation

a)

anterior

b)

posterior

c)

inferior

58.

Which tendon is the most common involved tendon in rotator cuff pathologies

a)

subscapularis

b)

infraspinatus

c)

supraspinatus

d)

teres minor

59.

Winging scapula, tingling and numbness and a cold sensation throughout the upper limb are signs of which condition

a)

AC joint sprain

b)

SLAP tear

c)

thoracic outlet syndrome

d)

shoulder impingement

60.

Which shoulder injury is common in former athletes over the age of 30 and causes weakness of the supraspinatus

a)

impingement syndrome

b)

ac joint sprains

c)

rotator cuff tendon rupture

d)

labrum tear

61.

Which is NOT an articulation of the elbow

a)

humeroulnar

b)

humeroradial

c)

proximal radioulnar

d)

distal radioulnar

62.

The medial condyle of the humerus is known as the _

a)

capitulum

b)

coracoid

c)

coronoid

d)

trochlea

63.

The olecranon process is located _ aspect of the ulna

a)

anterior

b)

posterior

c)

medial

d)

lateral

64.

The UCL of the elbow protects against _ forces

a)

varus

b)

valgus

c)

shearing

d)

compression

65.

Which nerve runs along the medial aspect of the elbow

a)

musculocutaneous

b)

median

c)

radial

d)

ulnar

66.

Which injury occurs when an athlete eccentrically loads their tendon during lifting and/or flexion

a)

UCL rupture

b)

olecranon bursitis

c)

distal biceps tendon rupture

d)

humerus condyle fracture

67.

Which injury occurs 10-25% of all young pitchers and encompasses multiple conditions

a)

lateral epicondylitis

b)

little league elbow

c)

medial epicondylitis

d)

cubital tunnel syndrome

68.

Olecranon bursitis can be caused by repetitive use of the _ tendon

a)

biceps brachii

b)

triceps brachii

c)

supinator

d)

pronator teres

69.

A baseball pitcher who experiences "dead arm" and pain over the medial elbow with a positive valgus stress test

a)

UCL rupture

b)

golfer's elbow

c)

tennis elbow

d)

little league elbow

70.

What is the mechanism of injury for a majority of acute elbow injuries?

a)

fall on out stretched arm

b)

varus force

c)

fall on a bent arm

71.

What is the collective name for the 8 short bones of the wrist

a)

tarsals

b)

carpals

c)

metacarpals

d)

metatarsals

72.

Which of the following is NOT a carpal bone

a)

scaphoid

b)

capitate

c)

calcaneus

d)

hamate

73.

Which nerve innervates the thumb through the lateral half of the 4th finger and involved in carpal tunnel syndrome

a)

ulnar

b)

median

c)

radial

74.

Which deformity of the wrist is seen with a Colle's fracture

a)

dinner fork

b)

madlung

c)

ape hand

d)

boutonniere

75.

Which muscle is responsible for wrist flexion

a)

palmaris longus

b)

extensor pollicis longus

c)

flexor pollicis longus

d)

brachioradialis

76.

Which injury is caused by a violent twist of the wrist or hyperextension and has tenderness between the ulna and the triquetrum

a)

carpal tunnel syndrome

b)

scaphoid fracture

c)

TFCC injury

d)

colle's fracture

77.

Tenosynovitis of the thumb is known as _ Syndrome

a)

Bennet's

b)

Boxer's

c)

de Quervain's

d)

Carpal Tunnel

78.

The most common fractured carpal bone is the _

a)

scaphoid

b)

hamate

c)

capitate

d)

pisiform

79.

Which injury is tenosynovitis of the flexor tendon of the finger and causes snapping or the inability to extend the finger

a)

Jersey finger

b)

gamekeeper's

c)

mallet finger

d)

trigger finger

80.

A _ fracture is a break of the 5th metacarpal

a)

Bennet's

b)

Boxer's

c)

Jones'

d)

Smiths

81.

Which part of the brain coordinates all voluntary movements, interprets sensory information and controls higher mental functions

a)

brain stem

b)

cerebrum

c)

cerebellum

82.

Which is the tough, outermost layer of the meninges that protect the brain

a)

pia matar

b)

dura matar

c)

arachnoid

83.

Which part of the eye makes up the colored portion

a)

iris

b)

conjunctiva

c)

retina

d)

sclera

84.

What makes up the bulk of the tooth

a)

enamel

b)

dentin

c)

pulp

d)

cementum

85.

Which part of the brain plays a critical role in coordination

a)

brain stem

b)

cerebellum

c)

cerebrum

86.

Swelling and bruising around the eye and the inability to look up are signs of which facial injury

a)

corneal abraision

b)

skull fracture

c)

orbital fracture

d)

hyphema

87.

Raccoon eyes, battle signs, and halo sign are signs of which injury

a)

concussion

b)

skull fracture

c)

CTE

d)

subdural hematoma

88.

What is the most common fracture of the face

a)

nasal

b)

maxilla

c)

zygomatic

d)

frontal

89.

Which eye injury is caused by inflammation due to bacteria or allergies that leads to eye swelling, discharge and crust on the eye

a)

conjunctivitis

b)

hordeolum

c)

retinal detachment

d)

hyphema

90.

Which ear injury is common in boxing, rugby, and wrestling and occurs from compressive and shearing forces to tear

a)

cauliflower ear

b)

tympanic membrane rupture

c)

otitis externa

d)

otitis media

91.

Which is NOT a type of internal administration of a drug

a)

inhalation

b)

intramuscular

c)

sublingual

d)

transdermal

92.

Athletic trainers can provide a single dose of medication, this is known as _

a)

prescribing

b)

dispensing

c)

administerting

93.

It is important to maintain accurate records each time a medication given to an athlete

a)

true

b)

false

94.

You do NOT have to keep over the counter medications locked

a)

true

b)

false

95.

Which type of therapeutic drug would I use if I had ring worm, athlete's foot, or thrush

a)

antibiotic

b)

antifungal

c)

antiviral

d)

pain reliever

96.

Which type of drug would I use if I had a bacterial infection

a)

antibiotic

b)

antifungal

c)

antiemitic

d)

antacid

97.

Which therapeutic drug is used to reduce inflammation

a)

ibuprofen

b)

tyleonol

c)

antacid

d)

laxative

98.

Which therapeutic drug would I use if I am having an allergic reaction

a)

nasal decongestant

b)

antihistamine

c)

antitussive

d)

expectorant

99.

There is an overlap between recreational drug use and performance enhancing drug use

a)

true

b)

false

100.

The long term use of _ can lead to nasal congestion and damage to the structure of the nose and paranoia

a)

alcohol

b)

marijuana

c)

cocaine

d)

opoids