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MOLBIO FINALS PLATINGS

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Cuvette of choice for measurement of proteins

a)

Aluminum

b)

Plastic

c)

Quartz

d)

Glass

2.

It is a gel free technique that has an advantage due to its superior separation efficiency, small sample consumption and short analysis time.

a)

Capillary Electrophoresis

b)

SDS-PAGE

c)

HPLC

d)

2D-GE

3.

Polymerized acrylamide (polyacrylamide) forms a mesh-like matrix suitable for the separation of proteins of typical size. The strength of the gel allows easy handling.

a)

Both statements are true

b)

Both statements are false

c)

The first statement is false and the second statement is true

d)

The first statement is true and the second statement is false

4.

In Western blot technique, the protein is specifically detected by reacting it with:

a)

Nitrocellulose

b)

Labeled antibody

c)

Antigen

d)

NaCl

5.

The end color of Lowry Method if positive for protein

a)

Purple color

b)

Brown

c)

Red

d)

Blue-green color

6.

Antibodies not only protect us from infections, they can also be used in laboratories to determine whether or not a patient has or has had a disease.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Sandwich ELISAs are particularly suited to the analysis of complex samples, since the antigen does not need to be purified prior to the assay yet still delivers high sensitivity and specificity

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

8.

PNPP (p-Nitrophenyl Phosphate, Disodium Salt) is a widely used substrate for detecting alkaline phosphatase in ELISA applications. When alkaline phosphatase and PNPP are reacted, a yellow water-soluble reaction product is formed.

a)

The first statement is true and the second statement is false

b)

The first statement is false and the second statement is true

c)

Both statements are true

d)

Both statements are false

9.

This is best for when analyzing the immune response to an Ag:

a)

Sandwich ELISA

b)

Indirect ELISA

c)

Direct ELISA

d)

Inhibition ELISA

10.

The detection antibody can be enzyme conjugated, in which case this is referred to as a direct sandwich ELISA.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

11.

This colorimetric assay is read at 562nm.

a)

Biuret

b)

Lowry

c)

BCA

d)

Bradford

12.

Place the following steps in MALDI-TOF in their correct sequence.

1 Vaporized ions travel towards the detector.

2 Sample is vaporized

3 The matrix absorbs the ultraviolet light and converts it to heat energy

4 The sample for MALDI is uniformly mixed in a large quantity of matrix.

a)

4321

b)

2413

c)

3214

d)

4132

13.

NPP hydrolysis Thermo Scientific Pierce PNPP (p-nitrophenyl phosphate) is a colorimetric, soluble substrate of alkaline phosphatase for use in ELISA applications.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

14.

The most popular method used with proteomic analysis.

a)

Capillary HPLC

b)

Reverse phase HPLC

c)

Affinity HPLC

d)

Ligand exchange HPLC

15.

Affinity chromatography relies on

a)

Ligand binding abilities

b)

Mass

c)

Size

d)

Charge

16.

Intercept (PBS) Blocking Buffer is the blocking buffer of choice for near-infrared fluorescent applications when using a phosphate-buffered saline (PBS) system. Contains no mammalian proteins for the lowest cross-reactivity with mammalian antibodies. Excellent choice for biotin-streptavidin detection.

a)

Both statements are true

b)

Both statements are false

c)

The first statement is true and the second statement is false

d)

The first statement is false and the second statement is true

17.

SDS-PAGE is an analytical technique to separate proteins based on their molecular weight.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

18.

The procedure for a sandwich ELISA firstly requires the well of an ELISA plate to be coated with a:

a)

CAPTURE Ab

b)

IGM

c)

IgG

d)

Detection Ab

19.

Bovine serum albumin (BSA) is a globular protein (~66 kDa MW) that is used in numerous biochemical applications due to its stability and lack of interference with biological reactions.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

20.

Third step in a Two-dimensional electrophoresis

a)

SDS-PAGE

b)

Isoelectric focusing

c)

Spot Visualization

d)

MS Analysis

21.

Sequence alignment helps scientists to

a)

infer the functions of newly synthesized genes

b)

predict new members of gene families

c)

all of the above

d)

trace out evolutionary relationships

22.

This is a unique identifier given to a DNA or protein sequence record to allow tracking of different versions of that sequence and the associated sequence overtime in a single data repository

a)

Accession number

b)

Score

c)

GI number

d)

Expect value

23.

You have sequenced five PCR products of DNA samples of Escherichia coli you have isolated from clinical specimens. You want to determine in which nucleotide bases the five DNA sequences vary, which tool will be most helpful to you?

a)

MUSCLE

b)

PrimerBlast

c)

EMBOSS Water

d)

BLAST

24.

When you search GenBank for the DNA sequence of gene X, you will find a link called FASTA. This refers to

a)

the coding region of the gene

b)

the series of numbers assigned to each sequence record processed by NCBI

c)

nucleotide bases that code for a protein

d)

a nucleic acid or protein sequence represented by single-letter codes

25.

Which of the following is a nucleotide sequence database?

a)

SWISS PROT

b)

EMBL

c)

PDBj

d)

TREMBL

26.

In pairwise sequence alignments, gaps are more often seen in Local alignments than in global alignments. 

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

27.

When you get a BLAST result for a DNA sequence, the Graphic Summary refers to

a)

a genetic map that shows the details of gene location relative to another gene in the chromosome.

b)

a diagram representing evolutionary relationships among organisms.

c)

The experimental three-dimensional structure of a protein

d)

the red bars specifying sequences found in the database that aligns to your sequence.

28.

The alignment procedure that tries to align regions with high level of matches without considering the alignment of the rest of the sequences

a)

multiple sequence alignment

b)

global alignment

c)

pairwise alignment

d)

local alignment

29.

(Image Alignment) An example of global sequence alignment:

a)

B

b)

A

c)

C

30.

It is a diagram representing evolutionary relationships among organisms

a)

Chromatogram

b)

Phylogenetic tree

c)

Pedigree

d)

Algorithm

31.

In a sequence alignment, a dot between matched bases indicates

a)

the bases are conserved across all members of a species

b)

a gap in the sequence

c)

identical bases

d)

non-identical bases

32.

If you are studying a set of all RNA molecules in a mouse, you are dealing with

a)

Metabolomics

b)

Transcriptomics

c)

Proteomics

d)

GENOMICS

33.

This is the process of identifying locations of genes, all the protein coding regions, and the regulatory sequences in a genome.

a)

Sequence alignment

b)

Genome annotation

c)

DNA barcoding

d)

Genotyping

34.

If you want to compare the amino acid sequence of your protein with those that are stored in the databases, which tool will you use?

a)

BLASTp

b)

MUSCLE

c)

EMBOSS

d)

BLASTn

35.

If you want to examine the three-dimensional structure of a protein, you will look into which database?

a)

PDBe

b)

Ensembl

c)

GenBank

d)

Signal transduction databases

36.

How many primers are needed for a successful PCR of a gene when the only information available is the protein amino acid sequence?

a)

3

b)

2

c)

2

d)

More than four

37.

Which is true about the reverse primer?

a)

It is the complement of the 3-prime end of the sense DNA template.

b)

It has the sequence of that found at the end of the DNA target.

c)

It is read as 3-prime to 5-prime sequence.

d)

It is the complement of 5-prime end of the sense DNA template

38.

The primers used in polymerase chain reaction are

a)

Single-stranded RNA oligonucleotide

b)

Double-stranded DNA oligonucleotide

c)

Double-stranded RNA oligonucleotide

d)

Single-stranded DNA oligonucleotide

39.

Which double-stranded DNA molecule has the highest melting temperature?

a)

A DNA polymer of 100,000 base pairs

b)

An oligonucleotide with a large number of repeating C-G-C codons

c)

A molecule of 5,000 bps with a high number of A-T base pairs

d)

An oligonucleotide with a repeating sequence of A-A-A at the 5-prime end.

40.

If the melting temperature of a pair of primers is calculated as 62 C, at what annealing temperature would you set your PCR cycling?

a)

52 C

b)

57 C

c)

67 C

d)

72 C

41.

Which of the following may result in no band or faint band in agarose gel electrophoresis?

a)

The annealing temperature is too high

b)

Too much primers added

c)

Too many cycles used

d)

The melting temperature is very low

42.

Primer annealing means

a)

The binding of the primer to the template DNA.

b)

The extension of the DNA strand starting from the primers.

c)

The conversion of mRNA to cDNA

d)

The separation of template DNA strands.

43.

How many primers are needed for a successful PCR of a known sequence of a gene?

a)

4

b)

2

c)

1

d)

3

44.

If the primer sequence is TCG, which section of the DNA will it anneal to?

a)

AGC

b)

GAC

c)

ATC

d)

CAT

45.

What is the function of a primer?

a)

to copy DNA

b)

to identify the particular region of the DNA to be copied by PCR

c)

to create DNA nucleotides

d)

to maintain the temperature of the PCR reaction

46.

Which of the following is the LEAST factor to consider when optimizing a new primer pair?

a)

Annealing temperature

b)

Number of cycles

c)

Mg ion concentration

d)

Denaturation temperature

47.

How many primers are needed for a successful PCR of a gene that is common among different species?

a)

2

b)

1

c)

4

d)

3

48.

What is the effect of homology between the three-prime ends of the forward and reverse primer?

a)

Formation of primer dimer

b)

Formation of more non-specific products

c)

Enhanced binding between the primers and their respective templates

d)

Formation of hairpin structure

49.

What would be the expected effect on a PCR reaction if the primers used were slightly shorter and more variable than the intended oligonucleotide sequences?

a)

The PCR reaction would not commence.

b)

The PCR reaction would end after one cycle.

c)

The reaction would generate single short PCR product.

d)

The reaction would yield a mixture of non-specific products.

50.

What type of PCR primers are designed when the only information available is the protein amino acid sequence?

a)

mRNA primers

b)

Universal primers

c)

Target-specific

d)

Degenerate primers

51.

Principle involved in MALDI – TOF MS

a)

Chemiluminiscence

b)

Ionization

c)

A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

52.

Gene target that may be used for diagnosing infection / condition associated to HPV16 or HPV18

a)

E6

b)

E7

c)

A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

53.

Specimen/s that may be used for the molecular detection of Rickettsia species:

a)

Eschar swab

b)

Eschar biopsy

c)

A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

54.

Toxin genes are the main targets of real – time PCR for the diagnosis of infection caused by:

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

c)

A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

55.

Gene target for bacterial infection using molecular techniques include/s:

a)

16s rRNA

b)

23s rRNA

c)

A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

56.

Most widely applied NAAT for the diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumoniae is:

a)

Southern Blot

b)

PCR

c)

A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

57.

Advantage/s of using whole genome sequencing (WGS) for detecting MRSA

a)

Virulence of the strain may be assessed

b)

Prediction of resistance is possible

c)

A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

58.

Screening using molecular techniques are done to pregnant individuals in order to detect the possibility of colonization associated to which pathogen?

a)

Streptococcus agalactiae

b)

Group A Streptococcus

c)

A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

59.

Which of the following is extracted for MALDI – TOF MS microbial identification?

a)

Nucleic acid

b)

Protein

c)

A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

60.

Confirmatory assay for the diagnosis of HIV infection

a)

Southern Blot

b)

Western Blot

c)

A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

61.

Advantage/s of using molecular techniques for diagnosing infectious diseases:

a)

Rapid results are produced compared with the classical microbiological testing

b)

Different strains may be identified

c)

A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

62.

DNA target/s for the molecular detection of fungal infection

a)

rDNA

b)

Cytochrome B

c)

A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

63.

Arthropod – Borne bacterial infection that may be diagnosed thru PCR based assays

a)

Borellia species

b)

Chlamydia trachomatis

c)

A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

64.

In order to achieve a purified protein extract for MALDI – TOF MS, which of the following is commonly added along with the matrix?

a)

Formic acid

b)

Picric acid

c)

A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

65.

Molecular technique/s used for the diagnosis of fungal infection:

a)

NAATs

b)

ISH

c)

A and B

d)

Neither A nor B