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NUR354 Pharm II exam 1 pt 1

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

the nervous system is divided into 2 categories ____ and _____

a)

centra nervous system

b)

peripheral nervous system

c)

autonomic nervous system

d)

somatic nervous system

2.

which of the following is the receptor for the sympathetic NS?

a)

adrenergic

b)

cholinergic

c)

muscarinic

d)

acetylcholine

3.

which of the following is a sympathetic response?

a)

dilated pupils

b)

bronchoconstriction

c)

increase BG

d)

increase BP

e)

decrease salivation

4.

what is the primary neurotransmitter for the parasympathetic NS?

a)

norepinephrine

b)

epinephrine

c)

acetylcholine

d)

dopamine

5.

When there is excessive Ach in the body, cholinergic crisis could occur. Identify the ff s/s of cholinergic crisis.

a)

sweating

b)

lacrimation

c)

urination

d)

emesis

6.

this enzyme helps get rid of acetylcholine

(a)  

7.

this enzyme primarily helps get rid of norepinephrine

(a)  

8.

which of the ff conditions do anticholinergics help treat?

a)

asthma

b)

motion sickness

c)

bradypnea

d)

IBS

e)

multiple sclerosis

9.

Identify Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (pro-cholinergic).

a)

Atropine  

b)

Donepezil

c)

Ipratropium

d)

Rivastigmine

10.

Galantamine is a medication used for which condition?

a)

urinary retention

b)

myasthenia gravis

c)

parkinson's disease

d)

alzheimer's disease

11.

this medication is a cholinergic receptor drug that treats URINARY RETENTION.

a)

dicyclomine

b)

benztropine

c)

bethanechol

d)

physostigmine

12.

which anticholinergic drug helps with drying up secretions and promote bronchodilation in persons with asthma?

a)

scopolamine

b)

ipratropium

c)

atropine

d)

dicyclomine

13.

which anticholinergic drug helps with motion sickness or nausea?

a)

scopolamine

b)

ipratropium

c)

atropine

d)

dicyclomine

14.

which anticholinergic drug is indicated for bradycardia?

a)

scopolamine

b)

ipratropium

c)

atropine

d)

dicyclomine

15.

Atropine is an anticholinergic drug that helps treat bradycardia, which of the ff are the other uses for atropine? (SATA)

a)

cholinergic crisis

b)

overactive bladder

c)

ophthalmic procedures

d)

irritable bowel syndrome

16.

aside from irritable bowel syndrome, which other condition can anticholinergics be used for?

a)

COPD

b)

ENT procedures

c)

OAB

d)

myasthenia gravis

17.

Benztropine is an anticholinergic drug given for which condition?

(a)  

18.

this is the reversal drug for too much anticholinergic activation with the use of atropine.

a)

acetylcysteine

b)

flumazenil

c)

physostigmine

d)

vitamin K

19.

what is the primary neurotransmitter for the adrenergic NS?

a)

norepinephrine

b)

epinephrine

c)

acetylcholine

d)

dopamine

20.

Norepinephrine, epinephrine, and dopamine can be given via peripheral IV line without concerns of extravasation.

a)

true

b)

false

21.

name the 5 adrenergic receptor agonists

(a)  

22.

which adrenergic agonist has the effect of vasoconstriction?

a)

alpha 1

b)

alpha 2

c)

beta 1

d)

beta 2

e)

beta 3

23.

which adrenergic agonist has the effect of inhibiting norepinephrine?

a)

alpha 1

b)

alpha 2

c)

beta 1

d)

beta 2

e)

beta 3

24.

which adrenergic agonist has the effect of increasing HR and cardiac contractility?

a)

alpha 1

b)

alpha 2

c)

beta 1

d)

beta 2

e)

beta 3

25.

which adrenergic agonist has the effect of bronchodilation?

a)

alpha 1

b)

alpha 2

c)

beta 1

d)

beta 2

e)

beta 3

26.

which adrenergic agonist has the effect of relaxing the bladder muscle?

a)

alpha 1

b)

alpha 2

c)

beta 1

d)

beta 2

e)

beta 3

27.

this adrenergic agonist is given to activate alpha 2 receptors to initiate vasodilation. It is given for HTN and anxiety.

a)

neosynephrine

b)

clonidine

c)

dobutamine

d)

albuterol

e)

mirabegron

28.

this adrenergic agonist is given to activate beta 1 receptors to increase HR and cardiac contractility. It is given for heart failure.

a)

neosynephrine

b)

clonidine

c)

dobutamine

d)

albuterol

e)

mirabegron

29.

this adrenergic agonist is given to activate beta 2 receptors to promote bronchodilation. It is given for asthma, and has a side effect of tachycardia.

a)

neosynephrine

b)

clonidine

c)

dobutamine

d)

albuterol

e)

mirabegron

30.

this adrenergic agonist is given to activate beta 3 receptors to promote relaxation of the bladder muscle. It is given for overactive bladder.

a)

neosynephrine

b)

clonidine

c)

dobutamine

d)

albuterol

e)

mirabegron

31.

this adrenergic agonist is given to activate alpha 1 receptors to initiate vasoconstriction. It is given for allergic rhinitis.

a)

neosynephrine

b)

clonidine

c)

dobutamine

d)

albuterol

e)

mirabegron

32.

this drug class is given for both HTN and BPH. It has a primary side effect of orthostatic hypotension.

a)

beta 1 antagonists

b)

alpha 2 agonists

c)

beta 1 agonists

d)

alpha 1 antagonists

33.

this drug class decreases the HR. It has the side effect of bronchoconstriction which may be contraindicated for pts with asthma and COPD.

a)

beta 1 antagonists

b)

alpha 2 agonists

c)

beta 1 agonists

d)

alpha 1 antagonists

34.

What is the reversal drug for too much adrenergic stimulation?

a)

insulin/glucoes

b)

physostigmine

c)

phentolamine

d)

flumazenil

35.

this condition is a tumor on the adrenal glands that causes massive amounts of norepi, epi, dopamine.

(a)  

36.

What are the two primary components of the CNS? 

(a)  

37.

Adrenergic agonists are also the same as sympathomimetics

a)

true

b)

false

38.

What is the advantage of lidocaine with epinephrine? 

a)

stops bleeding

b)

systemic pain relief

c)

lowers BP

d)

speeds up healing

39.

A patient who is receiving medications for Parkinson's disease notices his PD symptoms returning as his scheduled dose approaches. What is this condition called?

a)

tapering effect

b)

wearing off effect

c)

dependency

d)

adverse effects

40.

which of the ff are included in the cardinal symptoms of parkinson's disease? SATA

a)

tremors

b)

stiffness

c)

slow movement

d)

difficulty in balance

41.

Parkinson's disease is the lack of (insufficient level) of epinephrine.

a)

true

b)

false

42.

which of these medications is the 1st line treatment for Parkinson's?

a)

Benztropine

b)

Levodopa-carbidopa

c)

Apomorphine

d)

Amantadine

e)

Entacapone

43.

what is important to remember when prescribing levodopa-carbidopa?

a)

it is contraindicated when taking an MAOI

b)

do not give with green leafy vegetables

c)

do not take this medication on an empty stomach

d)

contraindicated for pregnancy

44.

OD of levodopa-carbidopa can be treated with?

a)

phentolamine

b)

physostigmine

c)

pyridoxine

d)

apomorphine

45.

this medication is an anticholinergic that can treat Parkinson's and EPS.

a)

apomorphine

b)

amantadine

c)

entacapone

d)

benztropine

46.

this medication is a dopamine agonist, and acts by activating dopamine receptors.

a)

apomorphine

b)

amantadine

c)

entacapone

d)

benztropine

47.

This medication causes the release of dopamine from other parts of the body.

a)

apomorphine

b)

amantadine

c)

entacapone

d)

benztropine

48.

this medication is an MAOB inhibitor that blocks the body from getting rid of dopamine (increasing dopamine levels).

a)

apomorphine

b)

amantadine

c)

entacapone

d)

benztropine

49.

Which of the following is a CAM used to help improve mental cognition?

a)

echinacea

b)

gingko biloba

c)

black cohosh

d)

ginger

50.

Alzheimer's disease is caused by increased levels of glutamate in the body due to intake resulting in brain cell death.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

If you live up to 85, you are less likely to get Alzheimer's.

a)

true

b)

false

52.

Which of the following medications is the 1st line treatment for AD?

a)

memantine

b)

topiramate

c)

galantamine

d)

levetiracetam

53.

this medication acts by lowering glutamate levels in the body therefore lowering the rate of brain cell death.

a)

rivastigmine

b)

memantine

c)

donepezil

d)

galantamine

54.

what is the mechanism of action of Ach inhibitors?

a)

it prevents the body from getting of norepi, epi, dopamine

b)

it prevents the reuptake of Ach levels

c)

it speeds up the usage of Ach in the brain

d)

it decreases the levels of Ach in the body

55.

Aside from AD, what are other indications for Ach inhibitors? SATA

a)

myopia

b)

glaucoma

c)

multiple sclerosis

d)

myasthenia gravis

56.

identify the types of multiple sclerosis. SATA

a)

relapsing/remitting

b)

degenerative relapsing

c)

primary progressive

d)

tertiary progressive

57.

MS occurs due to the degeneration of myelin sheaths.

a)

true

b)

false

58.

which of the ff is the 1st line treatment for MS?

a)

interferon alfa

b)

interferon beta

c)

glatiramer

d)

fingolimod

59.

what are some common side effects of taking interferon beta? SATA

a)

fever

b)

chills

c)

tremors

d)

muscle spasms

60.

what are some important education points for patients taking interferon beta?

a)

do not take this med with ASA

b)

avoid alcohol while on this med

c)

avoid smoking while on this med

d)

do not take this with immunosuppresants

61.

which of the ff MS drugs has a mechanism of action that stops the degeneration of myelin sheaths?

a)

interferon beta

b)

glatiramer

c)

fingolimod

d)

none of the above

62.

both interferon beta and glatiramer are available via PO and parenteral routes.

a)

true

b)

false

63.

what is the MOA for fingolimod?

a)

it stops the degeneration of myelin sheaths

b)

it lower glutamate levels in the body

c)

it suppresses symptoms of MS

d)

it blocks the release of Ach

64.

identify the causes of muscle spasms. SATA

a)

med related

b)

disease related

c)

condition related

d)

symptom related

65.

what are some non-pharmacological treatments for muscle spasms? SATA

a)

cupping

b)

heat/cold

c)

massage

d)

PT

66.

these medications are also called "muscle relaxants" and act by enabling GABA. SATA

a)

lorazepam

b)

baclofen

c)

cyclobenzaprine

d)

methocarbamol

67.

since GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter, what are some side effects we should watch out for? SATA

a)

palpitations

b)

muscle weakness

c)

drowsiness

d)

increased RR

68.

what is an important nursing consideration when giving a skeletal muscle relaxant?

a)

do not take this on an empty stomach

b)

do not take this with chemo drugs or immunosuppresants

c)

do not take this with alcohol

d)

avoid smoking while on this medication

69.

this medication or drug class is commonly used "go-to" muscle relaxants.

a)

non-opioid analgesics

b)

skeletal muscle relaxants

c)

benzodiazepines

d)

clonidine

70.

this medication also addresses muscle spasms but it's primary use is for HTN and/or anxiety.

a)

clonidine

b)

klonopin

c)

metoprolol

d)

lisinopril

71.

which electrolyte is the most responsible for muscle contraction?

a)

sodium

b)

magnesium

c)

calcium

d)

potassium

72.

this medication blocks calcium movement in the muscle, which results in relaxation of the muscle. it is indicated for spasticity.

a)

Onabutulinum

b)

Capsaicin 

c)

vecuronium

d)

Dantrolene

73.

dantrolene is known to cause toxicity on which organ?

a)

brain

b)

liver

c)

kidneys

d)

pancreas

74.

which of the ff medications blocks the release of Ach (for muscle contraction) and has side effects that can occur days, hours, or weeks later.

a)

Dantrolene

b)

Onabutulinum

c)

Capsaicin

d)

succinylcholine

75.

this is a CAM indicated for spasticity.

a)

echinacea

b)

gingko biloba

c)

capsaicin

d)

ginger

76.

neuromuscular blockers or "paralytics" are drugs primarily used for sedation. What is an important nursing consideration for a patient receiving this type of medication?

a)

give sedation and/or pain medication

b)

give anxiolytics

c)

give antiemetics

d)

have intubation kit ready

77.

which of the following paralytics is the most used for intubation?

a)

vecuronium

b)

pancuronium

c)

succinylcholine

d)

rocuronium

78.

which group of neuromuscular blockers has the MOA that blocks action potential?

a)

non-depolarizing paralytics

b)

depolarizing paralytics

79.

which of the ff are side effects of succinylcholine?

a)

fasciculation

b)

hypernatremia

c)

hyperkalemia

d)

shuffling gait

80.

this is a life-threatening condition characterized by elevation of body temperature that can occur from administration of succinylcholine.

a)

multiple sclerosis

b)

malignant hyperthermia

c)

malignant hypothermia

d)

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

81.

which drug is given for the treatment of malignant hyperthermia?

a)

rivastigmine

b)

methocarbamol

c)

dantrolene

d)

onabotullinum A

82.

Identify indications for onabotullinum A (Botox).

a)

facial wrinkles

b)

dystonia

c)

hyperhidrosis

d)

OAB

e)

lazy eye

83.

Vast majority of seizure meds are safe for pregnancy.

a)

true

b)

false

84.

anti-seizure medications decreases the efficacy of OC.

a)

true

b)

false

85.

what is the term used when seizures occur during pregnancy?

a)

preeclampsia

b)

eclampsia

86.

what is the non-pharmacological intervention for seizures?

(a)  

87.

seizures occur when there is too much GABA in the brain

a)

true

b)

false

88.

which of the ff drug classes for generalized seizures is the 1st line for neonatal seizures?

a)

benzos

b)

barbiturates

c)

muscle relaxants

d)

hydantoins

89.

This is the 1st line drug for someone who is ACTIVELY seizing.

a)

phenytoin

b)

phenobarbital

c)

cyclobenzaprine

d)

midazolam

90.

identify the 1st three go-to meds for seizures under benzodiazepines

a)

alprazolam

b)

midazolam

c)

clonazepam

d)

diazepam

e)

lorazepam

91.

which of the ff are some indications for prescribing benzodiazepines?

a)

seizures

b)

insomnia

c)

muscle spasms

d)

spasticity

92.

identify the side effects you need to watch out for when giving benzodiazepines.

a)

htn

b)

low RR

c)

generalized weakness

d)

hypotension

93.

which of the ff is the reversal agent for benzodiazepines?

a)

naloxone

b)

acetylcysteine

c)

flumazenil

d)

vitamin K

94.

this drug works by inhibiting sodium movement which inhibits the brain from doing its job

a)

carbamazepine

b)

lamotrigine

c)

levetiracetam

d)

phenytoin

95.

hydantoins are very safe to use and have no known side effects.

a)

true

b)

false

96.

this is one of the most commonly used seizure meds in the US. it is also used off label for anxiety.

a)

phenytoin

b)

levetiracetam

c)

valproic acid

d)

ethosuximide

97.

all of the following are given for generalized seizures except:

a)

Carbamazepine

b)

ethosuximide 

c)

clonazepam

d)

phenobarbital