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AP Microeconomics Review 2

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 2hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Consumers will buy more of a good when its price is lower and less when its price is higher.

a)

Law of Demand

b)

Law of Supply

c)

Price Floor

d)

Price Ceiling

2.

The point at which the quantity demanded for a product or service is equal to the quantity supplied of that product or service.

a)

Equilibrium

b)

Price Stability

c)

Shortage

d)

Supply

3.

A minimum price consumers are required to pay for a good or service.

a)

Price Ceiling

b)

Market Clearing Price

c)

Equilibrium

d)

Price Floor

4.

A maximum price consumers are required to pay for a good or service.

a)

Price Ceiling

b)

Equilibrium

c)

Market Clearing Price

d)

Price Floor

5.

A market in which a single seller dominates.

a)

Monopolistic Competition

b)

Monopoly

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Perfect Competition

6.

A market structure in which a large number of firms all produce the same product and no single seller controls supply or prices.

a)

Monopoly

b)

Monopolistic Comeptition

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Perfect Competition

7.
An increase in the price of milk causes a decrease in the demand for cereal. The two products are
a)
substitutes
b)
complements
c)
unrelated
d)
demand elastic
8.
Rent payments and property taxes would be counted as
a)
total cost
b)
variable costs
c)
fixed costs
d)
marginal costs
9.
Profits will be maximized when marginal revenue
a)
is double marginal cost
b)
equals marginal cost
c)
is one-half marginal cost
d)
exceeds marginal cost
10.

What is the Profit Maximizing Formula?

a)

Revenue > Expenses

b)

MR > ATC

c)

MR = MC

d)

AFC + AVC = ATC

11.

What is the difference between Accounting (Normal) Profit and Economic Profit?

a)

Merchandise Costs

b)

Opportunity Cost

c)

Labor Cost

d)

Expenses

12.

According to the Profit Maximizing Formula, how many units should this firm produce?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

13.

Which of the following is the best definition for Marginal Cost?

a)

The cost of producing more units

b)

The cost of producing one additional unit

c)

Fixed costs

d)

Variable Costs

14.

A change in Fixed Costs affect which of the following? (check all that apply)

a)

AFC

b)

AVC

c)

ATC

d)

MC

15.

Does an increase in Fixed Costs affect a firm's output?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Maybe

16.

Does an increase in Variable Costs affect a firm's output?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Maybe

17.

With which worker does this firm begin to experience Diminishing Marginal Returns?

a)

First

b)

Second

c)

Third

d)

Fourth

18.

What is the best definition for Short Run?

a)

A period of time in which at lease one resource is fixed

b)

A period of time in which all resources can change

c)

A period of 1 to 5 years

d)

A period of 5 or more years

19.

A firm expands its fixed resources and its overall costs of production go down. It is experiencing...

a)

Increasing returns to scale

b)

Constant returns to scale

c)

Negative returns to scale

20.

Which of these is NOT a characteristic of Perfectly Competitive markets?

a)

Many small firms

b)

Virtually identical products

c)

High barriers to entry

d)

No need to advertise

21.

If a firm's Marginal Costs increase, its output will...

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Stay the Same

d)

Shut down

22.

In the long run, a Perfectly Competitive Firm will..

a)

Earn zero economic profit

b)

Earn an economic profit

c)

Make an economic loss

d)

Shut down

23.

Which of the following best describes Allocative Efficiency?

a)

D = ATC

b)

D = AVC

c)

D = MC

d)

Run = DMC

24.

What will happen when there is short-term PROFIT in a market?

a)

Firms will enter the market, and prices will rise.

b)

Firms will enter the market, and prices will fall.

c)

Firms will leave the market, and prices will rise.

d)

Firms will leave the market, and prices will fall.

25.
At 100 units of output, a firm's total cost is $10,000. If the firm's total fixed cost is $4,000, its average variable cost is equal to:
a)
$140
b)
$100
c)
$60
d)
$40
26.

The image above shows a firm making

a)

Economic Profit

b)

Economic loss

c)

Breaking even

d)

Shutting down

27.

Should the following firm shutdown?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Not enough information present

28.

The above figure shows a perfectly competitive firm. If the market price is more than $20 per unit, the firm

a)

will definitely shut down to minimize its losses.

b)

will stay open to produce and will make zero economic profit.

c)

will stay open to produce and will incur an economic loss.

d)

will stay open to produce and will make an economic profit.

e)

might shut down but more information is needed about the fixed cost.

29.

Scarcity is best defined as

a)

the difference between limited wants and limited economic resources.

b)

the difference between the total benefit of an action and the total cost of that action.

c)

the difference between unlimited wants and limited economic resources.

d)

the opportunity cost of pursuing a given course of action.

e)

the difference between the marginal benefit and marginal cost of an action.

30.

A linear production possibilities curve indicates which of the following?

a)

Constant opportunity costs

b)

Decreasing opportunity costs

c)

Increasing opportunity costs

d)

Diminishing marginal returns

e)

Labor-intensive production

31.

According to the graph above, if a country is currently producing at point X, the opportunity cost of producing another consumer good is

a)

20 capital goods

b)

more than 20 capital goods

c)

fewer than 20 capital goods

d)

20 consumer goods

e)

fewer than 20 consumer goods

32.

Beef has been increasing in price. As a result, what will happen to the demand for hamburger buns?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

33.

The solid line on the graph represents a _______________, which when implemented cause shortages.

a)

Price ceiling

b)

Price floor

34.

Total revenue -total cost=

a)

average cost

b)

Profit

c)

Marginal cost

35.

Perfectly Competitive, Normal Profit

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
36.

Single-Price Monopoly, Economic Profit

a)
b)
c)
d)
37.

Profit-Maximizing Quantity

a)

Qf

b)

Qa

38.
The airline industry is most likely in the market structure called
a)
perfect competition
b)
oligopoly
c)
monopolistic competition
d)
monopoly
39.

What is the Nash Equilibrium?

a)

Both fast-food restaurants should choose to concentrate on fries.

b)

Both fast-food restaurants should choose to concentrate on burgers.

c)

Brewer’s should choose to concentrate on fries, and Royal’s should choose to concentrate on burgers.

40.
Short run marginal costs eventually increase because of the effects of:
a)
increasing marginal product
b)
diminishing marginal product
c)
increasing fixed costs
d)
diseconomies of scale
41.

Total revenue -total cost=

a)

average cost

b)

Profit

c)

Marginal cost

42.

The shape of Average cost is

a)

upward sloping

b)

downward sloping

c)

U shaped

43.

Total cost is a sum of Fixed cost and

a)

fixed revenue

b)

variable cost

c)

average cost

44.

What is the goal of a firm?

a)

to make profits

b)

to maximize profits

c)

to maximize revenue

d)

none of the above

45.

The image above shows a firm making

a)

Economic Profit

b)

Economic loss

c)

Breaking even

d)

Shutting down

46.

Should the following firm shutdown?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Not enough information present

47.

Identify the profit maximizing level of price for this monopoly firm.

4 lines
48.

Collusion most frequently occurs in industries that are

a)

oligopolistic

b)

monopolistically competitive

c)

monopolistic

d)

perfectly competitive

49.

Collusion is difficult for an oligopoly to maintain

a)

Because antitrust laws make collusion illegal

b)

Because, in the case of oligopoly, self-interest is in conflict with cooperation

c)

If additional firms enter of the oligopoly

d)

For all the above reasons

50.

A monopoly can price discriminate between two groups of consumers if each group has

a)

a large consumer surplus.

b)

a different willingness to pay.

c)

the same willingness to pay.

d)

the ability to resell the good to the other group.

51.

Sue's Surfboards is the sole renter of surfboards on Big Wave Island. Sues demand and marginal revenue curves are illustrated in the figure above. Sue's Surfboards currently rents 15 surfboards an hour. Sue's total revenue from the 15 surfboards is

a)

$300

b)

$220

c)

$150

d)

$100

52.
For this monopolist, what is the area of consumer surplus?
a)
ABHJ
b)
AJGC
c)
ARJ
d)
ARJE
53.

Which of the following is true about production in an imperfectly competitive market?

Choose 1 answer:

a)

The amount produced minimizes marginal cost.

b)

Less is produced than is socially optimal.

c)

The amount produced minimizes average total cost.

d)

More is produced than is socially optimal.

e)

The amount produced is the same as in perfect competition.

54.

Which of the following is true about an imperfectly competitive firm’s marginal revenue (MR) curve if it has a linear and downward-sloping demand curve?

a)

MR decreases at an increasing rate.

b)

MR increases at first, then decreases.

c)

MR is constant.

d)

MR decreases and is less than demand.

e)

MR is greater than demand.

55.
In this market structure there are many buyers and sellers with identical products
a)
perfect competition
b)
monopolistic competition
c)
monopoly
d)
oligopoly
56.

Price leadership and collusion often occur in this type of market structure

a)
monopoly
b)
oligipoly
c)
perfect competition
d)
monopolistic competition
57.

The amounts in the matrix represent potential profits to each player. What of the following correctly represents that game's nash equilibrium?

a)
A,X
b)
A,Y
c)
B,X
d)
B,Y
58.
The following table shows the profits associated with the pricing strategies of two oligopolistic firms, Agronomia and Farmingdale. Each firm has two possible strategies: to charge a low price or a high price. The first entry in each cell shows the profits to Agronomia and the second the profits to Farmingdale. If the two firms do not cooperate, what will be the profit for each firm?
a)
Agronomia = $50; Farmingdale = $100
b)
Agronomia = $150; Farmingdale = $150
c)
Agronomia = $300; Farmindale = $50
d)
Agronomia = $100; Farmingdale = $100
59.

If this graph is for a monopolistically competitive firm, it best represents

a)

short run economic loss.

b)

short run extra-normal profit.

c)

long run economic profit.

d)

long run equilibrium at normal profit.

e)

short run accounting loss.

60.

Firms in perfect and monopolistic competition will continue to produce in short run as long as

a)

Price is greater than min ATC

b)

Price is greater than min MC

c)

Price is greater than min AVC

d)

Price is greater than AVC

e)

Price is greater than ATC

61.

What is the Profit Maximizing Formula?

a)

Revenue > Expenses

b)

MR > ATC

c)

MR = MC

d)

AFC + AVC = ATC

62.

Which of these is NOT a characteristic of Perfectly Competitive markets?

a)

Many small firms

b)

Virtually identical products

c)

High barriers to entry

d)

No need to advertise

63.

A firm’s demand curve for labor is equal to a segment of its

a)

average variable cost curve

b)

total revenue curve

c)

marginal cost curve

d)

marginal revenue product curve

e)

average product curve

64.

The graph above shows the marginal revenue product curve and supply curve of labor for a firm. The introduction of new management techniques dramatically increases workers productivity. Which of the following changes is most likely to occur?

a)

The supply curve will shift to the left, increasing the wage rate.

b)

The supply curve will shift to the right, increasing employment.

c)

The marginal revenue product curve will shift to the right, increasing wage rate.

d)

The marginal revenue product curve will shift to the left, reducing employment.

e)

Neither the marginal revenue product curve nor the supply curve will shift, but the wage will increase and employment will fall.

65.

Which of the following is most likely to shift the demand for aircraft mechanics to the right?

a)

An increase in the demand for air travel

b)

An increase in the price of a license necessary for aircraft mechanics

c)

A decrease in the price of a license necessary for aircraft mechanics

d)

A decrease in the demand for air travel

e)

A decrease in the marginal productivity of aircraft mechanics

66.

A profit-maximizing firm will hire

a)

labor until its wage rate equals its average revenue product

b)

labor until its wage rate equals its marginal revenue product

c)

labor until its wage rate equals the interest rate

d)

capital until the interest rate equals the wage rate

e)

capital until the interest rate exceeds the wage rate

67.

Assume a firm uses only two inputs, capital (K) and labor (L), to produce its output. Let the marginal product of capital be MPK , the marginal product of labor be MPL , the price of capital be PK , and the price of labor be PL . The least-cost combination of capital and labor needed to produce a given level of output is given by which of the following?

a)

MPL /PL = MPK /PK

b)

MPL /PL > MPK /PK

c)

MPL /PK = MPK /PL

d)

(MPL)PL = (MPK)PK

e)

MPL = MPK

68.

Marginal revenue product is defined as the

a)

change in income that occurs when an individual works additional hours

b)

change in total revenue that occurs when one additional unit of the good is produced

c)

change in total revenue that occurs when one additional unit of an input is employed

d)

total revenue divided by the quantity of labor employed

e)

change in total cost that occurs when one additional unit of an input is employed

69.

For a firm hiring labor in a perfectly competitive labor market, the marginal revenue product curve slopes downward after some point because as more of a factor is employed, which of the following declines?

a)

Marginal product

b)

Marginal factor cost

c)

Marginal cost

d)

Total output

e)

Wage rates

70.

Assume that a firm is hiring labor in a perfectly competitive labor market. If the marginal revenue product of labor is greater than the wage rate, which of the following will be true?

a)

The firm must be losing money.

b)

The firm should employ more workers.

c)

The firm should replace workers with capital.

d)

The firm is maximizing its profits.

e)

The firm is experiencing diminishing marginal utility.

71.

The wage rate is $10 per hour and the last worker hired by the firm increased output by 100 units. Computers rent for $100 per hour and the last computer rented by the firm increased output by 2,000 units. To minimize costs the firm should

a)

hire more workers and rent more computers because the marginal revenue products of both workers and computers are greater than their respective prices.

b)

hire more workers and reduce the number of computers rented because workers are cheaper than computers

c)

lay off workers and rent more computers because computers produce more output per dollar of additional expenditure

d)

lay off workers and rent more computers because computers produce more output

e)

keep the same number of workers and computers because the marginal revenue products of both workers and computers are positive

72.

An increase in the demand for automobiles will cause the demand for skilled automobile workers and the wage rate of skilled automobile workers to change in which of the following ways?

a)

Demand - Decrease; Wage Rate - Increase

b)

Demand - Decrease; Wage Rate - Not Change

c)

Demand - Increase; Wage Rate - Decrease

d)

Demand - Increase; Wage Rate - Increase

e)

Demand - Not Change; Wage Rate - Increase

73.

Which of the following will happen in the labor market if the price of the good produced by the workers decreases?

a)

The marginal product of labor will increase.

b)

The marginal product of labor will decrease.

c)

The marginal revenue product of labor will increase.

d)

The marginal revenue product of labor will decrease.

e)

The demand curve for labor will shift to the right.

74.

According to the information in the table above, the twelfth worker would increase the hourly profit by

a)

$0.20

b)

$1.10

c)

$1.30

d)

$2.40

e)

$5.20

75.

The concept of derived demand is described by which of the following?

a)

A decrease in the demand for theater tickets will decrease the demand for actresses and actors.

b)

If the salaries of basketball players increase, the quantity of basketball players demanded will decrease.

c)

An increase in the income of consumers will increase the demand for opera tickets.

d)

An increase in the demand for movie tickets will decrease the demand for video rentals.

e)

A decrease in the price of movie tickets will increase the demand for movie tickets.

76.

An individual's labor supply curve is derived from that person's preferences about the trade-off between income and

a)

work

b)

wealth

c)

nominal wages

d)

productivity

e)

leisure

77.

Suppose that a large number of unskilled workers enter a nation’s labor market. If the labor market is competitive, the number of unskilled workers hired and the wage rate will most likely change in which of the following ways?

a)

Workers Hired - Increase; Wage Rate - Increase

b)

Workers Hired - Increase; Wage Rate - Decrease

c)

Workers Hired - Increase; Wage Rate - Not Change

d)

Workers Hired - Decrease; Wage Rate - Increase

e)

Workers Hired - Decrease; Wage Rate - Decrease

78.

Given the production information in the table above, how many workers would be employed if the wage rate were $20.00 per day and if sandwiches sold for $0.50?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

5

e)

7

79.

Assume that the last worker a firm hired produces 60 additional units of output per hour and the last machine rented produces 6,000 units of output per hour. A worker’s hourly wage rate is $12, and the rental cost of a machine is $1,000 per hour. In order to minimize the cost of its current output, the firm should

a)

do nothing, because the costs of production are minimized

b)

increase the use of labor and decrease the use of capital

c)

increase the use of capital and decrease the use of labor

d)

increase the use of labor and increase the use of capital

e)

decrease the use of labor and decrease the use of capital

80.

The graph above shows a monopsony labor market. In the absence of any regulations, which of the following represents the number of workers the firm will hire and the wage rate it will offer to those workers?

a)

Workers - 15; Wage Rate - $30

b)

Workers - 20; Wage Rate - $20

c)

Workers - 20; Wage Rate - $40

d)

Workers - 30; Wage Rate - $30

e)

Workers - 40; Wage Rate - $40

81.

A change in which of the following will NOT cause a shift in the demand curve for a factor of production?

a)

Demand for the goods produced by the factor

b)

Prices of the goods produced by the factor

c)

Prices of substitute factors

d)

Supply of the factor

e)

Supply of substitute factors

82.

For a certain firm, the marginal revenue product for the last unit of labor is $60, and the marginal revenue product for the last unit of capital is $100. Which of the following combinations of factor prices would be necessary for the firm to maximize profits?

a)

PL - $2; PK - $5

b)

PL - $3; PK - $20

c)

PL - $10; PK - $10

d)

PL - $2; PK - $25

e)

PL - $60; PK - $100

83.

Market failure arises whenever firms

a)

make a loss

b)

replace machines with workers

c)

create externalities

d)

reduce expenditure on research and development

84.

Market failure results in a misallocation of resources. In some cases, this can be corrected by the government

a)

restricting the manufacture of goods that generate positive externalities

b)

Providing public goods

c)

subsidising all loss-making firms

d)

placing a tax on merit goods

85.
A government might tax a good that creates negative externalities in order to try to:
a)
Increase price and consumption of the good to provide firms with extra revenue
b)
 Make the information avaliable more asymmetric
c)
Decrease demand for the good and thus increase the consumer surplus
d)
Decrease consumption of the good and thus reduce the triangle of welfare loss
86.
Getting a flu shot is an example of a ________ externality
a)
Negative
b)
Neutral
c)
Positive
87.
When a third party member is affected by the interaction of a buyer and seller, we call this
a)
An externality
b)
The tragedy of the commons
c)
consumer surplus
d)
total welfare
88.
A market failure is best described as
a)
The idea that market forces of supply and demand always provide the maximum benefit for society
b)
The idea that market forces of supply and demand do not always provide the maximum benefit for society
c)
The concept that a decision made by one party can have negative effects on another party
d)
The concept that a decision made by one party can have positive effects on another party
89.
What is the underlying mechanism which explains why a good does not become a private one?
a)
Tragedy of the Commons
b)
Negative Externalities
c)
Positive Externalities
d)
Free Rider Problem
90.
By-products of production or consumption that impose costs on third parties are known as
a)
negative externalities
b)
rival externalities
c)
positive externalities
d)
exclusive externalities 
91.
Which of the following can practice collusion?:
a)
a monopolistically-competitive firm
b)
a perfectly-competitive firm
c)
a monopoly
d)
an oligopoly
92.
The role of government in a market system
a)
does not exist
b)
is restricted to establishing property rights
c)
includes improving situations that would otherwise result in a market failure
d)
includes improving on situations that would otherwise result in a government failure?
93.
What can be done to solve problems related to the tragedy of the commons?
a)
Privatization
b)
Regulations, restrictions and quotas
c)
Public education
d)
All of the above
94.
Police protection is an example of a _ good and apples are an example of a _ good. 
a)
Public; Private
b)
Private; Public 
c)
Public; Public
d)
Private; Private 
95.
Government regulation may negatively affect businesses in the following ways by
a)
Increasing input costs
b)
Increasing profits
c)
Lowering consumer prices
d)
All of the above
96.
When the government creates a law used to protect individuals this is know as:
a)
Deregulation
b)
Regulation
c)
Positive Externality
d)
Preventing a market failure
97.
What is an example of a negative consumption externality?
a)
Increased standards of education in schools
b)
Increased research and development into cancer prevention
c)
Health impacts for society of passive tobacco smoking
d)
Environmental Pollution
98.
What does it mean to internalise an externality?
a)
Trade permits between firms until the externailty decreases to zero through an shift upwards of the MSC curve to intersect at the new optimal level of production
b)
The costs that were previously imposed on society are made internal because they are now paid for by the two parties to the transaction; the producers and the consumers
c)
The costs that were previously imposed on society are made internal because they are now paid for by the producers entirely
d)
The costs that were previously imposed on society are made internal because they are now paid for by the consumers entirely
99.
"Assistance by the government to individuals or groups or individuals, such as firms, consumers, industries or sectors of an economy" Is the definition for
a)
Excise Taxes
b)
Ad Valorem Taxes
c)
Indirect Taxes
d)
Subsidies
100.

Under what condition is allocative efficiency achieved?

a)

Marginal private benefits = marginal social costs

b)

Marginal social benefits = marginal social costs

c)

Marginal private benefits > marginal social costs

d)

Marginal social benefits > marginal social costs

101.

From an economic standpoint, government intervention is justified

a)

When the private sector is larger than public sector.

b)

Because the government will encourage the production of private goods.

c)

Because the government can increase the level of market power of private businesses.

d)

When the market mechanism fails to achieve the optimal mix of output.