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ES SOL Review part 2

Total questions: 208

Worksheet time: 3hrs 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What kind of fossil is made by heat and pressure that leaves a film?

a)

cast

b)

mold

c)

carbon film

d)

amber

2.
Soil is composed of all of these natural materials EXCEPT
a)
weathered rock
b)
plant matter
c)
plastic substances
d)
animal remains
3.
The organic matter in soil comes mostly from plants. Which of the following locations would most likely produce soil with the greatest amount of organic matter?
a)
A desert with very high temperatures
b)
A prairie with lots of grasses and flowers
c)
A mountain with extremely cold winds
d)
A river with quickly moving water
4.
Which of the following processes will most likely contribute to the development of soil?
a)
Volcanic eruptions that make new land
b)
Building up of snow in very cold areas
c)
Migration of animals to warmer climates
d)
Breaking down of rock by wind, water, and ice
5.
Plants and animals become part of soil when they -- 
a)
Die and Decay
b)
Produce offspring
c)
Grow and Develop
d)
Take in nutrients
6.
All of the following are plant remains EXCEPT - 
a)
Dead leaves
b)
Dried twigs
c)
Sand Particles
d)
Seed covers
7.
One component of soil is decayed plant and animal remains, but the major component of soil is - 
a)
Fossil Fuels
b)
Weathered rocks
c)
Iron ore
d)
Salt water
8.
The weathering of rocks into small pieces forms what natural resource?
a)
Minerals
b)
Water
c)
Coal
d)
Soil
9.
Rocks near the ocean get broken into smaller pieces. What causes this change to these rocks?
a)
Leaves falling from trees
b)
Clouds forming in the sky
c)
Water crashing against the rocks
d)
Salt dissolving in the water
10.
Rock is broken into smaller and smaller pieces over time by all of the following EXCEPT - 
a)
Flowing water
b)
Blowing wind
c)
Cooling sand
d)
Moving Ice
11.
A student made a mixture of sand, tiny rocks, small twigs, and some leaves. This student has modeled - 
a)
how rocks change over time
b)
the life cycles of plants
c)
the formation of soil
d)
how landforms are created
12.
How do plants contribute to the formation of soil? Plants - 
a)
cover the soil and shade it from sunlight
b)
die, decompose and become part of the soil
c)
use soil to grow and develop over time
d)
support the animal life in the soil
13.
How would the soil be different in an area that gets very little rainfall? The soil would contain - 
a)
much smaller pieces of rock
b)
many insects and worms
c)
a greater variety of plants
d)
less water and organic matter
14.
States that younger rocks lie above older rocks if the layers have not been disturbed
a)
Law of crosscutting
b)
Law of superposition
c)
Relative Dating
d)
Unconformity
15.
How does the law of crosscutting explain the age of a fault?
a)
The fault is younger than the rocks above it.
b)
The fault is younger than the rocks it cuts through.
c)
The fault is older than the rocks above it.
d)
The fault is older than the rocks it cuts through.
16.
What are the relative ages of the features in order from oldest to youngest?
a)
Limestone, Basalt, Fault, Siltstone
b)
Siltstone, Fault, Basalt, Limestone
c)
Limestone, Fault, Basalt, Siltstone
d)
Limestone, Siltstone, Fault, Basalt
17.
Which of the following is the oldest?
a)
Layer L
b)
Intrusion D
c)
Intrusion H
d)
Layer E
18.
The rock formation labeled "P" is a(n)...
a)
fault
b)
intrusion
c)
inclusion
d)
unconformity
19.

What rock in the Oldest?

a)

Conglomerate

b)

Shale

c)

Breccia

d)

Sandstone

20.

What is the last event to happen?

a)

Deposition of Breccia

b)

Igneous Intrusion

c)

Faulting

d)

Deposition of Limestone

21.
Which rock layer in the diagram seems to be the oldest?
a)
F
b)
E
c)
B
d)
A
22.
According to the law of superposition, which layer is the youngest?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
23.
According to the law of superposition, the oldest fossils are found 
a)
At the top of the rock layers
b)
Near the bottom of the rock layers
c)
In the middle of the rock layers
d)
Somewhat near the surface
24.
Which of the following correctly lists the layers in order from oldest to youngest?
a)
A, B, C, D, E
b)
E, B, C, D, A
c)
E, D, C, B, A
d)
C, B, A, D, E
25.

Which layer is OLDER? Layer M or Intrusion P?

a)

Layer M

b)

Intrusion P

26.

Which layer is OLDER? Layer E or Intrusion A?

a)

Layer E

b)

Intrusion A

27.

Which layer is OLDER? Fault E or Intrusion D?

a)

Fault E

b)

Intrusion D

28.

Which layer is OLDER? Intrusion M or Layer D?

a)

Intrusion M

b)

Layer D

29.
_______________ is the long span of time that begins geologic time.
a)
Precambrian Time
b)
Cenozoic Time
30.
A unit of geologic time that subdivides eras
a)
period
b)
time span
31.
The Triassic Period, the Jurassic Period, and the Cretaceous Period occurred in what era?
a)
Cenozoic
b)
Mesozoic
32.
_________ for many of the geologic periods come from places around the world where geologists first described the rocks and fossils of the period.
a)
 time
b)
names
33.
Scientists chose where units of geologic time began on major changes in ______________ at certain times.
a)
life forms
b)
events
34.
Scientists divided the time between Precambrian Time and the present into three units of time, or eras.
a)
True
b)
False
35.
To develop the geologic time scale, scientists studied rock layers and fossils from the different eras. 
a)
True
b)
False
36.
Eras are subdivided into units of geologic time called periods.
a)
True
b)
False
37.
___________ a record of the geologic events and the evolution of life forms as shown in the fossil record. 
a)
Eras
b)
Geologic Time Scale
38.
 The Quaternary period, where humans first appeared, is in the Mesozoic era.
a)
True
b)
False
39.

What is the layer of air around the Earth called?

a)

trophosphere

b)

atmosphere

c)

hemisphere

40.

The air is mainly made up of ........

a)

nitrogen

b)

oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide

41.

The force that pulls you back to Earth is called .......

a)

activity

b)

heaviness

c)

gravity

42.

Water that is floating in the air is called .......

a)

precipitation

b)

water

c)

water vapour

43.

In the top layer of air you find ........ (2)

a)

satellites

b)

areoplanes

c)

International Space Station

44.

Your brain can survive without oxygen for .......

a)

8 minutes

b)

3 minutes

c)

4 minutes

45.

If I climb Mount Everest I must take .........

a)

cell phone

b)

warm clothes

c)

oxygen

46.

Plants use what gas in photosynthesis?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

oxygen

c)

helium

47.

What gas do animals use from the air?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

oxygen

c)

helium

48.

What gas in the air is causing global warming?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

oxygen

c)

helium

49.

A fire uses which gas to burn?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

oxygen

c)

helium

50.

The layer of air does two things for us on earth ......

a)

keeps the warmth in at night

b)

makes rain

c)

protects us from meteorites

51.

What layer protects us from the sun's harmful rays?

a)

protection layer

b)

ozone layer

c)

atmospheric layer

52.

As we go higher up in the atmosphere the air gets .........

a)

heavier

b)

thinner

c)

colder

53.

What do we call harmful gases in the air?

a)

solution

b)

creation

c)

pollution

54.
This gas was in high concentrations in the early atmosphere, and later condensed to form Earth's oceans. 
a)
oxygen
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
sulfur oxides
d)
water vapor
55.
This gas was in high concentrations in the developing atmospheres and later dissolved into rainwater, added to the oceans, then settled to the bottom of the ocean. 
a)
oxygen
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
argon
d)
water vapor
56.

What was the main ingredients that caused heat energy to be trapped, creating a greenhouse effect, in the ealry atmosphere?

a)

water and carbon dioxide

b)

oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide and oxygen

d)

nitrogen and carbon dioxide

57.

How much oxygen do we have in earth’s atmosphere?

a)

78%

b)

20.9%

c)

33%

d)

40.2%

58.
What is the percentage of nitrogen in Earth's atmosphere?
a)
1%
b)
21%
c)
78%
d)
90%
59.
What produced oxygen within the early stages of our atmosphere?
a)
Plants
b)
Volcanos
c)
Galactic Debris
d)
Bacteria
60.

This gas was in high concentrations in the early atmosphere, and later condensed to form Earth's oceans.

a)

oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

sulfur oxides

d)

water vapour

61.
What happened to the carbon dioxide that was dissolved in the early oceans?
a)
It evaporated
b)
It turned into sediment
c)
It was changed into oxygen
d)
I can't think of another good wrong answer
62.
Why is Earth's atmosphere important?
a)
It is beautiful.
b)
It prevents pollution from happening.
c)
Life on Mars could not exist without it.
d)
Life on Earth could not exist without it.
63.
According to scientists, both Earth and moon are...
a)
About 1.6 Billion Years Old
b)
About 4.6 Billion Years Old
c)
About 9.6 Billion Years Old
d)
About 14 Billion Years Old
64.

What was the effect of volcanoes on the Earth's early atmosphere?

a)

Volcanoes released gases to form the atmosphere

b)

Volcanoes released water vapour

c)

Volcanoes released gases and water vapour

d)

Volcanoes changed the landscape

65.

What was the Earth's early atmosphere like ?

a)

Similar to Mars and Venus. A large amount of carbon dioxide,little or no oxygen small amounts of other gases, such as ammonia and methane

b)

Similar to Mercury. A large amount of oxygen, sodium and hydrogen.

c)

Similar to Jupiter. A large amount of hydrogen and helium.

d)

Similar to Pluto. A large amount of nitrogen.

66.

What is this instrument?

a)

Thermometer

b)

Barometer

c)

Anemometer

d)

wind vane

67.

What is this instrument?

a)

Thermometer

b)

Barometer

c)

Anemometer

d)

wind vane

68.

What is this instrument?

a)

Thermometer

b)

Barometer

c)

Anemometer

d)

wind vane

69.

What is this instrument?

a)

Thermometer

b)

Barometer

c)

Anemometer

d)

wind vane

70.

What is this instrument?

a)

wind sock

b)

Barometer

c)

Anemometer

d)

wind vane

71.

What is the barometer used for?

a)

To measure the wind speed

b)

To measure the air pressure

c)

To measure the temperature

d)

To measure the amount of water vapor in the air

72.

What is the thermometer used for?

a)

To measure the wind speed

b)

To measure the air pressure

c)

To measure the temperature

d)

To measure the amount of water vapor in the air

73.

What is the anemometer used for?

a)

To measure the wind speed

b)

To measure the air pressure

c)

To measure the temperature

d)

To measure the amount of water vapor in the air

74.

What is the hydrometer used for?

a)

To measure the wind speed

b)

To measure the air pressure

c)

To measure the temperature

d)

To measure the amount of water vapor in the air

75.

What is the wind vane used for?

a)

To measure the wind speed

b)

To tell the wind direction

c)

To measure the temperature

d)

To measure the amount of water vapor in the air

76.

What is the wind sock used for?

a)

To measure the wind speed

b)

To tell the wind direction

c)

To measure the temperature

d)

To measure the amount of water vapor in the air

77.

What is the thermometer used for?

a)

To measure the wind speed

b)

To tell the wind direction

c)

To measure the warmth in the air

d)

To measure the amount of water vapor in the air

78.

What is the thermometer used for?

a)

To measure the wind speed

b)

To tell the wind direction

c)

To measure the heat in the air

d)

To measure the amount of water vapor in the air

79.

What is the wind rain gauge used for?

a)

To measure the wind speed

b)

To tell the wind direction

c)

To measure the heat in the air

d)

To measure the amount of precipitation

80.

Can we use the rain gauge to measure the snow?

a)

yes, of course

b)

no way felicia!

81.

Is wind vane also called weather vane?

a)

Not at all Felicia!

b)

Yes, of course!

82.

What is this instrument?

a)

Thermometer

b)

Barometer

c)

Anemometer

d)

wind vane

83.

What is this instrument?

a)

Thermometer

b)

Barometer

c)

Anemometer

d)

wind vane

84.

What is this instrument?

a)

Thermometer

b)

Barometer

c)

Anemometer

d)

wind vane

85.

What is this instrument?

a)

Thermometer

b)

Barometer

c)

Anemometer

d)

wind vane

86.

What is this instrument?

a)

wind sock

b)

Barometer

c)

Anemometer

d)

wind vane

87.

What is the barometer used for?

a)

To measure the wind speed

b)

To measure the air pressure

c)

To measure the temperature

d)

To measure the amount of water vapor in the air

88.

What is the thermometer used for?

a)

To measure the wind speed

b)

To measure the air pressure

c)

To measure the temperature

d)

To measure the amount of water vapor in the air

89.

What is the anemometer used for?

a)

To measure the wind speed

b)

To measure the air pressure

c)

To measure the temperature

d)

To measure the amount of water vapor in the air

90.

What is the hydrometer used for?

a)

To measure the wind speed

b)

To measure the air pressure

c)

To measure the temperature

d)

To measure the amount of water vapor in the air

91.

What is the wind vane used for?

a)

To measure the wind speed

b)

To tell the wind direction

c)

To measure the temperature

d)

To measure the amount of water vapor in the air

92.

What is the wind sock used for?

a)

To measure the wind speed

b)

To tell the wind direction

c)

To measure the temperature

d)

To measure the amount of water vapor in the air

93.

What is the thermometer used for?

a)

To measure the wind speed

b)

To tell the wind direction

c)

To measure the warmth in the air

d)

To measure the amount of water vapor in the air

94.

What is the thermometer used for?

a)

To measure the wind speed

b)

To tell the wind direction

c)

To measure the heat in the air

d)

To measure the amount of water vapor in the air

95.

What is the wind rain gauge used for?

a)

To measure the wind speed

b)

To tell the wind direction

c)

To measure the heat in the air

d)

To measure the amount of precipitation

96.

Can we use the rain gauge to measure the snow?

a)

yes, of course

b)

no way felicia!

97.

Is wind vane also called weather vane?

a)

Not at all Felicia!

b)

Yes, of course!

98.

What weather would you forecast at letter A

a)

clear skies and warmer temperatures

b)

Thunderstorms followed by warmer temperatures

c)

Thunderstorms followed by cooler temperatures

d)

rain and fog for many days

99.

What weather would you forecast at letter B

a)

clear skies and warmer temperatures

b)

Thunderstorms followed by warmer temperatures

c)

Thunderstorms followed by cooler temperatures

d)

rain and fog for many days

100.

What weather is currently happening at letter A?

a)

dry, clear weather

b)

wet, rainy weather

c)

cloudy, cold wather

101.

What weather will happen at letter B tomorrow?

a)

warmer temperatures

b)

cooler temperatures

c)

the temperature will stay the same

102.

What weather will happen at letter C tomorrow?

a)

warmer temperatures

b)

cooler temperatures

c)

the temperature will stay the same

103.

What weather is currently happening at letter C?

a)

gentle rain

b)

thunderstorms

c)

fog

d)

clear skies

104.

Low pressure systems cause what type of weather?

a)

clear, dry weather

b)

cloudy, wet weather

105.

High pressure systems cause what type of weather?

a)

clear, dry weather

b)

cloudy, wet weather

106.

At a cold front the following weather occurs

a)

thunderheads form

b)

broad clouds form and gentle rain falls

c)

clouds and fog form for many days

d)

strong winds and heavy rain

107.

At a occluded front the following weather occurs

a)

thunderheads form

b)

broad clouds form and gentle rain falls

c)

clouds and fog form for many days

d)

strong winds and heavy rain

108.

At a warm front the following weather occurs

a)

thunderheads form

b)

broad clouds form and gentle rain falls

c)

clouds and fog form for many days

d)

strong winds and heavy rain

109.

At a stationary front the following weather occurs

a)

thunderheads form

b)

broad clouds form and gentle rain falls

c)

clouds and fog form for many days

d)

strong winds and heavy rain

110.

After a warm front the following weather occurs?

a)

warm, mild weather

b)

cool, fair weather

c)

warm, rainy weather

d)

cool, rainy weather

111.

After a cold front the following weather occurs?

a)

warm, mild weather

b)

cool, fair weather

c)

warm, rainy weather

d)

cool, rainy weather

112.

reusuable spacecraft that transports people and materials to and from space

a)

shuttle

b)

satellite

c)

orbiter

d)

lander

113.

series of missions designed to send people to the moon and back

a)

Apollo

b)

Mercury

c)

Gemini

d)

Artemis

114.

the second human spaceflight program with the objective to develop space travel to support Apollo

a)

Gemini

b)

Mercury

c)

Artemis

d)

Apollo

115.

the first human spaceflight program of the US

a)

Gemini

b)

Mercury

c)

Artemis

d)

Apollo

116.

referring to the moon

a)

lunar

b)

solar

c)

moonar

d)

looney

117.

space probes that travel past their destinations

a)

flyby

b)

lander

c)

orbiter

d)

rover

118.

space probes which touch down on the surface

a)

flyby

b)

lander

c)

orbiter

d)

revolver

119.

space probes which revolve around the object

a)

flyby

b)

lander

c)

orbiter

d)

rover

120.

government organization that oversees all space missions

a)

NASA

b)

CIA

c)

FBI

d)

Homeland Security

121.

small object, manmade or natural, that obits a larger object

a)

satellite

b)

moon

c)

Sputnik

d)

Explorer

122.

Which are products or advancements made from materials developed for space travel?

a)

swimming suits

b)

radial tires

c)

wool gloves

d)

orthodontic braces

e)

long lasting paints

123.

How are satellites used?

a)

monitor weather

b)

by the military

c)

for phones and television

d)

navigation and mapping

124.

Mars has how many satellites?

a)

2

b)

1

c)

3

d)

79

125.

Most missions are controlled by the control center in:

a)

Florida

b)

Texas

c)

California

d)

Alabama

126.

The first satellite launched was

a)

Sputnik by the Soviet Union

b)

Sputnik by USA

c)

Explorer by USA

d)

Explorer by Soviet Union

127.

The first man in space was

a)

Yuri Gagarin of the Soviet Union

b)

Yuri Gagarin of the USA

c)

Alan Shepard of USA

d)

Alan Shepard of the Soviet Union

128.

Which Apollo mission was significant due to it being the first time we had gone as far as the moon?

a)

8

b)

11

c)

1

d)

13

129.

How many countries worked together to build the ISS?

a)

16

b)

17

c)

15

d)

20

130.

Orbiter that is currently orbiting Jupiter

a)

Juno

b)

Cassini

c)

LRO

d)

James Webb

131.

flyby that launched in 1977 aimed at Uranus and Neptune

a)

Voyager

b)

New Horizons

c)

Cassini

d)

Juno

132.

Our next mission program to send humans to the moon

a)

Artemis

b)

Apollo

c)

Hera

d)

Juno

133.

Second person on the Moon

a)

Buzz Aldrin

b)

Michael Collins

c)

Neil Armstrong

d)

Alan Shepard

134.

Record holder for most total days in space

a)

Peggy Whitson

b)

Scott Kelly

c)

Christina Koch

d)

Mark Kelly

135.

Date that Apollo 11 landed on the Moon

a)

July 20, 1969

b)

June 20, 1969

c)

July 20, 1963

d)

June 20, 1963

136.

Which Apollo missions landed on the Moon?

a)

1

b)

8

c)

11

d)

13

e)

15

137.

The visible part of the Moon becomes larger

a)

Waxing

b)

waning

c)

New moon

d)

Crescent moon

138.

The visible part of the Moon becomes smaller

a)

full moon

b)

waxing

c)

waning

d)

crescent moon

139.

The daily rising and falling levels of the oceans and other large bodies of water

a)

oceans

b)

gravity

c)

lakes

d)

tides

140.

the beginning of summer or winter: days on which the hours of daylight are longest or shortest

a)

eclipse

b)

solstice

c)

ellipse

d)

gravity

141.

the spin of an object around its axis

a)

rotation

b)

revolution

c)

orbit

d)

spinning

142.

the orbit of one object around another object

a)

circling

b)

spinning

c)

rotation

d)

revolution

143.

molten volcanic material on the surface of earth

a)

magma

b)

burnt rubber

c)

lava

d)

rocks

144.

beginning of spring and fall; days on which hours of daylight equal hours of darkness

a)

lunar eclipse

b)

solstice

c)

eclipse

d)

equinox

145.

movement of one solar system object into the shadow of another object

a)

equator

b)

equinox

c)

solstice

d)

eclipse

146.

What causes our days and nights here on Earth?

a)

The rotation of the moon

b)

The rotation of the Earth on its axis

c)

The revolution of the Moon

d)

The revolution of the Earth

147.

What is Earth's axis?

a)

An imaginary line through the center of the Earth

b)

A metal pole through the center of the Earth

c)

The way the Earth revolves

d)

The way the moon revolves

148.

What causes the Earth's seasons?

a)

The revolution of the Earth around the Sun

b)

The way the Earth spins on it's axis

c)

The way the Earth is tilted on it's axis in relation to how it revolves around the Sun

d)

The way the Moon revolves around the Sun

149.

If the Moon doesn't emit its own light, how can I see it at night?

a)

The moon reflects the sun's light.

b)

The moon reflects the Earth's light

c)

The moon is battery powered.

d)

The sun reflects the moon's light.

150.

If the alignment is Earth - Moon - Sun, what phase of the moon will we see

a)

Gibbous

b)

Full Moon

c)

New Moon

d)

Crescent

151.

What causes tides?

a)

The gravitational pull of the Sun only

b)

The gravitational pull of the Moon only

c)

The gravitational pull of the Earth

d)

The gravitational pull of the Moon and the Sun on the Earth

152.

If there is a new moon tonight, for the next two weeks will the moon appear larger. This is called

a)

waxing

b)

waning

153.

Why does Earth stay in its orbit around the Sun?

a)

The gravitational pull of the Moon

b)

The gravitational pull of the Sun

c)

The gravitational pull of Venus

d)

The gravitational pull of the earth

154.

How many degrees is earth tilted on its axis?

a)

29.7 degrees

b)

25.3 degrees

c)

23.5 degrees

d)

27.5 degrees

155.

How many planets orbit our Sun?

a)

10

b)

9

c)

7

d)

8

156.

What is this a picture of?

a)

a solar eclipse

b)

a lunar eclipse

c)

a solar solstice

d)

a lunar solstice

157.

_________ are caused by the pull of the moon's gravity on the Earth.

a)

Seasons

b)

Tides

c)

Day/night cycle

d)

Moon

158.
The Northern Hemisphere is tilted away from the sun. Which statement is true about the solar energy received when the Northern Hemisphere is tilted away from the sun, compared to the Southern Hemisphere?
a)
The Northern Hemisphere receives less direct solar energy and is cooler.
b)
The Northern Hemisphere receives less direct solar energy and is warmer.
c)
The Northern Hemisphere receives more direct solar energy and is cooler.
d)
The Northern Hemisphere receives more direct solar energy and is warmer.
159.
Each Earth day is 24 hours long. Which statement explains why?
a)
It takes Earth 24 hours to rotate once on its axis.
b)
It takes the moon 24 hours to rotate once on its axis
c)
It takes the moon 24 hours to complete one orbit of Earth.
d)
It takes Earth 24 hours to complete one orbit of the sun.
160.
In January, it is winter in the Northern hemisphere.  What season is it in the Southern hemisphere in January? 
a)
Fall
b)
Spring
c)
Summer
d)
Winter
161.
Which two positions represent an equinox?
a)
A and B
b)
C and D
c)
B and D
d)
A and C
162.

The nebular hypothesis explains

a)

why the planets are spherical in shape.

b)

why the solar system is in a flattened disk.

c)

how the sun and planets formed from a cloud of gas and dust.

d)

all of the above.

163.

Because Pluto has not cleared its orbital path of debris, it was reclassified from a planet to a . . .

a)

asteroid.

b)

meteor.

c)

moon.

d)

dwarf planet.

164.

The astronomer _______________________ first proposed that Earth and the other planets orbit the sun.

a)

Copernicus.

b)

Einstein.

c)

Kepler.

d)

Newton.

165.
What holds the planets in their orbits around the sun?
a)
gravity
b)
speed
c)
string
d)
air currents
166.
An _______ is between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. 
a)
Oort Cloud
b)
Asteroid belt
c)
Kuiper belt
d)
Photosphere
167.
Venus, Mercury, Earth, and Mars are what type of planet?
a)
Gas Giants
b)
Ice Giants
c)
Terrestrial Planets
d)
Exterior Planets
168.
Which choice shows the correct order of the planets?
a)
Mars, Venus, Earth, Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
b)
Earth, Venus, Mars, Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Pluto
c)
Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
d)
Saturn, Venus, Mars, Mercury, Jupiter, Neptune Mercury, Uranus
169.
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune are what type of planets?
a)
Gas Giants
b)
Ice Giants
c)
Terrestrial Planets
d)
Exterior Planets
170.
Planets that are closer to the sun
a)
take more time to orbit
b)
take less time to orbit
171.
Planets form by a process called...
a)
accretion
b)
dark matter interactions
c)
electromagnetic radiation
d)
sun-dropping
172.

Limestone can be slowly dissolved by rainwater or groundwater.

a)

True

b)

False

173.

This feature is formed when calcium carbonate is deposited on the ceiling of a cave.

a)

stalagmite

b)

sink hole

c)

stalactite

d)

pillar

174.

This feature is formed when the roof of an underground cavern collapses.

a)

stalagmite

b)

sink hole

c)

stalactite

d)

pillar

175.

This feature is formed when calcium carbonate is deposited on the floor of a cave.

a)

stalagmite

b)

sink hole

c)

stalactite

d)

pillar

176.

Sometimes a large underground hollow or passage called a _________ is formed as water wears away limestone.

a)

underground river

b)

cave

c)

cockpit

d)

karst landscape

177.
When fertilizers enter surface water, they cause problems in 
the watershed by -
a)
increasing the amount of nutrients available to fish in lakes and streams.
b)

clogging narrow streams and preventing water from flowing properly.
c)
raising the water level in nearby rivers to levels leading to flooding.
d)
causing rapid algal growth that decrease oxygen levels and choke aquatic life.
178.
Which would increase the amount of runoff you get?
a)
Vegetation
b)
More plants
c)
Urban Development
179.
What do you call the land that water flows across, under, and through on its way to a body of water?
a)
Tributary
b)
River system
c)
Headwaters
d)
Watershed
180.

All bodies of fresh water, salt water, ice, and snow that are found above ground

a)

Groundwater

b)

Surface water

c)

Runoff

d)

Swimming pool

181.
___________________ washes agricultural wastes, including animal wastes, fertilizers, and pesticides, into bodies of water, causing algae to grow.
a)
Runoff
b)
Peak flow
c)
Groundwater
d)
Municipal sewage
182.
Wastes produced by agriculture, households, industry, mining, and other human activities can end up in ______________.
a)
groundwater
b)
streams and rivers
c)
oceans
d)
All of these choices
183.
An area of permeable layer of rock or soil that holds a large amount of water in the saturated zone is called what?
a)
Aquifer
b)
Spring
c)
Well
d)
Reservoir
184.
The water that fills lakes and rivers
a)
groundwater
b)
surface water
c)
water table
d)
saturated zone
185.
Water stored  in cracks and pores below the Earth's surface is called:
a)
Groundwater
b)
Bogs
c)
Water in the ground
d)
surface water
186.
What is the top of the water-filled spaces  (saturated zone) in the ground called?
a)
Groundwater
b)
Reservoir
c)
Water Table
d)
Well
187.
Sand is ___________, meaning that water can pass through easily.
a)
Permeable
b)
Impermeable
c)
Solid
d)
Soft
188.
Suppose there is a drought in this area. The level of the river drops because of it.
What else could happen here?
a)
The river will immediately rise again.
b)
The water table will rise. 
c)
The water table will fall. 
d)
A new aquifer will form.
189.
What is an area of higher elevation that separates watersheds?
a)
Estuary
b)
Divide
c)
Wetland
d)
Transition zones
190.
What is the water that fills the cracks and spaces in underground soil and rock layers called?
a)
Groundwater
b)
Water Table
c)
Precipitation
d)
Snow
191.
The top of the groundwater’s zone of saturation - E
a)
Zone of Aeration
b)
Aquifer
c)
Surface water
d)
Water table
192.

In this underground structure, all spaces are filled with water.

a)

zone of saturation

b)

zone of aeration

193.

This zone is above the water table. Pore spaces among soil particles and rock formations are filled with air instead of water.

a)

zone of saturation

b)

zone of aeration

194.

The mesosphere helps protect the crust from...

a)

The impact of meteors.

b)

Dangerous cosmic rays.

c)

Dangerous solar flares.

d)

Harmful weather.

195.

The mesosphere helps protect the crust from...

a)

The impact of meteors.

b)

Dangerous cosmic rays.

c)

Dangerous solar flares.

d)

Harmful weather.

196.

The composition of the atmosphere is mostly...

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Helium

197.

The main factor that raises the rate of global warming is...

a)

Ozone and Oxygen

b)

Carbon Dioxide and Hydrogen

c)

Carbon Dioxide

d)

Carbon Dioxide and Dihydrogen Oxide

198.
Which of the following is evidence of the Big Bang Theory?
a)
Cavemen heard a loud bang at the beginning of time.
b)
The universe isn't moving
c)
The universe is expanding
d)
The universe is getting smaller
199.

As galaxies move away from our galaxy

a shift on the electromagnetic spectrum is noticed. This phenomena is

called _____________.

a)

redshift

b)

blueshift

200.

How is the "Big Bang" described?

a)

an explosion

b)

an expansion

c)

a contraction

201.

The "afterglow" of the energy from the origin of the universe that we see today.

a)

Cosmic microwave radiation

b)

sunlight

c)

Doppler effect

d)

Cosmic explosions

202.
What were the original two elements in our universe?
a)
Lithium and Carbon
b)
Hydrogen and Neon
c)
Helium and Chlorine
d)
Hydrogen and Helium
203.
What does the Big Bang theory suggest?
a)
The universe was just there
b)
The Milky Way is the only solar system
c)
The universe is continually expanding
d)
The universe is collapsing in toward a single point
204.

Which statement is true?

a)

The galaxies are moving toward us.

b)

The galaxies are moving away from us.

c)

The universe remains static or unchanged in motion.

d)

None of the above

205.

Most scientists believe the Big Bang Theory explains which of the following questions?

a)

How our planets and moons formed

b)

How our universe began

c)

How the sun turns hydrogen into helium

d)

How fast light travels through space

206.

Light emitted from a star or galaxy can be separated into a band of colors, called a ________.

a)

Red Shift

b)

Wave Length

c)

Spectrum

d)

Microwave

207.
The universe is expanding!  This means that:
a)
all of the galaxies are spreading out.
b)
the universe must have started from a single point.
c)
the universe is cooling down.
d)
all of the above.
208.
The change in wavelength of light or sound that is due to the relative motion of the source towards or away from an observer.
a)
Radar Effect
b)
Doppler Effect
c)
Light Effect
d)
Reflection

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