Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Junior Review Cos Final

Total questions: 134

Worksheet time: 7hrs 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

All of the following are appendages of the skin EXCEPT:

a)

pineal gland

b)

nails

c)

hair

d)

sebaceous glands

2.

The outermost and thinnest layer of the skin, is the

a)

subcutaneous

b)

surface

c)

epidermis

d)

dermis

3.

The dermis layer is made up of 2 layers, which are the

a)

papillary and recticular

b)

dermal and tactile

c)

papillary and dermal

d)

tactile and recticular

4.

The top of the papillary layer, where it joins the epidermis is the

a)

dermis corpuscles

b)

epidermal / dermal connection

c)

epidermal / dermal junction

d)

epidermis junction

5.

Which type of nerve fibers carry impulses from the brain to the muscles

a)

sensory

b)

secretory

c)

motor

d)

all of the above

6.

The melanin produced by the body that is red to yellow in color is

a)

granular melanin

b)

eumelanin

c)

pheomelanin

d)

photovoltaic

7.

Which vitamin enables the body to properly absorb and use calcium

a)

vitamin A

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Vitamin E

8.

All of the following are examples of primary lesions EXCEPT

a)

bulla

b)

cyst

c)

keloid

d)

nodule

9.

A large sore bump that does not have a head of pus is a

a)

secondary

b)

papule

c)

freckle

d)

stain

10.

Dead cells that form over a wound or blemish while it is healing comprise a

a)

crust

b)

macule

c)

tubercle

d)

vesicle

11.

cracks in the skin that penetrate the dermis layer such as chapped hands or lips are

a)

tissues

b)

fissures

c)

tumors

d)

tubercles

12.

Any thin, dry or oily plate of epidermal flakes is known as

a)

scale

b)

scar

c)

vesicle

d)

papule

13.

Excessive sweating caused by heat or general body weakness is

a)

anhidrosis

b)

bromhidrosis

c)

prickly heat

d)

hyperhidrosis

14.

The absence of melanin pigmentation in the body is known as

a)

lentigo

b)

albanism

c)

chloasma

d)

nevus

15.

Hypertrophy of the papillae and epidermis is a

a)

wart

b)

keratoma

c)

mole

d)

stain

16.

the most common and least severe type of skin cancer is

a)

basal cell carcinoma

b)

brown patches

c)

malignant melanoma

d)

squamous cell carcinoma

17.

The American Cancer Society recommends using a checklist to recognize potential skin cancer or changes in moles, using the letter B

a)

borders

b)

bulding

c)

brightness

d)

balance

18.

The rays of the sun that cause sunburns and tanning and are also known as burning rays are

a)

AB rays

b)

AC rays

c)

UVB rays

d)

UVT rays

19.

The natural nail is part of what system

a)

muscular

b)

integumentary

c)

skeletal

d)

protective

20.

The water content of the natural nail directly affects the nail's

a)

length

b)

flexibility

c)

grooves

d)

color

21.

the nail bed contains many nerves and is attached to the nail plate with a thin layer of tissue called the

a)

bed eponychium

b)

bed lunula

c)

nail mantle

d)

bed epithelium

22.

the living skin at the base of the nail plate covering the matrix area is the

a)

eponychium

b)

hyponychium

c)

free edge

d)

bed epithelium

23.

the surface of a healthy natural nail should be

a)

smooth and spotted

b)

smooth and unspotted

c)

pitted and rough

d)

flexible and spotted

24.

a nail condition in which blood clots form under the nail plate due to a small injury of the nail plate is

a)

bruised nails

b)

blue nails

c)

abnormal nails

d)

bruised onychia

25.

visible depressions running across the width of the natural nail plate that are the result of a major illness or injury are visible

a)

eggshell nails

b)

narrow lines

c)

beau's lines

d)

hangnails

26.

A dark band within the nail plate extending from the base to the free edge due to increased pigmentation is

a)

melanin nails

b)

onycholysis

c)

onychophagy

d)

melanonychia

27.

split or brittle nails with a series of lengthwise ridges and a rough appearance to the surface of the nail plate is

a)

onychophagy

b)

onychophosis

c)

onychorrhexis

d)

plicatured nails

28.

parasites that under some conditions can cause infections to the feet and hands are

a)

pedis

b)

fungi

c)

tinea

d)

flagella

29.

tiny pits or severe roughness on the surface of the nail plate is an indication of

a)

local infection

b)

ingrown nails

c)

nail psoriasis

d)

athletes foot

30.

the process of chemically altering the natural wave pattern of hair is

a)

chemical hair softening

b)

chemical hair texture services

c)

natural hair service

d)

alternative texture service

31.

chemical side bonds formed when 2 sulfur-type chains are joined together are

a)

keratin bonds

b)

amino bonds

c)

disulfide bonds

d)

peptide bonds

32.

hydrogen bonds are easily broken by water or heat and are reformed when the hair is

a)

stretched

b)

dried

c)

softened

d)

styled

33.

the wrapping technique that provides the most control over hair ends is the

a)

single flat wrap

b)

bookend wrap

c)

double flat wrap

d)

placed wrap

34.

waves that are activated from an outside heat source are considered

a)

stabilized

b)

endothermic

c)

exothermic

d)

acid waves

35.

hair that has too many disulfide bonds broken and will not hold a firm curl is considered

a)

underprocessed

b)

overprocessed

c)

tinted

d)

underneutralized

36.

base sections are offset from each other row by row, to prevent noticable splits, in which wrapping pattern

a)

weave technique

b)

bricklay permanent wrap

c)

basic perm wrap

d)

straight wrap set

37.

relaxers that contain only 1 component and are used without mixing are

a)

neutralizing relaxers

b)

metal hydroxide relaxers

c)

guanidine hydroxide relaxers

d)

calcium hydroxide relaxers

38.

relaxers that contain 2 components and must be mixed immediately prior to use are

a)

guanidine hydroxide relaxers

b)

no lye relaxers

c)

ammonium thioglycolate

d)

potassium hydroxide relaxers

39.

a combination of a thio relaxer and a thio perm wrapped on large rods is a

a)

permanent wave

b)

soft curl permanent

c)

full curl perm

d)

relaxer retouch

40.

chemical services shoul not be performed if the scalp analysis shows any signs of

a)

porosity

b)

abrasions

c)

disorders

d)

tightness

41.

hair texture is determined by the diameter of individual hair

a)

strands

b)

sections

c)

lengths

d)

color

42.

fine hair takes color faster and can look darker because the melanin granules are grouped

a)

more loosely

b)

more tightly

c)

more scattered

d)

less tightly

43.

The hair type with a large diameter that can take longer to process hair color is :

a)

fine-textured hair

b)

medium-textured hair

c)

coarse- textured hair

d)

long hair

44.

The system used by colorists to analyze the lightness or darkness of a hair color is :

a)

the color wheel

b)

the level system

c)

melanin distribution

d)

the primary color system

45.

The primary color that brings depth or darkness to any color is:

a)

red

b)

yellow

c)

blue

d)

green

46.

colors that can look deeper than their actual level are:

a)

natural tones

b)

cool tones

c)

warm tones

d)

lightest tones

47.

All hair coloring products require a path test with the exception of:

a)

semi permanent

b)

temporary colors

c)

permanent colors

d)

demi permanent

48.

As part of their composition, all permanent hair coloring products and lighteners contain both a developer and a:

a)

decomposing agent

b)

acidic agent

c)

alkalizing agent

d)

neutralizing agent

49.

Chemical compounds that lighten the hair by dispersing,dissolving, and decolorizing the natural pigment are:

a)

hair oxidizers

b)

hair decolorizers

c)

hair lighteners

d)

hair levels

50.

During the process of decolorizing, the natural hair can go through as many stages as:

a)

5 stages

b)

8 stages

c)

10 stages

d)

12 stages

51.

Examples of single process permanent coloring applications are virgin color applications and :

a)

semi permanent applications

b)

color retouch applications

c)

color shampoos

d)

cream lighteners

52.

Overlapping hair color on previosly tinted hair can cause breakage and create a visible line of :

a)

application

b)

demarcation

c)

alteration

d)

solution

53.

When applying color for a single process retouch application, the color should be applied to the new growth using:

a)

1 inch partings

b)

3/4 inch partings

c)

1/4 inch partings

d)

1/2 inch partings

54.

Clients who present skin abnormalities, ope sores, or fever blisters should be referred to a :

a)

podiatrist

b)

physician

c)

stylist

d)

aesthetician

55.

During an analysis procedure, cleansing milk is applied to the skin using:

a)

downward circular movements

b)

upward circular movements

c)

rounded strong movements

d)

outward movements

56.

When removing cleanser in the eye area, move outward on the upper lip and:

a)

circular on the lower lid

b)

inward on the lower lid

c)

outward on the lower lid

d)

down on the lower lid

57.

The amount of sebum produced by the sebaceous glands determines the size of:

a)

layers

b)

pores

c)

glands

d)

thickness

58.

Skin that appears shiny or greasy from clogged, dead cells in the follicle is:

a)

dehydrated skin

b)

acid skin

c)

oily skin

d)

combination skin

59.

The differnece between closed and open comedones is the size of the follicle opening or:

a)

scar

b)

cuticle

c)

cell

d)

ostium

60.

Acne bacteria cannot survive in the presence of oxygen, and are:

a)

pustules

b)

solidified

c)

alipidic

d)

anaerobic

61.

Treatments that produce heat or stimulate the skin should be avoided for clients with the skin disorder:

a)

rosacea

b)

gommage

c)

tension

d)

pigmentation

62.

Cosmetology professionals are only allowed to use products that remove dead skin from the:

a)

stratum lucidum

b)

stratum corneum

c)

stratum keratoma

d)

stratum granulosum

63.

A cream type enzyme applied to the face and rolled of the skin:

a)

gommage

b)

scrub

c)

toner

d)

microform

64.

Exfoliants that dissolve the bonds and the inter cellular cement between the cells is:

a)

gommages

b)

tonic lotions

c)

alpha hydroxy acids

d)

aluminum oxide crystals

65.

Salon alpha hydroxy acid exfoliates are often referred to as:

a)

astringents

b)

gommages

c)

peels

d)

mechanical exfoliants

66.

An enzyme peel that does not dry the skin and can be used during a steam treatment is the :

a)

cream form

b)

gommage

c)

emulsifying form

d)

powder form

67.

oil absorbing masks that have an exfoliating and astringent effect, making large pores appear smaller are:

a)

clay based masks

b)

gel masks

c)

alginate masks

d)

cream masks

68.

every massage should begin and end with the movement:

a)

petrissage

b)

friction

c)

effleurage

d)

kneading

69.

high frequency electrotherapy machines have how many electrons

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

none

70.

The therapeutic use of essential oils for beauty and health treatment is:

a)

exfoliation

b)

aromatherapy

c)

light therapy

d)

dermatology

71.

The nail professionals chair should be selected for durability,comfort,ergonomics, and ease of:

a)

portability

b)

cleaning

c)

communication

d)

padding

72.

If you draw blood during a amnicure, the implement should be:

a)

rinsed with water

b)

cleaned with alcohol

c)

cleaned and disinfected

d)

bagged and dicarded

73.

Implements should be removed from a disinfectant solution using:

a)

fingers

b)

hands

c)

tongs

d)

all of the above

74.

Cotton used on the end of wooden pusher should be changed:

a)

when wet

b)

after each use

c)

after each client

d)

when messy

75.

Which type of nail polish remover is recommended when removing nail polish from nail enhancements such as wraps?

a)

acetone

b)

non acetone

c)

both acetone and non acetone

d)

neither acetone nor non acetone

76.

Nail hardeners that are useful for thin,weak nail plates and that should never be applied to hard,rigid,or brittle nail plates contain:

a)

cellulose

b)

methylene glycol

c)

conditioners

d)

ammonia

77.

The relaxing massage movement that should be perfected,varied, and expertly used during the manicure is :

a)

tapotement

b)

effleurage

c)

friction

d)

petrissage

78.

Essential oils are extracted using various forms of distillation from which of the following?

a)

seeds

b)

plant resin

c)

wood

d)

all of the above

79.

Toenail clippers that are the most effective should have jaws with a:

a)

blunt point

b)

fine point

c)

curved point

d)

dull point

80.

Which of the following i ideal for the use around the edges of the big toe nail:

a)

file

b)

paddle

c)

currette

d)

rasp

81.

Dry skin and calluses should be gently removed from the ball and heel of the foot using a:

a)

emery board

b)

abrasive board

c)

foot file

d)

nail file

82.

When preforming a pedicure, do not push back the:

a)

eponychium

b)

rough edges

c)

dead tissues

d)

cuticle tissue

83.

an implement similar to a nail clipper that is used on the nail tips is a:

a)

tip curette

b)

tip cutter

c)

blocker

d)

activator

84.

Shallow depressions that serve as contact points for nail tips and natural nails are called:

a)

wells

b)

connections

c)

adhesions

d)

sidewalls

85.

A thin tightly woven natural material that becomes transparent when wrap resin is applied is:

a)

cotton

b)

fiberglass

c)

linen

d)

silk

86.

To press fabric wraps onto the natural nail plate and avoid the transfer of dust or oil is:

a)

thick plastic

b)

fingertips

c)

heavy adhesive

d)

nail resin

87.

Sculptured nails are created by combining monomer liquid with:

a)

polymer adhesive

b)

polymer resin

c)

polymer powder

d)

acrylic powder

88.

When using the brush to shape the enhancement on the free edge area, use:

a)

the middle portion of the brush

b)

the tip of the brush

c)

the end of the brush

d)

long painting strokes

89.

Additives designed to speed up the chemical reactions of monomers are:

a)

catalysts

b)

stabilizers

c)

primers

d)

dehydrators

90.

The initiator added to polymer powder to start the chain reaction of curing the nail enhancement is:

a)

hydrogen peroxide

b)

benzoyl peroxide

c)

synthetic peroxide

d)

catalyst booster

91.

When applying nail enhancements, surface moisture and natural oils left on the nail plate will:

a)

block adhesion

b)

improve adhesion

c)

condition nails

d)

hydrate nails

92.

A nail supply that is placed under the free edge to extend a nail enhancement is a:

a)

nail extender

b)

silk wrap

c)

nail form

d)

synthetic fiber

93.

proper maintenance of nail enhancements should be done every:

a)

month

b)

every other month

c)

2 to 3 weeks

d)

4 to 6 weeks

94.

A short chain of monomers that is not long enough to be considered a polymer is a :

a)

methacrylate

b)

adhesive

c)

oligomer

d)

acrylate

95.

Which gel is used to enhance thickness of the overlay while providing a smoother surface?

a)

pigmented UV gel

b)

UV building gels

c)

UV gel polish

d)

UV self leveling gel

96.

UV gels cure with a tacky surface called a:

a)

surface layer

b)

sealing layer

c)

inhibition layer

d)

building layer

97.

A measure of how much electricity a UV bulb consumes is:

a)

UV

b)

unit wattage

c)

gallons

d)

amperes

98.

UV gel polish is a relatively new system that evolved in the year :

a)

1984

b)

1998

c)

2000

d)

2005

99.

When contouring a UV gel nail enhancement, bevel down, stroking the file at a 45 degree angle from:

a)

free edge to cuticle

b)

cuticle to sidewalls

c)

top center dome to free edge

d)

top free edge to sidewall area

100.

After the filing procedure, remove dust and filings with a clean and disinfected:

a)

cleansing wipes

b)

wooden pusher

c)

nylon brush

d)

metal file

101.

The medical branch of sciene that deals with the study of skin, its functions and diseases, is:

a)

anatomy

b)

dermatology

c)

histology

d)

physiology

102.

The surface of healthy skin is slightly:

a)

yellow

b)

alkaline

c)

rough

d)

acidic

103.

All of the following are appendages of the skin EXCEPT:

a)

pineal gland

b)

nails

c)

sebaceous glands

d)

hair

104.

The clear, transparent layer just under the stratum corneum that consists of small cells through which light can pass is the:

a)

stratum lucidum

b)

stratum corneum

c)

stratum spinosum

d)

stratum granulosum

105.

The stratum germinativum is composed of several layers with special cells that produce a dark pigment called:

a)

keratin

b)

melanin

c)

granules

d)

elongated

106.

The tiny grains of pigment deposited in the cells that provide skin with its color:

a)

protein

b)

melanin

c)

collagen

d)

keratin

107.

The melanin produced by the body that is red to yellow in color is:

a)

20 to 30 percent

b)

50 to 70 percent

c)

35 to 45 percent

d)

40 to 45 percent

108.

An abnormal cell mass that varies in size,color, and shape is:

a)

tumor

b)

pustule

c)

scale

d)

tubercle

109.

A thick scar resulting from excessive growth of fibrous tissue is known as:

a)

stain

b)

cyst

c)

keloid

d)

bulla

110.

A skin disorder characterized by chronic inflammation of the sebaceous glands caused from retained secretions is:

a)

wheal

b)

acne

c)

excoriation

d)

conjunctivitis

111.

A contagious, recurring viral infection characterized by fever blisters or cold sores is:

a)

herpes simplex

b)

herpes dermatitis

c)

psoriasis

d)

eczema

112.

Hypertrophy of the papillae and epidermis is :

a)

malignant melanoma

b)

malignant rosacea

c)

keratoma

d)

leukoderma

113.

Which of the following is NOT an intrinsic skin aging factor?

a)

gravity

b)

genetic aging

c)

facial expressions

d)

sun exposure

114.

The UV rays of the sun reach the skin in two different forms, which are:

a)

UVA rays and X rays

b)

UVA and UVB rays

c)

UBC and VBT rays

d)

VBA and UVC rays

115.

The rays of the sun that can cause sunburns and tanning and are also known as burning rays are:

a)

AB rays

b)

AC rays

c)

UVB rays

d)

UVT rays

116.

The portion of living skin that supports the nail plate is the:

a)

nail root

b)

nail groove

c)

nail bed

d)

nail matrix

117.

The surface of a healthy natural nail should be:

a)

smooth and spotted

b)

flexible and spotted

c)

smooth and unspotted

d)

pitted and rough

118.

Clients with skin or nails that are infected, inflamed, or swollen should be referred to a:

a)

stylist

b)

technician

c)

physician

d)

specialist

119.

A dark band within the nail plate extending from the base to the free edge due to increased pigmentation is:

a)

melanin nails

b)

onycholysis

c)

onychophagy

d)

specialist

120.

A highly curved nail plate often called " folded nail" caused by injury to the mtrix or inherited is a:

a)

bruised nail

b)

bitten nail

c)

plicatured nail

d)

eggshell nail

121.

The naturally occuring skin bacterium that can grow out of control and cause nail infections, incorrectly referred to as mold is:

a)

pseudomonas aeruginosa

b)

paronychia

c)

pyogenic

d)

plictured nails

122.

The lifting of the nail plate from the bed without shedding is a sign of:

a)

onychomadesis

b)

nail psoriasis

c)

eggshell nails

d)

onycholysis

123.

Exothermic waves create a chemical reaction that heats the waving solution nd speeds up:

a)

processing

b)

conditioning

c)

neutralizing

d)

formulation

124.

Hair that has too many disulfide bonds broken and will not hold a firm curl is considered:

a)

underprocessed

b)

overprocessed

c)

underneutralized

d)

tinted

125.

Hydroxide relaxers remove a sulfur atom from a disulfide bond, converting it into a:

a)

normalization bond

b)

acidic bond

c)

lanthionine bond

d)

amino bond

126.

Relaxers that only contain one component and are used without mixing are:

a)

neutralizing relaxers

b)

metal hydroxide relaxers

c)

guanidine hydroxide relaxers

d)

calcium hydroxide relaxers

127.

Chemical services should not be preformed if the scalp analysis shows any signs of:

a)

porosity

b)

disorders

c)

tightness

d)

abrasions

128.

The hair type with a large diameter that can take longer to process hair color is:

a)

fine textured hair

b)

coarse textured hair

c)

medium textured hair

d)

long hair

129.

When the cuticle of the hair is lifted and the hair is overly porous and absorbs color quickly, the hair porosity is defined as:

a)

high

b)

medium

c)

low

d)

even

130.

When all three primary colors are present in equal proportions, the resulting color is:

a)

brown

b)

black

c)

green

d)

orange

131.

A color obtained by mixing equal parts of two primary colors is a:

a)

base color

b)

tertiary color

c)

contributing color

d)

secondary color

132.

The hue or balance of color seen in the hair is referred as:

a)

scale

b)

depth

c)

value

d)

tone

133.

Hair coloring products that change color gradually by progressive buildup and exposure to air contain:

a)

blending salts

b)

metal salts

c)

mineral crystals

d)

dye precursors

134.

The process that lightens the hair and deposits color in one application is a :

a)

deposit only color

b)

semi permanent color

c)

single process hair coloring

d)

double process hair coloring