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Worksheets

CET/NEET - Physics

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

      Nature of equipotential surface for a point charge is

a)

Ellipsoid with charge at foci

b)

Sphere with charge at the centre of the sphere.

c)

Sphere with charge on the surface of the sphere.

d)

Plane with charge on the surface

2.

A particle of mass 1gm and charge 1μC is held at rest on a frictionless horizontal surface at distance 1m from fixed charge 2mC. If the particle is released, it will be repelled. The speed of the particle when it is at a distance of 10m from the fixed charge.

a)

60 ms-1

b)

100 ms-1

c)

90ms-1

d)

180ms-1

3.

Four metal plates are arranged as shown. Capacitance between X and Y (A = Area of each plate, d = distance between the plates).

a)
b)
c)
d)
4.

Two point charges A = +3nC and B = +1nC are placed 5 Cm apart in air. The work done to move charge B towards A by 1 Cm is

a)

1.35 X 10- 7J

b)

2.7X 10- 7J

c)

2X 10- 7J

d)

12.1X 10- 7J

5.

A system of two capacitors of capacitance 2μF and 4μF is connected in series across a potential difference of 6V. The electric charge and energy stored in the system are

a)

10μC and 30μ J

b)

36μC and 108μ J

c)

8μC and 24μ J

d)

1μC and 3μ J

6.

The minimum value of effective capacitance that can be obtained by combining 3 capacitors of capacitances 1pF, 2pF and 4pF is

a)

0.57pF

b)

1pF

c)

1.75pF

d)

2pF

7.

For the arrangement of capacitors as shown in the circuit, the effective capacitance between points A and B is

a)

4μF

b)

2μF

c)

1μF

d)

8μF

8.

The work done to move a charge on any equipotential surface is

a)

Infinity

b)

Less than 1

c)

Greater than 1

d)

Zero

9.

Two capacitors of 3μF and 6μF are connected in series and a potential difference of 900V is applied across the combination. They are then disconnected and reconnected in parallel. The potential difference across the combination is

a)

Zero

b)

100V

c)

200V

d)

400V

10.

Two metal plates are separated by 2 Cm. The potentials of the plates are – 10 V and + 30V. The electric field between the two plates is

a)

500V/m

b)

1000V/m

c)

2000V/m

d)

3000V/m

11.

A capacitor of capacitance C charged by an amount Q is connected in parallel with an uncharged capacitor of capacitance 2C. The final charges on the capacitors are

a)

Q2 ,Q2\frac{Q}{2}\ ,\frac{Q}{2}  

b)

Q4 ,3Q4\frac{Q}{4}\ ,\frac{3Q}{4}  

c)

Q3, 2Q3\frac{Q}{3},\ \frac{2Q}{3}  

d)

Q5, 4Q5\frac{Q}{5},\ \frac{4Q}{5}  

12.

A system of two charges separated by a certain distance apart stores electrical potential energy. If the distance between them is increased, the potential energy of the system

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

May increase or decrease

d)

Remains same

13.

The total energy of the electron orbiting around the nucleus in the ground state of the atom is

a)

Less than zero

b)

Zero

c)

More than Zero

d)

Sometimes less and sometime more than zero

14.

Rutherford’s atomic model accounts for

a)

Concentration of positive charge at the center in the atom

b)

Stability of electron in orbits

c)

Stability of the nucleus

d)

Line spectrum of hydrogen

15.

The scientist who is credited with the discovery of “Nucleus” in an atom

a)

J.J. Thomson

b)

Rutherford

c)

Bohr

d)

Balmer

16.

In Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, which of the following pairs of quantities are quantized?

a)

Energy and linear momentum

b)

Linear and angular momentum

c)

Energy and angular momentum

d)

None of the above

17.

The orbital frequency of an electron in the hydrogen atom is proportional to

a)

n3

b)

n -3

c)

n

d)

n-1

18.

Continuous emission spectrum is produced by

a)

Incandescent electric lamp

b)

Mercury vapor lamp

c)

Sodium vapor lamp

d)

None of the above

19.

The nucleus of an atom consists of

a)

Electrons and protons

b)

Electrons, protons and neutrons

c)

Electrons and neutrons

d)

Neutrons and protons

20.

Bohr’s atom model assumes

a)

The nucleus is of infinite mass and is at rest

b)

Electrons in a quantized orbit will not radiate energy

c)

Mass of electron remains constant

d)

All the above conditions

21.

The angular momentum (L) of an electron moving in a stable orbit around nucleus is

a)

Half integral multiple of h2π\frac{h}{2\pi}  

b)

Integral multiple of h

c)

Integral multiple of h2π\frac{h}{2\pi}  

d)

Half integral multiple of h

22.

Which state of triply ionized Beryllium (Be3+) has the same orbital radius as that of ground state of hydrogen

a)

n = 3

b)

n = 4

c)

n = 1

d)

n = 2

23.

If the shortest wavelength in the Lyman series is 911.6 A0 the longest wavelength in the same series will be

a)

1600A0

b)

2430 A0

c)

1215 A0

d)

\infty  

24.

For ionising an excited hydrogen atom, the energy required (in eV) will be

a)

A little less than 13.6

b)

13.6

c)

More than 13.6

d)

3.4 or less

25.

Which one of the following pairs of nuclei are isotones?

a)

34Se74, 31Ga71

b)

38Sr84, 38Sr86

c)

42Mo92, 40Zr92

d)

20Ca40, 16S32

26.

A nucleus represented by the symbol has

a)

Z neutrons and A – Z protons

b)

   Z protons and A – Z neutrons

c)

Z protons and A neutrons

d)

A protons and Z – A neutrons

27.

The mass number of a nucleus is

a)

Always less than its atomic number

b)

 Always more than its atomic number

c)

Sometimes equal to its atomic number

d)

Sometimes less than and sometimes more than its atomic number

28.

Atomic weight of Boron is 10.81 and it has two isotopes 5B10 and 5B11. Then the ratio of 5B10 : 5B11 in nature would be

a)

15 : 16

b)

10 : 11

c)

19 : 81

d)

81 : 19

29.

The constituents of atomic nuclei are believed to be

a)

Neutrons and protons

b)

Protons only

c)

Electrons and protons

d)

Electrons, protons and neutrons

30.

In the nucleus of 11Na23, the number of protons neutrons and electrons are

a)

11, 12, 0

b)

23, 12, 11

c)

12, 11, 0

d)

23, 11, 12

31.

The nuclei 6C13 and 7N14 can be described as

a)

isotones

b)

isobars

c)

isotopes of carbon

d)

isotopes of nitrogen

32.

If the nuclear radius of 27Al is 3.6 fermi, the approximate nuclear radius of 64Cu in fermi is

a)

2.4

b)

1.2

c)

4.8

d)

3.6

33.

Two nuclei have their mass numbers in the ratio of 1 : 3. The ratio of their nuclear densities would be

a)

(3)1/3 : 1

b)

1 : 1

c)

1 : 3

d)

3 : 1

34.

The volume occupied by an atom is greater than the volume of the nucleus by a factor of about

a)

101

b)

105

c)

1010

d)

1015

35.

A nucleus break into two nuclear parts, which have their velocity ratio equal to 2 : 1. What will be the ratio of their nuclear size (nuclear radius)?

a)

31/2 : 1

b)

1 : 31/2

c)

21/3 : 1

d)

1 : 21/3

36.

The mass number of He is 4 and that of sculpture is 32. The radius of sculpture nucleus is larger than that of helium by the factor of

a)

4

b)

2

c)

8

d)

3

37.

To use a transistor as an amplifier

a)

the emitter base junction is forward biased and the base collector junction is reversed biased

b)

no bias voltage is required

c)

both junction are forward biased

d)

both junction are reverse biased

38.

In semiconductors at a room temperature

a)

the valence band is partially empty and the conduction band is partially filled

b)

the valence band is completely filled and the conduction band is partially filled

c)

the valence band is completely filled

d)

the conduction band is completely empty

39.

In a n-type semiconductor, which of the following statement is true?

a)

Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants

b)

Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants

c)

Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants

d)

Electrons are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants

40.

If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal

a)

it becomes a p-type semiconductor

b)

the antimony becomes an acceptor atom

c)

there will be more free electrons than holes in the semiconductor

d)

its resistance is increased

41.

Which one of the following statement is false?

a)

Pure Si doped with trivalent impurities gives ap-type semiconductor

b)

Majority carriers in a n-type semiconductor are holes

c)

Minority carriers in a p-type semiconductor are electrons.

d)

The resistance of intrinsic semiconductor decreases with increase of temperature

42.

In a p type semiconductor, the majority carriers of current are

a)

Protons

b)

electrons

c)

holes

d)

neutrons

43.

Which of the following, when added as an impurity into the silicon produces n type semiconductor?

a)

B

b)

Al

c)

P

d)

Mg

44.

To obtain a p-type germanium semiconductor, it must be doped with

a)

indium

b)

phosphorus

c)

arsenic

d)

antimony

45.

When arsenic is added as an impurity to silicon, the resulting material is

a)

n-type conductor

b)

n-type semiconductor

c)

p-type semiconductor

d)

none of these

46.

When n type semiconductor is heated

a)

number of electrons increases while that of holes decreases

b)

number of holes increases while that of electrons decreases

c)

number of electrons and holes remain same

d)

number of electrons and holes increases equally

47.

Depletion layer consists of

a)

mobile ions

b)

protons

c)

electrons

d)

immobile ions

48.

The depletion layer in the p-n junction region is caused by

a)

drift of holes

b)

diffusion of charge carriers

c)

migration of impurity ions

d)

drift of electrons

49.

Which one of the following represents forward biasdiode?

a)
b)
c)
d)
50.

Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as shown in the circuit. The current supplied by the battery is

a)

0.75A

b)

0A

c)

0.25A

d)

0.5 A

51.

A wire of resistance 4 Ω is stretched to twice its original length. The resistance of stretched wire would be

a)

8 Ω

b)

16 Ω

c)

2 Ω

d)

4 Ω

52.

What is the voltage drop across a 300Ω resistor carrying a current of 50mA.

a)

15 V

b)

20 V

c)

25 V

d)

30 V

53.

The color code of a resistance is given Brown – Red – Orange  – Gold. The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively, are

a)

120Ω ± 5%

b)

120Ω ± 10%

c)

12KΩ ± 5%

d)

12KΩ ± 10%

54.

A carbon resistor of 1.5KΩ ±10% is to be marked with rings of different colours for its identification. The colour code sequence will be

a)

Brown – Green – Orange – Silver

b)

Brown – Green – Brown – Silver

c)

Brown – Green– Red – Sliver

d)

Brown – Green– Orange – Gold

55.

A copper wire has a diameter of 0.5 mm and resistivity of 1.68 X 10-3 Ωm. What will be the length of this wire to make its resistance of 2Ω.

a)

23.3m

b)

20.3m

c)

25.3m

d)

30.3m

56.

Specific resistance of a conductor increases with

a)

Increase in temperature

b)

Increase in cross-section area

c)

Increase in cross-section and decrease in length

d)

Decrease in cross-section area

57.

The solids which have the negative temperature coefficient of resistance are

a)

metals

b)

insulators only

c)

semiconductors only

d)

insulators and semiconductors

58.

Which of the following acts as a circuit protection device?

a)

fuse

b)

conductor

c)

inductor

d)

switch

59.

Fuse wire is a wire of

a)

High resistance and high melting point

b)

High resistance and low melting point

c)

Low resistance and low melting point

d)

Low resistance and high melting point

60.

In India electricity is supplied for domestic use at 220 V. It is supplied at 110 V in USA. If the resistance of a 60 W bulb for use in India is R, the resistance of a 60 W bulb for use in USA will be

a)

R

b)

2R

c)

R/4

d)

R/2