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Worksheets

SM2 Final Review

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which type of joint contains a joint capsule, a synovial membrane, and hyaline cartilage?

a)

Synarthrodial

b)

Diarthrodial

c)

Amphiarthrodial

d)

Fibrous

2.

Which connective tissue connects bone to bone?

a)

tendons

b)

muscles

c)

ligaments

d)

skin

3.

The radius and humerus are in the __________ skeleton, while the sternum and the skull are in the ______ skeleton.

a)

axial; appendicular

b)

appendaxial; apaxial

c)

appendicular; axial

d)

sagittal; frontal

4.

The elbow is ______ to the wrist.

a)

proximal

b)

distal

c)

Medial

d)

lateral

5.

Which joint is capable of circumduction

a)

thumb

b)

ankle

c)

shoulder

d)

knee

6.

What is the highlighted area?

a)

Tarsals

b)

Metatarsals

c)

calcaneus

d)

tibia

7.

What is the highlighted area?

a)

Humerus

b)

Femur

c)

Ulna

d)

Radius

8.

What is the highlighted area?

a)

Latissimus dorsi

b)

Trapezius

c)

Deltoids

d)

Pectorals

9.

What is the highlighted area?

a)

Quadriceps

b)

Hamstrings

c)

Biceps

d)

Gastrocnemius

10.

What is the highlighted area?

a)

Soleus

b)

Quadriceps

c)

Gluteus Maximus

d)

Gastrocnemius

11.

Which plane is the picture depicting?

a)

Frontal

b)

Sagital

c)

Transverse

d)

Obliques

12.

Which plane is depicted?

a)

Frontal

b)

Sagital

c)

Transverse

d)

Oblique

13.

What movement is the picture showing?

a)

Hip Flexion

b)

Hip Extension

c)

Hip Adduction

d)

Hip Abduction

14.

Memory loss, either before or after an injury occurs, is called

a)

tinitus

b)

battle sign

c)

amnesia

d)

diplopia

15.

Persistent concussion symptoms that linger after a concussion has been received are often called

a)

a concussion

b)

an intracranial hematoma

c)

second impact syndrome

d)

postconcussion syndrome

16.

The brain is protected by which of the following structures?

a)

skull

b)

cerebrospinal fluid

c)

scalp

d)

all of the above

17.

A blow to the left side of the head will impair movement and function

a)

on the left side of the body

b)

on the right side of the body

c)

on the posterior aspect of the body

d)

on the anterior aspect of the body

18.

Bleeding into the tissue surrounding the eye is known as

a)

orbital fracture

b)

orbital hematoma

c)

corneal abrasion

19.

A collection of blood within the anterior chamber of the eye is known as

a)

corneal abrasion

b)

retina detachment

c)

hyphema

20.

Which infection is known as swimmer's ear

a)

otitis externa

b)

otitis media

21.

Which fracture occurs due to a blow to the lower jaw

a)

zygomatic

b)

maxillary

c)

mandible

d)

nasal

22.

pain while chewing, nosebleed, and double vision are signs and symptoms of which fracture

a)

maxilla

b)

zygomatic

c)

mandible

d)

nasal

23.

The projecting portion of the external ear is called the

a)

auditory canal

b)

pinna

c)

tympanic membrane

d)

hammer

24.

The correct treatment of epistaxis includes

a)

instructing the athlete to lean forward

b)

instructing the athlete to lean his head backward

c)

instructing the athlete to pinch his nose

d)

Pinching the nose and instructing the athlete to lean forward

25.

Cauliflower ear is formally known as

a)

otitis externa

b)

hematoma auris

c)

subconjunctival hemorrhage

d)

epistaxis

26.

name this injury

a)

foreign body

b)

lid laceration

c)

hematoma iris

d)

hyphema

27.
a)

subconjunctival hemorrhage

b)

hyphema

c)

conjunctivitis

d)

hematoma iris

28.

name this injury

a)

subconjunctivitis

b)

subconjuctival hemorrhage

c)

hyphema

d)

blowout hemorrhage

29.

A shoulder separation refers to which of the following injuries?

a)

acromioclavicular sprain

b)

glenohumeral ligament sprain

c)

rotator cuff strain

d)

impingement syndrome

30.

Impingement syndrome is often caused by

a)

falling on an outstretched arm

b)

repetitive overhead activity

c)

fractures

d)

lateral neck movements

31.

Which of the following is not a rotator cuff muscle?

a)

supraspinatus

b)

infraspinatus

c)

teres major

d)

subscapularis

e)

teres minor

32.

Name this injury

a)

clavicular fracture

b)

SC joint sprain

c)

AC joint sprain

d)

Avulsion Fracture

33.

Name this injury

a)

Biceps tendon rupture

b)

Biccipital Tendinitis

c)

Biceps strain

d)

Impingement Syndrome

34.

What is the name of this joint?

a)

Glenoid fossa joint

b)

Glenohumeral joint

c)

Glenoclavicular joint

d)

Coracohumeral joint

35.

The hip is such a stable joint because

a)

the acetabulum is very deep

b)

the hip socket is covered by thick ligaments

c)

many strong muscles cover the hip joint

d)

all of the above listed

36.

A hip pointer is a

a)

contusion to the posterior iliac spine

b)

strain to the iliac crest

c)

contusion to the iliac crest

d)

strain to the posterior iliac spine

37.

What injury is shown in the picture provided?

a)

thigh contusion

b)

hip pointer

c)

myositis ossificans

d)

osgood schlatter disease

38.

an injury that often results in an externally rotated leg and characterized by severe pain, loss of function, and possible internal bleeding

a)

femur fracture

b)

stress fracture

c)

avulsion fracture

d)

epiphyseal fracture

39.

Tennis elbow is a term typically given to chronic inflammation located

a)

over the lateral epicondyle

b)

over the medial epicondyle

c)

over the olecranon process

d)

at the olecranon bursa

40.

When the elbow is dislocated, the ulna most commonly moves _______ on the ______ bone.

a)

posteriorly; radius

b)

anteriorly; radius

c)

anteriorly; humerus

d)

posteriorly; humerus

41.

An injury that results in a separation of the epiphysis at the medial aspect of the humerus in younger athletes is called

a)

tennis elbow

b)

golfer's elbow

c)

Little League elbow

d)

Major League elbow

42.

Identify G.

a)

Humerus

b)

medial Epicondyle

c)

olecranon process

d)

radius

43.

What bone does letter E represent?

a)

Capitate

b)

Hamate

c)

Trapezium

d)

Scaphoid

44.

What section of the hand does letter I represent?

a)

Carpals

b)

Metacarpals

c)

Phalanges

d)

Wrist

45.

What is the most dislocatable carpal bone?

a)

Capitate

b)

Hamate

c)

Lunate

d)

Scaphoid

46.

What is the most commonly fractured carpal bone?

a)

Triquetrum

b)

Trapezium

c)

Capitate

d)

Scaphoid

47.
Which ligament stabilizes the knee against a varus force?
a)
ACL
b)
MCL
c)
PCL
d)
LCL
48.
What structures provides cushion between the femur and tibia?
a)
ligaments
b)
tendons
c)
mensicus
d)
tuberosities
49.
This ligament is located internally and crosses in the front
a)
MCL
b)
ACL
c)
PCL
d)
LCL
50.

What is the name of the bone?

a)

Calcaneus

b)

Navicular

c)

Talus

d)

Cuboid

51.

What is the name of the bone?

a)

Tarsals

b)

Metatarsals

c)

Phalanges

d)

Navicular

52.

What is the name of the bone?

a)

Tarsals

b)

Cunieforms

c)

Cuboid

d)

Calcaneus

53.

The Achilles tendon attaches to which of the following bones?

a)

talus

b)

calcaneus

c)

metatarsals

d)

tarsals

54.

Injury where muscles on the front of the tibia swell due to overuse and cause pressure to connective tissue

a)

anterior compartment syndrome

b)

medial tibial stress syndrome

c)

halux valgus

d)

hammer toe

55.
What is another name for shinsplints?
a)
medial tibial stress syndrome
b)
medial fibular stress syndrome
c)
compartment syndrome
d)
lateral tibial stress syndrome
56.
What ankle motion is this?
a)
Inversion
b)
Eversion
c)
Plantar Flexion
d)
Dorsal Flexion
57.
Sprain of the 1st or great toe
a)
Toe Fracture
b)
Lisfranc Injury
c)
Turf Toe
d)
Toe Dislocation
58.
How many bones are in your foot?
a)

28

b)

21

c)

18

d)

12

59.
The top ankle joint is made up of these 3 bones.
a)
Tibia, Talus, Calcaneus
b)
Fibula, Talus, Calcaneus
c)
Tibia, Fibula, Talus
d)
Talus, Fibula, Femur
60.

Abduction of the Shoulder primarily occurs in which plane of motion?

a)

Transvers

b)

Frontal

c)

Sagital

d)

Frontal and Sagital