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Biology 1 Final Review

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Put the following stages of mitosis in order: anaphase, prophase, metaphase, and telophase. 
a)
prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase
b)
prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
c)
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
d)
prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase
2.

The structure labeled B is called the

a)

Centromeres

b)

Centrioles

c)

Sister Chromatids

d)

Chromosomes

3.

The structure labeled A is called the

a)

Centromere

b)

Centriole

c)

Sister Chromatids

d)

Spindle

4.

The letters A, B, and C when put together are known as what phase?

a)

Mitosis (M phase)

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Interphase

5.

A DNA segment is changed from AAT-TAG to AAA-TAG. This is a

a)

Frame shift mutation

b)

Insertion

c)

Substitution

d)

Deletion

6.

Consider the following sentence: "The dog did not eat

Which of the following variations of this sentence is most like a base

a)

The did dog not eat

b)

The dog dog did not eat

c)

The dog did not

d)

The doe did not eat

7.

A cross between a black chicken (BB) and a white chicken (WW) produces all black and white speckled offspring (BW). This type of inheritance is known as…

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Polygenic inheritance

c)

Codominance

d)

Multiple alleles

8.

Hemophilia is a sex-linked genetic disease is expressed by a recessive allele carried on the X chromosome. What is the best explanation on why this disease is more likely to be found in males than females?

a)

Males only inherit this disease if their Dad has it

b)

Males only have to inherit one X to have the disease

c)

Females cannot inherit this disease

d)

It is turned on by the hormones of male glands

9.

A man and a woman have a daughter named Jennifer. Jennifer’s mother is color blind, the father is not. Years later, Jennifer is stopped by the police for driving through a red light. As the police officer is giving her a ticket, she states that she is not at fault because she is color blind.

Which of the following student explanations below best explains the truth?

a)

Jennifer is colorblind; she inherited it from her mom.

b)

Jennifer is colorblind; the genotype she expresses is XhXh.

c)

Jennifer cannot be colorblind because she did not inherit any recessive alleles.

d)

Jennifer cannot be colorblind because her father is not colorblind.

10.

How many chromosomes are shown in a normal karyotype?

a)

47

b)

23

c)

44

d)

46

11.

Variation in human skin color is an example of:

a)

Polygenic traits

b)

Incomplete dominance

c)

Multiple alleles

d)

Codominance

12.

Which of the following are shown in a karyotype?

a)

Sex chromosomes

b)

Homologous chromosomes

c)

Autosomes

d)

All the above

13.

As a cell grows larger, in order to move materials across the cell membrane, and place fewer demands on its DNA, the cell may respond by…

a)

Undergoing Meiosis

b)

Undergoing mitosis

c)

Making Gamete

d)

Making zygotes

14.

 A biochemist measured the amount of DNA in cells growing in the laboratory

and found that the quantity of DNA doubled. 

Which of the following statements best agrees with this?

a)

It happened between prophase and anaphase of mitosis

b)

It was between G1 and G2 phases of the cell cycle

c)

It happened between the M phase of the cell cycle

15.

Which of the following is a function of mitosis in humans?

a)

Repair of wounds

b)

Growth of body cells

c)

Replace lost or damaged cells

d)

All of the above

16.

Mitosis is the process by which…

a)

Cytoplasm is divided

b)

Nucleus is divided

c)

The cell enters a resting phase

17.

During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up along the middle of the dividing cell?

a)

Prophase

b)

Telophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

18.

What is the role of the spindle during mitosis?

a)

It helps separate the chromosomes

b)

It breaks down the nuclear membrane

c)

It duplicates the DNA

d)

It makes the chromosomes visible

19.

During mitotic cell division, a parent cell having 4 chromosomes will produce two daughter cells, each containing…

a)

2 chromosomes

b)

8 chromosomes

c)

4 chromosomes

d)

16 chromosomes

20.

Looking into your microscope, you spot an unusual cell. Instead of the typical rounded shape, the cell has a very narrow middle separating two bulging ends. It sort of looks like the number 8. Then you realize, this is a cell...

a)

That is about to undergo mitosis

b)

In the S phase of interphase

c)

Undergoing cytokinesis

d)

In the G1 phase of interphase

21.

 A cell with 24 chromosomes undergoes mitosis twice. How many chromosomes will each daughter cell have?

 

a)

6

b)

12

c)

24

d)

48

22.

If a body cell has a diploid number of 24, the gamete would have a haploid number of:

a)

48

b)

12

c)

36

d)

None of these

23.

 A cell with a diploid number of 12 chromosomes undergoes meiosis. What will be produced at the end of meiosis?

a)

2 cells, each with 12 chromosomes

b)

4 cells, each with 6 chromosomes

c)

2 cells, each with 6 chromosomes

d)

4 cells, each with 12 chromosomes

24.

List the fish from the least to most closely related to the pupfish.

a)

Fish 1, Fish 2, Fish 3, Fish 4

b)

Fish 4, Fish 3, Fish 1, Fish 2

c)

Fish 3, Fish 4, Fish 1, Fish 2

d)

Fish 2, Fish 1, Fish 4, Fish 3

25.

 What would be the expected % of Cytosine content of the cell?

a)

13 %

b)

14%

c)

22%

d)

56%

26.

During DNA replication, a complementary strand of DNA is made for each original strand. Thus, if a portion of the original DNA strand is TAC  GAT , then what is the complementary strand of DNA?

a)

UAG   CAU 

b)

TAG    CAT  

c)

AUG   CUA  

d)

ATG    CTA

27.

Which of the following is the best explanation for why the chromosome number is an even number?

a)

It is only a coincidence; many other organisms have an odd number of chromosomes

b)

The diploid chromosome number is always even so that when mitosis occurs each new cell gets the same number of chromosomes

c)

The diploid number represents pairs of chromosomes, one from each parent, so it is always an even number

d)

Chromosomes double every time the cell divides, so after the first division, the number is always even

28.

A student was asked to identify the process shown below, and then match it with the correct function. 

Which one of the following best represents the correct answer?

a)

Crossing-over; to increase genetic variation

b)

Crossing-over; to decrease genetic variation

c)

Independent assortment; to separate the alleles

d)

Anaphase I of Meiosis; to increase genetic variation

29.

Assume that brown eyes (B) are dominant over tan eyes (b) in guinea pigs. When a brown-eyed male is mated with a tan-eyed female, 50% of the litter has brown eyes and 50% of the litter has tan eyes. What is the genotype of the female guinea pig?

a)

BB

b)

Bb

c)

bB

d)

bb

30.

The failure of chromosomes to separate during meiosis is called

a)

Non-disjunction

b)

x-chromosome inactivation

c)

Turner's syndrome

d)

Downs Syndrome

31.
Identify the mutation in the picture.
a)
Deletion
b)
Inversion
c)
Duplication
d)
Translocation
32.

Changes in the DNA sequence that affect genetic information are known as

a)

Replications

b)

Mutations

c)

Transformations

d)

Translations

33.

In rabbits, brown (B) fur is dominant to white (b) fur. If a rabbit with the genotype Bb is crossed with a rabbit with a genotype of bb, what percentage of offspring are expected to have brown fur?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

34.

The allele for unattached earlobes (E) is dominant to the allele for attached earlobes (e). A woman with the genotype (Ee) and a man with the genotype (ee) have a child. What is the genotype of the first child that exhibits unattached earlobes AND the probability that their second child will have them also?

a)

Ee;  100%

b)

EE;  50%

c)

Ee;  50%

d)

ee;  50%

35.

Line A is a true-breeding line of white-flowered snapdragons. Line B is a true-breeding line of red-flowered snapdragons. A plant from Line A is crossed with a plant from Line B. The resulting F1 offspring are all pink-flowered snapdragons. The F1 offspring fertilize each other. The F2 generation have red, white and pink snapdragon flowers.

What type of interaction between alleles is this?

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Complete dominance

c)

Codominance

d)

Sex-linked

36.

Line A is a true-breeding line of white-flowered snapdragons. Line B is a true-breeding line of red-flowered snapdragons. A plant from Line A is crossed with a plant from Line B. The resulting F1 offspring are all pink-flowered snapdragons. The F1 offspring fertilize each other. The F2 generation have red, white and pink snapdragon flowers.

What proportion of the F2 would you expect to be white-flowered?

a)

9/16

b)

1/4

c)

100%

d)

0%

37.

In human blood types, the alleles for Type A and Type B are codominant over the allele for Type O blood. 

If a female with Type O blood and a male with Type AB blood have children, which of the statements is true?

a)

100% of the offspring will have Type O blood

b)

100% of the offspring will have Type AB blood

c)

50% of the offspring will have Type A blood and 50% will have Type B blood

d)

50% of offspring will have Type AB, 25% will have Type B, and 25% will have Type A blood

38.

What kind of genetic inheritance is the spotted nose?

a)

Polygenic

b)

Sex-linked

c)

Dominant/

recessive

d)

Multiple alleles

39.

What are the genotypes of the individuals (dogs) Lady and Spike?

a)

Heterozygous

b)

Homozygous

c)

Dihybrid

d)

Codominant

40.

A pedigree can be used to…

a)

Determine whether a trait is inherited

b)

Show how a trait is passed from one generation to the next

c)

Determine whether an allele is dominant or recessive

d)

All of the above

41.

 In the Punnett square shown here, which of the following is true about the offspring resulting from the cross?

a)

About half are expected to be short

b)

All are expected to be short

c)

About half are expected to be tall

d)

All are expected to be tall

42.

Which of the following are found in both DNA and RNA?

a)

Ribose, phosphate groups, and adenine

b)

Phosphate groups, guanine, and cytosine

c)

Deoxyribose, phosphate groups, and guanine

d)

Phosphate groups, guanine, and thymine

43.

The diagram shows a strand of DNA matched to a strand of messenger RNA.

What process does this diagram represent?

a)

Mutation

b)

Respiration

c)

Transcription

d)

Translation

44.

Tell the amino acid sequence for the following mRNA message:

MRNA MESSAGE:  A U G    C C A    U G G   

a)

Isoleucine- Glutamine- Leucine

b)

Methionine- Proline- Tryptophan

c)

Lysine- Glutamine- Cysteine

d)

Methionine- Glutamine- Tryptophan

45.

The nucleotide sequence of a DNA codon is ACC. A messenger RNA molecule with a complementary codon is transcribed from the DNA. In the process of protein synthesis, a transfer RNA pairs with the mRNA codon. What is the mRNA sequence AND the corresponding tRNA sequence?

a)

UGG ; ACC

b)

UUU;  UGG

c)

UGG;  UCC

46.

What type(s) of RNA are involved with protein synthesis?

a)

Transfer RNA only

b)

Messenger RNA only

c)

Ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA only

d)

Messenger RNA,  ribosomal RNA, and Transfer RNA

47.

During transcription, an RNA molecule is formed:

a)

That is complementary to both strands of DNA

b)

That is identical to part of a single strand of DNA

c)

That is complementary to one strand of DNA

Inside the nucleus

48.

Other than the predator-prey relationship that has affected the populations of moose and wolves on Isle Royale, what is another limiting factor that would affect the moose population?

a)

Food availability 

b)

Habitat destruction by clear-cutting the forest

c)

Flooding to the area

d)

All of the above

49.

The movement of organisms into an area is called _______________________, while organisms that move out of an area is called _________________________.

a)

Immigration; Extradition

b)

Emmigration; Immigration

c)

Immigration; Emmigration

d)

Extradition; Immigration

50.

A drought has caused the producer populations to significantly decrease. Which statement best describes an immediate effect caused by the decrease of producers?

a)

The grouse population would increase

b)

The grasshopper population would decrease

c)

The seed populations would increase

d)

The grizzly bear populations would decrease

51.

What is the process by which bacteria convert nitrogen gas in the air into ammonia?

a)

Nitrogen fixation

b)

Excretion

c)

Decomposition

d)

Denitrification

52.

A species of snapping turtles has a tongue that resembles a worm. The tongue is used to attract small fish. Which best describes the interaction between the fish and the snapping turtle?

a)

Predation

b)

Symbiosis

c)

Parasitism

d)

Competition

53.

If the owl is removed from the food web, what will most likely be the result and why?

a)

The hawk population will increase because there will be less competition within their niche in this environment.

b)

The sparrow and rabbit populations will increase sharply because they will have predators in this environment.

c)

The raspberry bush population will increase because there will be less rabbits due to the increased predation by the fox and the hawk.

d)

The mountain lions will leave the area because there will be less prey available in the ecosystem.

54.

In the food web below, which of the organisms, X, Y, or Z, is strictly an herbivore?

a)

Z

b)

Y

c)

Both X and Y

d)

X

55.

Organisms that obtain nutrients by breaking down dead and decaying plants and animals are called:

a)

Decomposers

b)

Omnivores

c)

Autotrophs

d)

Producers

56.

An organism that cannot make its own food is called a (an)

a)

Heterotroph

b)

Autotroph

c)

Chemotroph

d)

Producer

57.

Darwin noticed that many organisms seemed well suited to:

a)

Being preserved for fossils

b)

Providing humans food

c)

Surviving the environment they inhabited

d)

Swimming from South America to the Galapagos Islands

58.

Charles Darwin’s observation that finches of different species on the Galapagos Islands have many similar physical characteristics supports the hypothesis that these finches:

a)

Have the ability to interbreed

b)

Acquired traits through use and disuse

c)

All eat the same type of food

d)

Descend from a common ancestor

59.

When lions prey on a herd of antelopes, some antelopes are killed and some escape. Which part of Darwin’s concept of natural selection might be used to describe this situation?

a)

Acquired characteristics

b)

Reproductive isolation

c)

Survival of the fittest

d)

Descent with modification

60.

In order for a species to survive, it must be able to ______________________________.

a)

Consume a variety of food

b)

Reproduce successfully

c)

Maintain a constant body temperature

d)

Destroy competing species

61.

In the picture to the right, the giraffe species is shown in their natural habitat. Which of the giraffes would be most likely to survive and reproduce?

a)

A and B; because they are related

b)

A and C; because they can both reach the tree to eat

c)

A, B, and C; they all have an equal chance

d)

None of the above

62.

Differences among individuals in a species, such as the giraffes, are referred to as:

a)

Natural variation

b)

Fitness

c)

Natural selection

d)

Adaptation

63.

In a mouse population inhabiting a grassland area, a mutation occurs that results in a new coat color allele. Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on whether the new coat color will become more common in the mouse population?

a)

Whether abundant food is available in the grassland

b)

Whether the new coat color allele is dominant or recessive

c)

Whether the rate of reproduction in the mouse population is stable

d)

Whether the new coat color allele increases the survival of mice in their environment

64.

In North America, the eastern spotted skunk mates in the late winter, and western spotted skunk mates in the late summer. Even though their geographic ranges overlap, the species do not mate with each other. What most likely prevents these two species from interbreeding?

a)

Habitat isolation

b)

Gametic isolation

c)

Geographic isolation

d)

Reproductive isolation

65.

The geographic isolation of two populations of a species tends to increase differences between their gene pools because it __________________________________ and can lead to _________________.

a)

Prevents interbreeding between populations; speciation

b)

Prevents interbreeding within each population; overproduction

c)

Causes temporal isolation of the two populations; extinction

d)

Increases differences of courtship behavior; competition

66.

The northern elephant seal (Mirounga angustirostris) was once hunted to near extinction. Only 20 animals remained alive in 1890. After the species was protected from hunting, its population grew to nearly 30,000 animals, but the large population now possesses a very low genetic variation. Which of the following processes is the best interpretation of this scenario?

a)

Evolution by natural selection

b)

Evolution by artificial selection

c)

Evolution by founder effect

d)

evolution by bottleneck effect

67.

A student wrote several observations in a field notebook. Which term best classifies all of the student’s observations?

a)

Population

b)

Food Chain

c)

Ecosystem

d)

Community

68.

In humans, a male has ____ and _____ chromosomes. He inherits one of them from his mother because female egg cells only produce _____ chromosomes

a)

X  &  Y;   X

b)

X  &  X;   X

c)

X  &  Y;   Y

d)

X  &  X;   Y

69.

Which series is arranged in order from largest to smallest in size?

a)

Chromosome, nucleus, cell, DNA, nucleotide

b)

Cell, nucleus, chromosome, DNA, nucleotide

c)

Nucleotide, chromosome, cell, DNA, nucleus

d)

Cell, nucleotide, nucleus, DNA, chromosome

70.

The curled ears of the American Curl cat are caused by an autosomal dominant allele. What are the chances of a heterozygous female and a homozygous recessive male producing an offspring with curled ears?

a)

1 in 4 chance

b)

2 in 4 chance

c)

3 in 4 chance

d)

4 in 4 chance