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WorksheetsIS MODULE 12, 13, 14
Total questions: 101
Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins
AKA lateral flow assays
Particle Agglutination
ICT
Neutralization Assays
Western Blot
In lateral flow assays, presence of bands on Control and Test lines is interpreted as?
Nonreactive
Reactive
Invalid
Neither of the above
In lateral flow assays, presence of bands on Control line only is interpreted as?
Nonreactive
Reactive
Invalid
Neither of the above
In lateral flow assays, no control band formation but presence of band on test line is interpreted as?
Nonreactive
Reactive
Invalid
Neither of the above
All are advantages of ICT except?
Most can be stored in room temperature
No special materials/instruments needed
HBV 1 and 2 can be differentiated
Good choice in field testing
All are disadvantages of ICT except?
Not recommended for donor screening
Not suitable for large numbers of sera
QC monitoring impossible
Not specific but is less expensive
For HIV ICT, if the result is nonreactive, what is the next thing that the medical technologist should do?
Repeat the test.
Repeat in duplicate.
Refer to NRL-SLH/SACCL for confirmatory testing.
Report
For HIV ICT, if the result is reactive, what is the next thing that the medical technologist should do?
Repeat the test.
Repeat in duplicate. Report and recommend for confirmatory
testing.
Repeat in duplicate. Refer to NRL-SLH/SACCL for confirmatory testing.
Report
For HBV ICT, if the result is reactive, what is the next thing that the medical technologist should do?
Repeat the test.
Repeat in duplicate. Report and recommend for confirmatory
testing.
Repeat in duplicate. Refer to NRL-SLH/SACCL for confirmatory testing.
Report
This is based on the principle that sensitized particles are agglutinated by the presence of antibodies in human serum or plasma.
Particle Agglutination
ICT
Neutralization Assays
Western Blot
This test method can be used as a screening test or a confirmatory test depending on the target analyte.
Particle Agglutination
ICT
Neutralization Assays
Western Blot
Particle agglutination test can be used as a confirmatory test for:
HIV
HBV
HCV
Syphilis
Advantages of particle agglutination includes all of the following except?
Highly specific
Simple, easy to perform
No machine needed
No washing procedure
Economical and macroscopic in nature
Disadvantages of particle agglutination includes all of the following except?
QC monitoring impossible
Prone to biological False Positives
Test is subjective
Weak agglutination
Affected by Postzone reaction
For HIV particle agglutination test, reactive result:
Repeat test in duplicate. If still INCONCLUSIVE, refer to NRL-SLH/SACCL for confirmatory testing
Perform Absorption test.
Repeat in duplicate. If still reactive, refer to NRL-SLH/SACCL for confirmatory testing
Report.
For HBV particle agglutination test, reactive result:
Repeat test in duplicate. If still INCONCLUSIVE, refer to NRL-SLH/SACCL for confirmatory testing
Perform Absorption test.
Repeat in duplicate. If still reactive, refer to NRL-SLH/SACCL for confirmatory testing
Report.
For HBV particle agglutination test, nonreactive result:
Repeat test in duplicate. If still INCONCLUSIVE, refer to NRL-SLH/SACCL for confirmatory testing
Perform Absorption test.
Repeat in duplicate. If still reactive, refer to NRL-SLH/SACCL for confirmatory testing
Report.
On this method, the enzyme converts a substrate to a reaction product that fluoresces when excited by light of a particular wavelength.
Chemiluminescent EIA
Indirect ELISA
Sandwich ELISA
Competitive ELISA
Enzyme-Linked Fluorescent Assays (ELFA)
This method combines the principle of Sandwich ELISA (1st well) and Competitive ELISA
Particle Agglutination
ICT
Neutralization Assays
Western Blot
In neutralization assay, decrease in absorbance/OD observed on the 2nd well compared to the 1st well with same sample is reported as:
Negative
Positive
Invalid
Inconclusive
It is a blood test that detects antibodies to the hepatitis C virus (HCV).
Particle Agglutination
Western Blot
Neutralization Assays
RIBA
What is the causative agent of Lyme disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi
Epstein Barr Virus
Treponema pallidum
Ricketsial specie
It is a multisystem illness involving the skin, the nervous system, the heart, and the joints.
Lyme Disease
Kissing Disease
Infectious mononucleosis
Scarlet fever
What specie of Borrelia is found in North America?
B. afzelii
B. garinii
B. sensu stricto
B. burgdorferi sensu stricto
Which of the following is not a characteristic of B. burgdorferi?
Loosely coiled spirochete
5 to 25 mm long and 0.2 to 0.5 mm in diameter
Has lipoprotein antigens, labeled OSP-A to OSP-F
5-7 endoflagella or periplasmic flagella.
What is main reservoir of B. burgdorferi?
Man
Chimpanzee
white-footed mouse
Ixodes species
What is the vector of Lyme disease?
Man
Chimpanzee
white-footed mouse
Ixodes species
This is considered the hallmark of early infection with B. burgdorferi.
Erythrema Migrans
Neurological involvement
Cardiac involvement
Facial palsy
This test is recommended as the primary test for the evaluation of antibody response in Lyme disease.
Western Blot
Enzyme Immunoassay
Immunofluorescence Assay
PCR
It is used as a supplemental test for Lyme disease.
Western Blot
Enzyme Immunoassay
Immunofluorescence Assay
PCR
Stage 2 of Lyme Disease infection:
Skin, nervous system, heart, or joints may be affected
Peripheral neuropathy and encephalomyelitis.
Patient may be asymptomatic or have nonspecific flulike symptoms such as malaise, headache, fever, arthralgias, and fatigue.
Presence of small red papule where the bite occurred, which rapidly expands to form a large ring-like erythema and often a central area that exhibits partial clearing.
Stage 3 (late stage) of Lyme Disease infection:
Skin, nervous system, heart, or joints may be affected
Peripheral neuropathy and encephalomyelitis.
Patient may be asymptomatic or have nonspecific flulike symptoms such as malaise, headache, fever, arthralgias, and fatigue.
Presence of small red papule where the bite occurred, which rapidly expands to form a large ring-like erythema and often a central area that exhibits partial clearing.
Treatment for Borreliasis on a child over age years of age.
Amoxicillin
Cefuroxime axetil
Doxycyclin
Ceftriaxone
All of the following drugs can be used as IV therapy in patients with Lyme Infection except?
Ceftriaxone
Cefotaxime
Penicillin G
Amoxicillin
The Epstein Barr Virus infects what specific immune cells?
CD4 T cells
CD8 T cells
B cells
Neutrophils
Which of the following is considered as the antigen that is detected during early infection with Epstein Barr Virus?
VCA
EA-D
EBNA
MA
Which of the following is considered as antigen that appears during latent phase of infection with Epstein Barr Virus?
VCA
EA-D
EBNA
MA
Which of the following is considered as antigen that appears during late phase of infection with Epstein Barr Virus?
VCA
EA-D
EBNA
MA
Which of the following is not a clinical manifestation of S. pyogenes infection?
impetigo
pharyngitis
scarlet fever
carbuncles
Which of the following is a sequelae of S. pyogenes infection?
impetigo
pharyngitis
scarlet fever
Acute rheumatic Fever
This method of S. pyogenes detection is based on the principle of neutralization testing wherein result is based on the titer.
Anti-DNAse B
ASO Titration Test
ASO (Anti-streptolysin O) test
Anti-streptococcal Hyaluronidase test
This method of S. pyogenes detection is enzyme-inhibition variation of mucin clot test wherein patient serum containing the antibody will inhibit hyaluronidase from hydrolyzing the substrate.
Anti-DNAse B
ASO Titration Test
ASO (Anti-streptolysin O) test
Anti-streptococcal Hyaluronidase test
This method of S. pyogenes detection is based on the principle of neutralization testing wherein it detects antibodies capable of preventing DNAse(streptodornase) from depolymerizing.
Anti-DNAse B
ASO Titration Test
ASO (Anti-streptolysin O) test
Anti-streptococcal Hyaluronidase test
What is the normal value of anti-streptococcal hyaluronidase test?
<256
<200 Todd Units
>256
>200 Todd Units
What is the normal value of ASO Titration test?
<256
<200 Todd Units
>256
>200 Todd Units
This test detects antibodies to Salmonella.
Widal Test
Weil-felix test
Optimal Assay
Malquick Standby test
This test detects detects Plasmodium falciparum’s Histidine Rich Protein (HRP-2).
Widal Test
Weil-felix test
Optimal Assay
Malaquick Standby test
This test is the the gold standard for the diagnosis of malaria.
Thick and thin smear
Weil-felix test
Optimal Assay
Malaquick Standby test
This test is capable of detecting live malarial parasite and can distinguish species of malaria.
Thick and thin smear
Weil-felix test
Optimal Assay
Malaquick Standby test
What is the causative agent of Primary atypical Pneumonia?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Legionnaires pneumoniae
Chlamydia pneumoniae
It the agent of spotted fever and typhus.
Rickettsia
Mycoplasma
Chlamydia
Streptococci
A 27-nm RNA virus, incubation period is 2-6 weeks and the mode of transmission is via fecal-oral route
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D
A 42-nm DNA virus, incubation period is 4 weeks-6 months and the mode of transmission is via Parenteral inoculation, or equivalent and direct contact
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D
A 32-nm pesti-virus–like RNA virus and mode of transmission is similar with HBV
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D
A 27-34 nm non- enveloped RNA virus with a similar ,ode of transmission to HAV and its incubation period is 2-9 weeks
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis E
A 36-nm, incomplete RNA virus with HBsAg coats that requires HBV presence for survival
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis E
Hepatitis B antibodies are detectable serologically at about ____ after infection
30-60 days
20-50 days
15-30 days
45-70 days
How many percent of HBV neonatal infection are attributed to acute Hepatitis B?
90%-95%
80%-85%
70%-85%
95%-100%
Chronic HBV infection usually leads to all of the following except?
Fulminant hepatic failure
Cirrhosis
Hepatocellular Carcinoma
Death
Acute HBV infection usually leads to?
Fulminant hepatic failure
Cirrhosis
Hepatocellular Carcinoma
Death
Which of the following is not a characteristic of acute hepatitis infection ?
Abdominal pain
Nausea and vomiting
Extreme fatigue
Dark urine
Scarring of the liver
Hepatitis B marker that is indicative of current infection.
HBsAg
HBeAg
HBcAg
Anti-HBs
Hepatitis B marker of infectivity.
HBsAg
HBeAg
HBcAg
Anti-HBs
Hepatitis B marker is not included in the Hepa B profile because it is found on the nuclei of hepatocytes.
HBsAg
HBeAg
HBcAg
Anti-HBs
Hepatitis B marker for immunity to further infection
HBsAg
HBeAg
HBcAg
Anti-HBs
This is increase in level among Hepa B carriers.
HBsAg
Anti-HBe
Anti-HBc
Anti-HBs
If this is present, it indicates a good prognostic sign and sign of recovery.
HBsAg
Anti-HBe
Anti-HBc
Anti-HBs
Positive HBsAg and HBeAg, Positive Anti-HBc IgM, increase ALT
Early acute infection
Acute infection
Core window period
Chronic active HBV infection
Chronic Inactive HBV carrier
Positive HBsAg and HBeAg, Two-fold increase in ALT
Early acute infection
Acute infection
Core window period
Chronic active HBV infection
Chronic Inactive HBV carrier
Positive HBsAg and HBeAg, Positive Anti-HBC IgG, increase in ALT
Early acute infection
Acute infection
Core window period
Chronic active HBV infection
Chronic Inactive HBV carrier
Positive HBsAg, Positive Anti-HBC IgG, normal in ALT
Early acute infection
Acute infection
Core window period
Chronic active HBV infection
Chronic Inactive HBV carrier
Positive Anti-HBc IgG, normal ALT, Positive anti-HBs
Convalescence
Immunization with Hepatitis B vaccine
Core window period
Past HBV infection with immunity
Chronic Inactive HBV carrier
normal ALT, Positive anti-HBs
Convalescence
Immunization with Hepatitis B vaccine
Core window period
Past HBV infection with immunity
Chronic Inactive HBV carrier
Positive Anti-HBc-IgM and Positive or negative Anti-HBe, normal ALT
Convalescence
Immunization with Hepatitis B vaccine
Core window period
Past HBV infection with immunity
Chronic Inactive HBV carrier
Screening test for HCV
Rapid Anti-HCV
HCV PCR
Liver biopsy
HCV viral load
Monitoring test for HCV
Rapid Anti-HCV
HCV PCR
Liver biopsy
HCV viral load
All are confirmatory tests for HCV except?
Genotyping
HCV PCR
Liver biopsy
HCV viral load
Aka serum hepatitis
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis E
Most common cause of post transfusion Hepatitis
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis E
Agent of yaw
T. pallidum subspecie pertenue
T. pallidum subspecie endemicum
T. pallidum subspecie carateum
T. pallidum subspecie pallidum
Agent of pinta
T. pallidum subspecie pertenue
T. pallidum subspecie endemicum
T. pallidum subspecie carateum
T. pallidum subspecie pallidum
Agent of nonvenereal endemic syphilis
T. pallidum subspecie pertenue
T. pallidum subspecie endemicum
T. pallidum subspecie carateum
T. pallidum subspecie pallidum
Who was known to have carried the syphilis infection to Europe?
Christopher Columbus
John Tyndall
Charles Darwin
Ferdinand Magellan
Pathogenesis of syphilis infection includes all of the following except?
Skin or mucus membrane penetration
Replication
Entry to lymphatic and circulatory
Widespread
dissemination
Exit from the host
Presence of gummatous
Primary Syphilis
Secondary Syphilis
Latent Syphilis
Tertiary Syphilis
Congenital Syphilis
Patient is asymptomatic, begins to 2 years of infection up to 4 years.
Primary Syphilis
Secondary Syphilis
Latent Syphilis
Tertiary Syphilis
Congenital Syphilis
Symptoms that appear on this stage includes generalized lymphadenopathy, or enlargement of the lymph nodes; malaise; fever; pharyngitis; and a rash on the skin and mucous membranes.
Primary Syphilis
Secondary Syphilis
Latent Syphilis
Tertiary Syphilis
Congenital Syphilis
Rashes appear on the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet.
Primary Syphilis
Secondary Syphilis
Latent Syphilis
Tertiary Syphilis
Congenital Syphilis
Characterized by chancre that develops between 10 and 90 days after infection, with about 21 days being the average.
Primary Syphilis
Secondary Syphilis
Latent Syphilis
Tertiary Syphilis
Congenital Syphilis
This may occur due to primary, secondary, and early latent periods of maternal infection.
Primary Syphilis
Secondary Syphilis
Latent Syphilis
Tertiary Syphilis
Congenital Syphilis
On this laboratory method, observation of motility is the key to identification of the syphilis.
FTA-ABS
Direct demonstration technique by Dark Field Microscopy
Direct Fluorescent-Antibody Staining for T. pallidum
Levaditi’s Silver Impregnation Method
The main disadvantage of non-treponemal test?
Time consuming
Expensive
Not easily adapted to automation
Prone to false positives
This method is the recommended for detection of syphilis on CSF.
RPR
VDRL
Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption Test
Treponema Pallidum Immobilization Test
What is the component of RPR that makes the reaction visible hence results are read macroscopically?
Charcoal
ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid
choline chloride
thimerosal
On this method, serum-antigen mixture is placed in a rotator for 8 minutes for 100 rpm
RPR
VDRL
Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption Test
Treponema Pallidum Immobilization Test
On this method, serum-antigen mixture is rotated for 4 minutes on a rotator at 180 rpm
RPR
VDRL
Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption Test
Treponema Pallidum Immobilization Test
What is the needle gauge used on qualitative VDRL testing?
18
19
23
25
Result of RPR is considered reactive if there is a presence of:
medium to large clumps
small clumps
no clumps or slight roughness compared to antigen control
None of the above
This method is commonly used as confirmatory method for syphilis infection detection.
RPR
VDRL
Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption Test
Treponema Pallidum Immobilization Test
Treponema Pallidum Immobilization Test has a positive result if there is a presence of:
>50% Immobilized
<20% Immobilized
20-50% immobilized
<50% Immobilized
This method uses glutaraldehyde-stabilized turkey RBCs during testing.
Hemagglutination Treponemal Test for Syphilis (HATTS)
TP-PA (Treponema pallidum Particle Agglutination)
Microhemagglutinin-Treponema pallidum (MHA-TP)
Treponema Pallidum Hemagglutination (TPHA)
