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Exam 1:

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following should NOT be recommended by a Pharmacist for the treatment of a Carbapenem-resistant Escherichia coli infection?

a)

Polymyxin

b)

Gentamicin

c)

Primaxin

d)

Fosfomycin

e)

Temocillin

2.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a Cephamycin?

a)

Cefotetan

b)

Cefepime

c)

Ceftaroline

d)

Cefazoline

e)

Cefuroxime

3.

Which of the following is a route of administration of Azactam? SATA

a)

Intrathecal

b)

Intramuscular

c)

Inunction

d)

Intravenous

e)

Inhalation

4.

Hyperreflexia and Arrhythmia are LEAST LIKELY to occur when Penicillin VK is administered concurrently with which of the following?

a)

Furosemide

b)

Lisinopril

c)

Invokana

d)

Yasmin

e)

Inspra

5.

Additive hypokalaemia is MOST LIKELY to result from the concurrent administration of Hydrochlorothiazide and which of the following?

a)

Penicillin VK

b)

Penicillin G

c)

Dicloxacillin

d)

Amoxicillin

e)

Piperacillin

6.

Which of the following inhibits the renal tubular secretion of Ampicillin?

a)

Oral contraceptives

b)

Erythromycin

c)

Gentamicin

d)

Probenecid

e)

Coumadin

7.

Which of the following statements about Nafcillin is TRUE? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

It is a vesicant

b)

It may decrease the International Normalized Ratio

c)

It increases the International Normalized Ratio

d)

It increases the metabolism of Coumadin

e)

It decreases the metabolism of Warfarin

8.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a 2nd-generation Cephalosporin?

a)

Cefazolin

b)

Cefadroxil

c)

Cefixime

d)

Cefuroxime

e)

Ceftobiprol

9.

Which of the following produces its anti-Tuberculosis effect by inhibiting Mycolic acid?

a)

Capreomycin

b)

Isoniazid

c)

Delamanid

d)

Bedaquiline

e)

Rifampin

10.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to produce an infective type of food poisoning?

a)

Clostridium botulinum

b)

Salmonella enteritidis

c)

Campylobacter jejuni

d)

Shingella flexneri

e)

Escherichia coli

11.

An individual who is severely allergic to Tazobactam should NOT be treated with which of the following?

a)

Zosyn

b)

Unasyn

c)

Recarbrio

d)

Zerbaxa

e)

Vabomere

12.

A patient who is severely allergic to Primaxin only should not be treated with which of the following?

a)

Avycaz

b)

Zerbaxa

c)

Zosyn

d)

Unasyn

e)

Recarbrio

13.

Which of the following Penicillins has the lowest plasma protein-binding capability?

a)

Pivmecillinam

b)

Benzathine Penicillin G

c)

Procaine Penicillin G

d)

Ampicillin

e)

Dicloxacillin

14.

14. Which of the following should the Pharmacist recommend for intramuscular administration? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Bicillin LA

b)

Penicillin G

c)

Amoxicillin

d)

Dicloxacillin

e)

Bicillin CR

15.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a Carboxypenicillin?

a)

Nafcillin

b)

Ticarcillin

c)

Penicillin VK

d)

Ampicillin

e)

Oxacillin

16.

Which of the following produces its anti-Tuberculosis effects by inhibiting the F-type-ATP synthase and the electron transport chain?

a)

Rifampin

b)

Cycloserine

c)

Pyrazinamide

d)

Ethambutol

e)

Bedaquiline

17.

For the treatment of uncomplicated, catheter-associated UTI, the usual dosage of Pivya is which of the following?

a)

100 mg PO QD x 7 days

b)

200 mg PO QD x 7 days

c)

200 mg PO BID x 5 days

d)

400 mg PO Q8hr x 7 days

e)

400 mg PO stat, then 400 mg PO Q8hr x 7 days

18.

Which of the following bacteria is MOST LIKELY to be extracted from a human bite wound?

a)

Bacteroides fragilis

b)

Eikenella corodens

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

e)

Streptococcus anginosus

19.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an adverse effect of Primaxin?

a)

Pseudomembranous colitis

b)

Suprainfection

c)

CHF and MI

d)

Jaundice; Elevated hepatic enzymes

e)

Decreased blood urea nitrogen

20.

The mechanism of action of Bacitracin involves the inhibition of which of the following?

a)

Lipid II

b)

Lipid III

c)

Dephosphorylation

d)

Transglycosylase

e)

Park nucleotide

21.

Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to produce its antibacterial effect by inhibiting the completion of the Park nucleotide?

a)

Penicillin G

b)

Bacitracin

c)

Cycloserine

d)

Cephalosporin

e)

Merrem

22.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be a prophylactic indication of Penicillin G?

a)

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

b)

Gonorrheal ophthalmia

c)

Endocarditis

d)

Syphilis

e)

Rheumatic fever

23.

The mechanisms of action of Fosfomycin involve which of the following?

a)

Enhanced phagocytic activity of Neutrophils

b)

Inhibition of the translation of RANTES

c)

Inactivation of Pyruval transferase

d)

Inhibition of Interleukin-2

e)

Immunomodulation of Interleukin-8

24.

When Fosfomycin calcium is employed clinically, the usual dosage is which of the following?

a)

3g granules mixed with 3-4 oz of cold water x 1 dose

b)

8 g IV Q12H

c)

4 g IV Q6H

d)

1-2 caps of the 500 mg-strength cap Q6H

e)

3 packets of the 3g-strength packet PO QD

25.

Which of the following is the usual dose of Doribax?

a)

100 mg IV Q8H

b)

250 mg IV QD

c)

500 mg IM Q6H

d)

1 g IM Q6H

e)

500 mg IV Q8H

26.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a)

Cefmetazole is effective against Proteus vulgaris but Cefazoline is not

b)

Cefuroxime is effective against Fusobacterium nucleatum but Cefotetan is not

c)

Upper respiratory tract infection caused by Moraxella catarrhalis can be effectively treated with Cefotetan not with Cephalexin

d)

Both Cefazoline and Cefoxitin are effective in treating infections caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae

e)

Cefoxitin is less effective than Cefadroxil in treating Staphylococcus aureus infections

27.

A Cephamicin is effective in treating the infections caused by all of the following genera EXCEPT:

a)

Peptostreptococcus

b)

Bacteroides

c)

Pseudomonas

d)

Escheria

e)

Hemophilus

28.

A biological specimen that was obtained from Mr. Det showed the presence of a bacterium that took on the shape of a safety-pin as it grew on an agar plate. It was a gram-negative, non-enteric, aerobic bacillus. Which of the following was MOST LIKELY causing an infection in Mr. Det?

a)

Hemophilus influenzae

b)

Vibrio vulnificus

c)

Yersinia pestis

d)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

e)

Actinomyces israelii

29.

With respect to the Ziehl-Neelsen staining method, which of the following statements is FALSE?

a)

The primary stain is Hot Cabol-fuchsin

b)

The primary stain is Crystal violet

c)

The mordant is Gram’s iodine

d)

The decolorizer is Acid-Alcohol

e)

The decolorizer is 95% Ethyl alcohol

30.

Which of the following bacteria is NOT categorized appropriately?

a)

Escherichia coli is a Lactose fermenter

b)

Morganella morganii is a Urea-splitting bacterium

c)

Proteus vulgaris is an Indole-positive bacterium

d)

Staphylococcus aureus is a Coagulase-negative pathogen

e)

Campylobacter jejuni is a capnophilic bacterium

31.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Imipenem-Cilastin? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Seizures

b)

Headache

c)

Anxiety

d)

Hallucination

e)

Insomnia

32.

Which of the following is an indication of Ampicillin? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Nocardiosis

b)

Meningitis in children

c)

Typhoid fever

d)

Endocarditis prophylaxis

e)

Ampicillin rash

33.

Which of the following is an indication of Penicillin G?

a)

Lumpy jaw

b)

Trench mouth

c)

Lockjaw

d)

Scarlet fever

e)

Weil’s disease

34.

Penicillin G is LEAST LIKELY to be effective in treating which of the following?

a)

UTI caused by Escheria coli

b)

Pharyngitis caused by Streptococcus pyogenes

c)

Suppurative arthritis caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

Meningitis caused by Listeria monocytogenes

e)

Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdoferi

35.

Which of the following is caused by Escherichia coli?

a)

UTI caused by Escherichia coli

b)

Pharyngitis caused by Streptococcus pyogenes

c)

Suppurative arthritis caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

Meningitis caused by Listeria monocytogenes

e)

Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdoferi

36.

Which of the following statements about Vancomycin is INCORRECT?

a)

It can be administered orally for the treatment of meningitis caused by Flavobacterium meningosepticum

b)

It produces a time-dependent bactericidal effect

c)

It produces the red man syndrome while Teicoplanin does not

d)

It has a shorter half-life than Teicoplanin

e)

It is administered IV and PO while Teicoplanin is administered IV, PO, and IM

37.

The drug illustrated below is ampicillin. It contains:

a)

Beta Lactone Ring

b)

Beta Lactam Ring

c)

Pyridine Ring

d)

Pyrimidine Ring

e)

Pyrrole Ring

38.

Amoxicillin has ___ chiral center(s).

a)

1

b)

7

c)

0

d)

2

e)

4

39.

Which of the following statements about procaine benzathine benzyl penicillin is CORRECT?

a)

Procaine Benzathine benzyl penicillin has 10 chiral centers

b)

Procaine Benzathine benzyl penicillin is freely soluble in water

c)

Procaine Benzathine benzyl penicillin is water insoluble and used for repository purposes

d)

Procaine Benzathine benzyl penicillin is water soluble and used for oral administration

e)

All of the above

40.

_____ catalyze hydrolysis of the Beta-B-lactam bond and inactivate B-lactam antibiotics.

a)

Transamidase

b)

CYP450

c)

B-Lactamases

d)

Gamma Lactamase

e)

All of the above

41.

Dicloxacillin contains:

a)

Beta Lactam Ring

b)

Thiazolidine Ring

c)

Isoxazole Ring

d)

Benzene Ring

e)

All of the above

42.

Which of the following statements about Becampicillin is correct?

a)

Becampicillin is a weak base

b)

Becampicillin is an amphoteric compound

c)

Becampicillin is a strong acid

d)

Becampicillin is a tetracycline analog

43.

Which of the following statements about Methicillin is CORRECT?

a)

The ortho-methoxy groups produced steric hindrance, increasing its affinity to B-lactamases

b)

The ortho-methoxy groups produced steric hindrance, decreasing its affinity to gram-positive bacteria

c)

The ortho-methoxy groups produced steric hindrance, increasing its affinity gram-positive

d)

The ortho-methoxy groups produced steric hindrance, decreasing its affinity to B-lactamases

e)

All of the above

44.

Benzylpenicillin has ____ chiral center(s).

a)

3

b)

7

c)

4

d)

1

e)

6

45.

Which of the following statements about Amoxicillin is CORRECT?

a)

Amoxicillin is a weak base

b)

Amoxicillin is a weak acid

c)

Amoxicillin is an amphoteric substance

d)

Amoxicillin is a prodrug

e)

Amoxicillin is a strong acid

46.

The drug illustrated below is Cloxacillin. It contains:

a)

Piperidine Ring

b)

Isoxazole Ring

c)

Pyridine Ring

d)

Pyrimidine Ring

e)

Pyrrole Ring

47.

Beta lactam Ring (penicillin) biosynthesis:

a)

Condensation of Valine and Isoleucine

b)

Condensation of Cysteine and Isoleucine

c)

Condensation of Valine and Leucine

d)

Condensation of Cysteine and Leucine

e)

Condensation of Cysteine and Valine

48.

Penicillins were produced by the group of the ____ Penicillium Chrysogenum.

a)

Bacteria

b)

Fungus

c)

Virus

d)

Plant

e)

Celecoxib

49.

What crucial feature of a penicillin is involved in its mechanism of action?

a)

Thiazolidine Ring

b)

Carboxylic Acid

c)

Acyl Side Chain

d)

Beta Lactam Ring

e)

Aromatic Ring

50.

Which of the following statements about Nafcillin is/are CORRECT? SATA

a)

Nafcillin is acid sensitive penicillin

b)

Nafcillin is acid resistant penicillin

c)

Ethoxy group produced steric hindrance, decreasing its affinity to B-lactamases

d)

Ethoxy group produce steric hindrance, decreasing its affinity to transpeptidase

e)

Nafcillin is a weak acid

51.

Nafcillin is an ___

a)

Amphoteric Compound

b)

Weak Base

c)

Weak Acid

d)

Strong Base

e)

Neutral Compound

52.

Penicillin antibiotics contains:

a)

5-membered lactam ring and 4-membered thiazolidine ring

b)

4-membered lactam ring and 5-membered imidazole ring

c)

4-membered lactam ring and 5-membered pyrazole ring

d)

4-membered lactam ring and 6-membered thiazolidine ring

e)

4-membered lactam ring and 5-membered thiazolidine ring

53.

___ group decreases the electron density on the side-chain carbonyl and protects Penicillins from acid degradation.

a)

Electron-Donating

b)

Electron-Withdrawing

c)

Benzene Ring

d)

Hydroxyl

e)

Ethyl

54.

The drug illustrated below is Ampicillin. How many chiral centers are present?

a)

1

b)

5

c)

4

d)

3

e)

6

55.

Which of the following statements about Dicloxacillin is CORRECT?

a)

Dicloxacillin is a weak acid

b)

Dicloxacillin is an amphoteric compound

c)

Dicloxacillin is a macrolide antibiotic

d)

Dicloxacillin contains imidazole ring

e)

Dicloxacillin is a tetracycline analog

56.

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Benzylpenicillin?

a)

Benzylpenicillin is a weak base

b)

Benzylpenicillin is a weak acid

c)

Benzylpenicillin is an amphoteric substance

d)

Benzylpenicillin is a strong acid

e)

Benzylpenicilin is a neutral molecule

57.

All of the following statements about Ampicillin is true EXCEPT:

a)

It contains lactam ring

b)

B-lactamase sensitive penicillin

c)

Acid sensitive penicillin

d)

Ampicillin is an amphoteric substance

e)

It has 4 chiral centers

58.

Which of the following statements about Cefditoren pivoxil is/are correct? SATA

a)

Cefditoren pivoxil is a B-lactam analog

b)

Cefditoren pivoxil is an orally active prodrug

c)

Cefditoren pivoxil is a prodrug

d)

Bioavailability of Cefditoren pivoxil is increased if taken with food

e)

Cefditoren pivoxil is a Third-Generation Cephalosporin

59.

Which of the following statements about Cefuroxime axetil is/are correct? SATA

a)

Cefuroxime axetil is a B-lactam analog

b)

Cefuroxime axetil has Z-oxime stereochemistry

c)

Cefuroxime axetil is a prodrug

d)

Cefuroxime axetil is a second-generation Cephalosporin

e)

Cefuroxime axetil is a third-generation Cephalosporin

60.

All are beta-lactamases resistant penicillins EXCEPT:

a)

Methicillin

b)

Nafcillin

c)

Ampicillin

d)

Oxacillin

e)

Cloxacillin

61.

Oxacillin is a

a)

Prodrug

b)

Beta lactamase resistant oral penicillin

c)

Beta lactamase sensitive oral penicillin

d)

Macrolide antibiotic

62.

Dicloxacillin contains

a)

4-membered beta lactone ring

b)

5-membered beta lactone ring

c)

5-membered beta lactam ring

d)

4-membered beta lactam ring

e)

6-membered delta lactone ring

63.

All of the following statements about Amoxicillin are true EXCEPT:

a)

Amoxicillin is an amphoteric substance

b)

It has 7 chiral centers

c)

It contains a lactam ring

d)

Lactamase sensitive penicillin

e)

Acid-resistant penicillin

64.

Daptomycin is a ___

a)

Cyclic lipopeptide analog

b)

Second Generation Cephalosporin

c)

Beta-lactam antibiotic

d)

Third Generation Cephalosporin

e)

Thiazolidine Analog

65.

Daptomycin

a)

Binds to 50s ribosomes and inhibits protein synthesis

b)

Binds to 50s ribosomes and inhibits protein synthesis

c)

Inhibitor of bacterial topoisomerase

d)

Binds to cell membranes and causes depolarization

e)

Inhibits bacteria dihydrofolate reductase

66.

ONE BEST ANSWER _____ is an acid resistant penicillin.

a)

Nafcillin

b)

Benzathine benzyl penicillin

c)

Benzyl penicillin

d)

Methicillin

e)

Amoxicillin

67.

All of the following are common to Vancomycin-related glycopeptide antibiotics EXCEPT:

a)

Hemorrhagic episodes

b)

IV administration

c)

Effective against VRE infections

d)

Concentration-dependent bactericidal effect

e)

Long-acting

68.

Vancomycin:

a)

Vancomycin is a B-lactam analog

b)

Vancomycin is a glycosylated hexapeptide analog

c)

Vancomycin is a polysaccharide analog

d)

Vancomycin is a tetracycline analog

e)

Vancomycin is isolated from Penicillium chrysogenum

69.

Which of the following statements about Methicillin is CORRECT?

a)

Methicillin is a Third-Generation Cephalosporin

b)

Methicillin is an amphoteric compound

c)

Methicillin is a Second-Generation Cephalosporin

d)

Methicillin is a weak base

e)

Methicillin is a weak acid

70.

Clavulanic acid is a _____

a)

Beta-lactamase inhibitor

b)

Protein Biosynthesis Inhibitor

c)

Bacterial Cell wall biosynthesis inhibitor

d)

Second-Generation Cephalosporin

e)

Third-Generation Cephalosporin

71.

Cefazolin is a

a)

First-Generation Cephalosporin

b)

Second-Generation Cephalosporin

c)

Third-Generation Cephalosporin

d)

Beta lactamase biosynthesis inhibitor

e)

Bacterial Protein Synthesis Inhibitor

72.

Cefaclor is a _____

a)

Amphoteric Substance

b)

Weak Base

c)

Strong Acid

d)

Strong Base

e)

Neutral Compound

73.

Telavancin is a/an ___

a)

Nucleoside analog

b)

Glycosylated heptapeptide

c)

Octapeptide

d)

Lipoglycopeptide

e)

Sulfated polysaccharide

74.

The structure of the antibiotic Vancomycin is BEST described as:

a)

Fluoroquinolone

b)

A large lactone ring

c)

A 1,3-diamino inositol

d)

A linear arrangement of four 6 membered rings

e)

A large cyclic peptide

75.

Which of the following antibiotics is NOT matched with its correct source?

a)

Thienamycin: Streptomyces cattleya

b)

Penicillin G: Penicillium crysogenum

c)

Cefoxitin: Cephalosporium acremonium

d)

Aztreonam: Chromobacterium violaceum

e)

Bacitracin: Bacillus subtillis

76.

A Pharmacist should question a prescription that calls for the per os administration of which of the following?

a)

Nafcillin

b)

Dicloxacillin

c)

Geocillin

d)

Azlocillin

e)

Amoxicillin

77.

Which of the following has the highest plasma protein-binding capability?

a)

Oxacillin

b)

Penicillin G

c)

Methicillin

d)

Ampicillin

e)

Piperacillin

78.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be inactivated by beta-lactamase I?

a)

Penicillin VK

b)

Mexlocillin

c)

Amoxicillin

d)

Ticarcillin

e)

Cloxacillin

79.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a Monobactam?

a)

Blapenem

b)

Panipenem

c)

Meropenem

d)

Doripenem

e)

Tigemonam

80.

Which of the following should a Pharmacist suggest for the treatment of cellulitis caused by MRSA?

a)

Doribax

b)

Teflaro

c)

Veetids

d)

Invanz

e)

Primaxin

81.

All of the following properties are common to the Vancomycin-like peptide antibacterials EXCEPT:

a)

Long t1/2

b)

IV administration

c)

Production of hemolytic episodes

d)

Effectiveness against VRE

e)

Concentration-dependent bactericidal effect

82.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Daptomycin?

a)

Eosinophilic pneumonia

b)

Hyperphosphatemia

c)

Hypophosphatemia

d)

Hyperkalemia

e)

Hypokalemia

83.

Which of the following produces its antibacterial effect by inhibiting the dephosphorylation of the bacterial membrane-associated carrier?

a)

Teichoplanin

b)

Bacitracin

c)

Cycloserine

d)

Fosfomycin

e)

Cefotaxime

84.

Which of the following inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to Lipid III?

a)

Oritavancin

b)

Cycloserine

c)

Carumonam

d)

Teixobactin

e)

Cefadroxil

85.

SATA: The mechanism of action of Recarbrio involves the inhibition of which of the following?

a)

Penicillinase

b)

Transpeptidase

c)

Dehydropeptidase-I

d)

Amidase

e)

Elastase

86.

A disulfiram-like action can be observed when alcohol is ingested concurrently with which of the following? SATA

a)

Cefotetan

b)

Cefamandole

c)

Cefmetazole

d)

Cefoperazone

e)

Moxalactam

87.

In renal dysfunction, it is NOT necessary to alter the dose or frequency of administration of which of the following? SATA

a)

Cefobid

b)

Cefoxitin

c)

Cefepime

d)

Ceftriaxone

e)

Cefamandole

88.

Which of the following is a 1st-generation Cephalosporin that is employed in dental surgery prophylaxis? SATA

a)

Ancef

b)

Keflex

c)

Duricef

d)

Rocephin

e)

Claforan

89.

Which of the following is a Cephalosporin that is LIKELY to be employed prophylactically during hysterectomy? SATA

a)

Cefotetan

b)

Cefoxitin

c)

Cefazolin

d)

Cefotaxime

e)

Cefdinir

90.

Which of the following bacteria has been implicated in human-bite woulds? SATA

a)

Bacteroides species

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Streptococcus pyogenes

d)

Eikenella corrodens

e)

Corynebacterium diphtheria

91.

Which of the following grows readily on the MacConkey agar? SATA

a)

Streptococcus viridians

b)

Bacillus anthracis

c)

Pasteurlla maltocida

d)

Francisella tularensis

e)

Listeria monocytogenes

92.

Which of the following is used to manage Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

a)

Penicillin G

b)

Procaine Penicillin G

c)

Aspirin

d)

Benadryl

e)

Probenecid

93.

Which of the following conditions is NOT matched with its correct causative agent?

a)

Scarlet Fever: Streptococcus pyogenes

b)

Trench mouth: Treponema vincentii

c)

Toxic shock syndrome: Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Lyme disease: Borelia burgdogeri

e)

Chancroid: Hemophilis inflenzae

94.

Which of the following is an appropriate dosage of Teflaro when it is used to treat community-acquired pneumonia caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae?

a)

200 mg PO BID x 10 days

b)

400 mg IM Q12H x 5 days

c)

400 mg IV Q6H x 14 days

d)

600 mg IM Q6H x 5 days

e)

600 mg IV Q12H x 7 days

95.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Bacitracin? SATA

a)

Azotemia

b)

Nausea and Diarrhea

c)

Skin Rash

d)

Pain at injection site

e)

Albuminuria

96.

Which of the following statements about drug-to-drug interactions involving the Penicillins is FALSE? A concurrent administration of ____ and ____ will result in _____.

a)

Nafcillin; Warfarin; Decreased INR

b)

Ticarcillin; Coumadin; Hemorrhagic Episodes

c)

Penicillin VK; Invoking; Additive Hyperkalemia

d)

Piperacillin; HCTZ; Additive Hypokalemia

e)

Methicillin; Gentamicin; Reduced incidence of nephrotoxicity

97.

Aztreonam should NOT be used to treat infections caused by which of the following?

a)

Aeromonas hydrophilia

b)

Moraxella catarrhalis

c)

Morganella morganii

d)

Enterobacter aerogenes

e)

Serratia marcescens

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