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Final Fundamentals Quiz 1 (IV Therapy)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the MAIN purpose of continuous IV infusions in intravenous therapy?

a)

To replace and/or maintain fluids and electrolytes

b)

To administer oral medications

c)

To give intermittent bursts of medicine

d)

To cause the patient to excrete excess fluid volume

2.

Which of the following is an advantage of continuous IV infusions?

a)

A) Drug is infused over a longer period of time

b)

B) Drug is given rapidly

c)

C) Limited drug delivery

d)

D) Requires frequent needle changes

3.

Fill in the blank: One disadvantage of continuous IV infusions is the danger of infusing too much _____

a)

fluid

b)

water

c)

glucose

d)

iron

4.

Pharmacy will usually pre-mix continuous IV infusions.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

What is an example of an intermittent IV infusion?

a)

IV piggy back or IV push

b)

Continuous IV therapy

c)

Intramuscular injection

d)

Subcutaneous injection

6.

Saline locks are used to maintain venous access without the need for continuous infusions.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

When receiving orders for IV therapy, what should be included in every order?

a)

Name of IV solution, name of the medication to be added if any, time period during which the IV is to infuse

b)

Patient's age and weight and name of IV solution

c)

Time of day, nurse's initials, time period during which the IV is to infuse

d)

Type of syringe and color of tubing and name of the medication to be added if any, time period during which the IV is to infuse

8.

Name one vascular access device needed for the initiation of IV therapy.

a)

IV catheter

b)

Oxygen mask

c)

Urinary catheter

d)

Endotracheal tube

9.

SATA: Select the items of equipment needed for the initiation of intermittent IV therapy besides the IV catheter itself.

a)

Tourniquets

b)

Clean gloves

c)

Bags of IV fluid

d)

Tubing

e)

Electronic infusion devices/pumps

10.

SATA: Which veins are commonly used as sites for peripheral IV therapy?

a)

Temporal Artery

b)

Median Forearm Vein

c)

Basilic Vein

d)

Inferior Vena Cava

e)

Accessory Cephalic Vein

11.

Which vein is only to be used in children for IV therapy?

a)

Foot veins

b)

Jugular vein

c)

Cephalic vein

d)

Basilic vein

12.

Which vein is only to be used in neonates for IV therapy?

a)

Temporal veins

b)

Cephalic vein

c)

Basilic vein

d)

Saphenous vein

13.

What should be changed as needed during maintenance of IV therapy?

a)

IV fluid containers, tubing, and dressings

b)

Patient's diet plan

c)

Patient's medication schedule

d)

Room temperature settings

14.

SATA: What should the nurse assess during maintenance of IV therapy?

a)

Presence of complications

b)

Changes in flow rate

c)

Family at the bedside

d)

Meal preferences

e)

Pump settings

15.

Which of the following is a reason for discontinuing peripheral IV access?

a)

A) Upon discharge

b)

B) Expiration of peripheral access site

c)

D) Both A and B

d)

C) New IV medication order that is compatible with previous IV medication administered

e)

E) A, B and C

16.

All types of IV therapy REQUIRE an electronic infusion device/pump.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Fill in the blank: The sterile IV administration set includes a drip chamber with specific drop size (varies) and _______.

a)

injection spike

b)

thermometer

c)

sphygmomanometer

d)

stethoscope

18.

Which of the following is REQUIRED for fluids that need strict regulation (i.e. potassium) and for pediatric patients?

a)

Gravity administration

b)

Electronic infusion devices (pumps)

c)

Manual injection

d)

Oral administration

19.

Pumps use pressure and DO NOT rely on gravity.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

What will happen if the rate of flow is disrupted, altered, or if tubing is pinched in an electronic infusion device?

a)

An alarm will sound.

b)

The device will shut down immediately.

c)

The infusion will continue at a faster rate.

d)

Nothing will happen; the device will ignore it.

21.

PCA (Patient Controlled Analgesia) allows for:

a)

B) Patients to self administer pain medication

b)

A) Patients to have a continuous 'basal' rate of medication

c)

D) Both A and B

d)

E) A, B, and C

e)

C) Prevention of dosing errors

22.

What is the safe range of infusion rates for pumps?

a)

10-50 mL/hr

b)

50-200 mL/hr

c)

200-400 mL/hr

d)

400-600 mL/hr

23.

When performing a gravity flow infusion, where should the IV bag be hung in relation to the patient's heart?

a)

Below the heart

b)

At the same level as the heart

c)

Above the heart

d)

It does not matter

24.

Fill in the blank: The higher the IV bag, the ______ the flow.

a)

faster

b)

slower

c)

lower

d)

same

25.

For gravity flow, the rate is calculated ______ instead of mL/hr.

a)

in gtt/min

b)

in L/day

c)

in mg/kg

d)

in cc/sec

26.

True or False: The rate calculated for gravity flow is as accurate as the rate for pumps.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

What should you do if the infusion rate for pumps exceeds 200 mL/hr?

a)

Ignore it

b)

Double check the order and your calculations

c)

Increase the rate further

d)

Call the patient's mother

28.

What is the FIRST step when discontinuing an intermittent IV infusion?

a)

Remove the tubing

b)

Turn off the pump

c)

Change the IV site

d)

Prime the line

29.

When adding new IV tubing, what technique should be used?

a)

Sterile technique

b)

Aseptic technique

c)

No technique required

d)

Surgical technique

30.

True or False: It is acceptable to let IV tubing touch the floor.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

What should you always remember to do when priming fluid bags and lines?

a)

Check for air in the line

b)

Use cold water

c)

Shake the bag

d)

Add medication

32.

IV bags MUST be labeled with which of the following?

a)

A) Contents, rate, and client identifiers

b)

B) Contents

c)

C) Rate

d)

D) Client identifiers

33.

What may be applied to visually cue hour and volume correlations during IV therapy?

a)

Rate tapes

b)

Adhesive bandages

c)

Alcohol swabs

d)

Tourniquets

34.

Which of the following are potential complications of intravenous therapy, and what should be done if they occur?

a)

Phlebitis and infiltration; stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider

b)

Hypertension and diabetes; increase the IV flow rate

c)

Asthma and allergies; administer more IV fluids

d)

Dehydration and fever; apply a cold compress

35.

Monitor client during infusion, rapid infusion of potassium can cause what?

a)

DEATH

b)

Rash

c)

Constipation

d)

Drowsiness

36.

NEVER ADMINISTER POTASSIUM VIA IV PUSH!!!

a)

True

b)

False

37.

DO NOT add potassium to an IV bag that is already infusing.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

SATA: Which of the following are potential IV contamination sources of infection?

a)

Hands of medical personnel (not washing hands)

b)

Hub colonization (not scrubbing the hub)

c)

Contaminated fluid

d)

Hematogenous spread

e)

Contaminated during insertion

39.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of infection related to IV therapy?

a)

Skin microflora of patient

b)

Poor skin prep

c)

Catheters left in place more than 72 hours

d)

Field sticks changed every 24 hours

40.

Which of the following is an infection complication associated with IV therapy?

a)

Septicemia

b)

Infiltration

c)

Extravasation

d)

Agranulocytosis

41.

List two signs and symptoms (S/S) of infiltration in IV therapy.

a)

Slowed or stopped infusion, swelling, tenderness, pallor, coolness at site

b)

Redness and warmth at site, rapid infusion, dry skin

c)

Elevated blood pressure, fever, headache, slowed or stopped infusion

d)

Bradycardia, chest pain, blurred vision

42.

What is the nursing response to infiltration during IV therapy?

a)

Stop the infusion, restart IV in a different vein, elevate affected arm on a pillow, apply warm or cool compress

b)

Continue the infusion and monitor for improvement, apply ice pack only

c)

Increase the infusion rate and massage the area vigorously

d)

Ignore the infiltration and document it at the end of the shift

43.

Which of the following is a late sign of extravasation?

a)

Swelling

b)

Pallor

c)

Blistering

d)

Coolness

44.

What is the first nursing response to extravasation during IV therapy?

a)

STOP THE INFUSION STAT, administer antidote if applicable, elevate the extremity, apply a COLD compress

b)

CRANK THE INFUSION STAT, administer antidote if applicable, elevate the extremity, apply a COLD compress

c)

STOP THE INFUSION STAT, administer antidote if applicable, elevate the extremity, apply a WARM compress

d)

STOP THE INFUSION STAT, administer antidote if applicable, lower the extremity, apply a WARM compress

45.

Septicemia is the presence of a microorganism or their toxic by-products in which system?

a)

Respiratory system

b)

Circulatory system

c)

Digestive system

d)

Nervous system

46.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of septicemia in IV therapy?

a)

Break in aseptic technique

b)

Contaminated fluids

c)

Proper hand hygiene

d)

Use of sterile equipment

47.

Name some signs and symptoms (S/S) of septicemia.

a)

Fever, chills, tachycardia, hypotension, confusion, elevated WBC count

b)

Bradycardia, dry skin, low WBC count, hypertension

c)

Weight gain, constipation, bradycardia, normal temperature

d)

Joint pain, rash, normal blood pressure, low WBC count

48.

What is the nursing response for circulatory overload when administering too much IV fluids or administering fluids too fast?

a)

STOP THE INFUSION STAT, consult HCP, administer antibiotics

b)

SLOW the IV flow rate, place the patient in high fowlers, monitor VS, administer diuretics if ordered

c)

Place client in Trendelenburg position on the left side, administer 100% oxygen

d)

Apply a tourniquet above the site, notify HCP and radiologist, start a new IV line

49.

SATA: Which of the following are signs or symptoms (S/S) of circulatory overload?

a)

Palpitations

b)

Sharp and sudden pain at IV site

c)

Jugular venous distention

d)

Cough and hypotension

e)

Crackles on lung auscultation

50.

What is the nursing response for an air embolus?

a)

Place client in Trendelenburg position on the left side, prepare emergency equipment for emergent procedures, administer 100% Geek Bar

b)

Place client in Trendelenburg position on the left side, prepare emergency equipment for emergent procedures, administer 100% oxygen

c)

Place client in High Fowlers position on the left side, prepare emergency equipment for emergent procedures, administer 100% oxygen

d)

Place client in Trendelenburg position on the right side, prepare emergency equipment for emergent procedures, administer 100% oxygen

51.

SATA: Which of the following is a cause of an air embolus?

a)

Administering too much IV fluids

b)

Reinserting a catheter used in an unsuccessful insertion

c)

Loose connections

d)

Removing and reinserting a stylet

e)

Failing to prime tubing before connecting IV medications to patient

52.

What is the nursing response for a catheter embolus?

a)

STOP the secondary medication, but not the primary! Notify the HCP and the urologist!

b)

Place client in Trendelenburg position!

c)

Apply a tourniquet above the site! Notify HCP and the radiologist! Start a new IV line!

d)

SLOW the IV flow rate! Notify the HCP and the orthopedic surgeon!

53.

Fill in the blank: Normal blood serum osmolality is _______ mOsm/kg.

a)

280-300

b)

200-220

c)

320-340

d)

150-170

54.

Which type of IV solution is similar to blood osmolality and remains inside the intravascular compartments?

a)

Hypotonic

b)

Isotonic

c)

Hypertonic

d)

Gin and Tonic

55.

Fill in the blank: Isotonic solutions expand ONLY the ______, making them ideal for patients with hypovolemia or hypotension.

a)

ECF (extracellular fluid)

b)

ICF (intracellular fluid)

c)

plasma proteins

d)

red blood cells

56.

Which of the following are examples of isotonic solutions?

a)

D5W, ½ NS

b)

Normal saline, LR

c)

Volume expanders (Dextran, Albumin)

d)

0.33% Saline

57.

Which type of IV solution has lower osmolality than blood osmolality and causes water to move out of blood vessels into the cells and interstitial tissue?

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypertonic

c)

Hypotonic

d)

Colloid

58.

Fill in the blank: Hypotonic solutions are used for patients with low fluid volume/dehydration or those needing ______ replacement.

a)

water

b)

sodium

c)

electrolyte

d)

protein

59.

Which of the following are examples of hypotonic solutions?

a)

Normal saline, LR

b)

D5W, ½ NS, 0.33% Saline, 0.25% Saline

c)

Volume expanders (Dextran, Albumin)

d)

None of the above

60.

Which type of IV solution has osmolality greater than blood osmolality and initially raises the osmolality of the ECF?

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Hypertonic

d)

Isosmotic

61.

Fill in the blank: Hypertonic solutions require frequent monitoring of BP, lung sounds, and serum ______ levels.

a)

Na+ (sodium)

b)

Mg+ (magnesium)

c)

Ca2+ (calcium)

d)

Cl- (chloride)

62.

Which of the following are examples of hypertonic solutions?

a)

D5W, ½ NS

b)

Normal saline, LR

c)

Volume expanders (Dextran, Albumin)

d)

0.33% Saline

63.

What is the concentration of sodium chloride in a STANDARD bag of normal saline (NS)?

a)

0.9%

b)

0.45%

c)

5%

d)

10%

64.

Normal saline (NS) is isotonic and contains no calories, free water, or other electrolytes.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Excessive administration of normal saline (NS) can result in elevated ______ and ______ levels.

a)

Na and Cl

b)

K and Ca

c)

Mg and PO4

d)

HCO3 and K

66.

What is the concentration of sodium chloride in half normal saline (½ NS)?

a)

0.9%

b)

0.45%

c)

5%

d)

10%

67.

D5W (5% dextrose in water) provides how many grams of glucose per 100 mL of fluid?

a)

5 grams

b)

1 gram

c)

10 grams

d)

0.5 grams

68.

D5W is isotonic but physiologically _______.

a)

hypotonic

b)

hypertonic

c)

neutral

d)

alkaline

69.

Which IV fluid is used to replace water losses, glucose, and to treat hypernatremia?

a)

NS

b)

D5W

c)

RL

d)

D7RL

70.

Lactated Ringer solution (RL or LR) is more similar to plasma than NS.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Lactated Ringer solution contains which of the following electrolytes?

a)

Na, K, Ca, lactate (metabolized to HCO3-)

b)

Na, Cl, Mg, phosphate, lactate

c)

Lactate, K, Ca, Mg, sulfate

d)

Na, K, Cl, bicarbonate acetate (metabolized to HCO3-), lactate

72.

D5NS is dextrose 5% in _________?

a)

normal saline

b)

water

c)

lactated ringer's

d)

plasma

73.

D5 and ½ NS contains dextrose 5% in ________ saline.

a)

half normal

b)

normal

c)

hypertonic

d)

isotonic

74.

Which of the following is true about D5 and ½ NS?

a)

It is hypotonic

b)

It provides 170 cal/L

c)

It contains no dextrose

d)

It is used only for emergencies

75.

D10W is dextrose 10% in ________.

a)

water

b)

saline

c)

plasma

d)

milk

76.

True or False: D10W contains electrolytes.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Any fluid higher than 10% dextrose must be infused via ________ to prevent shrinkage of RBCs.

a)

central line

b)

peripheral vein

c)

subcutaneous route

d)

intramuscular injection

78.

Which of the following is NOT a colloid/protein solution used as a plasma expander?

a)

Packed RBCs

b)

Albumin

c)

Plasma

d)

Glucose

79.

Dextran is a complex synthetic sugar that ________ additional fluid into the intravascular space.

a)

pulls

b)

pushes

c)

removes

d)

blocks

80.

Hetastarch/Hespan is a synthetic colloid that works similarly to ________ to expand plasma volume.

a)

Dextran

b)

Albumin

c)

Saline

d)

Mannitol

81.

Define the term 'central line' as associated with IV therapy.

a)

An intravenous line inserted into a major vein, with the subclavian or internal jugular most often used.

b)

An intravenous line inserted into a major vein, also known as a peripheral line, with the subclavian or internal jugular most often used.

c)

An intravenous line inserted into a major vein, also known as a PICC line, with the subclavian or antecubital most often used.

d)

An intravenous line inserted into a major vein, also known as a midline, with the antecubital or internal jugular most often used.

82.

What is the main difference between a PICC line and a midline catheter?

a)

PICC: multiple lumens, ends in the heart. Midline: single lumen, ends just before heart.

b)

PICC: single lumen, ends in the arm. Midline: multiple lumens, ends in the heart.

c)

PICC: used for short-term therapy. Midline: used for long-term therapy.

d)

PICC: inserted in the leg. Midline: inserted in the chest.

83.

The catheter in a central line is advanced from the insertion site into the ________.

a)

SUPERIOR VENA CAVA

b)

LEFT VENTRICLE

c)

AORTA

d)

PULMONARY ARTERY

84.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of central lines?

a)

Accommodates highly irritating and hyperosmolar solutions

b)

Easily accessible even when severely dehydrated

c)

Does not require radiographic confirmation of placement

d)

Useful for monitoring central venous pressure

85.

Saline or heparin is injected into the port of a saline/heparin lock regularly to ________.

a)

prevent clotting

b)

increase blood pressure

c)

reduce infection risk

d)

enhance medication absorption

e)

increase thrombin generation

86.

What is required to confirm the placement of a central line?

a)

Radiographic confirmation

b)

Blood pressure measurement

c)

Pulse oximetry

d)

Physical examination

87.

What are some other names for saline/heparin locks?

a)

Medlock, saline lock, heplocks

b)

IV drip lock, blood lock, plasma lock

c)

PICC lock, midlock, central lock

d)

"Got It" count >6.5 (-900) (absolute lock)

88.

What should you do after infusion of medications in site?

a)

Flush after infusion of medications in site

b)

Remove the IV line immediately

c)

Apply a cold compress to the site

d)

Elevate the limb for 24 hours

89.

What is the average heparin flush dosage?

a)

10 units

b)

1 units

c)

1,000 units

d)

5 units

90.

The average heparin flush dosage is 10 units, and NEVER EXCEEDS ____ units!

a)

100

b)

10

c)

50

d)

70

91.

Which of the following is a high-alert medication that comes in many dosage strengths, and could cause serious complications due to excess blood loss?

a)

Phosphate

b)

Heparin

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Saline

e)

Warkarin

92.

Which tubing type carries the main IV solution and is continuous?

a)

Primary Line

b)

Secondary Line

c)

Peripheral Line

d)

IV Piggyback

93.

Which tubing type is usually connected to primary via a variety of systems and contains solutions of smaller volume medications?

a)

Secondary Line

b)

Primary Line

c)

Extension Set

d)

Blood Administration Set

94.

Where is a peripheral line located?

a)

Peripherally (hand, arm, leg, feet, etc)

b)

Centrally (chest, neck)

c)

In the abdomen

d)

In the scalp

e)

In the superior vena cava

95.

IV Piggyback is also known as what?

a)

Secondary line

b)

Primary infusion

c)

Bolus injection

d)

Direct push

96.

There is a small margin for error when giving medications via IV push.

a)

True

b)

False (there is a large margin)

c)

False (there is no margin)

97.

Which type of patient is a volume control set best suited for?

a)

Pediatric patients

b)

Geriatric patients

c)

Adult patients

d)

Dehydrated patients

98.

Lactated Ringers (LR) provides calories.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

Excessive administration of normal saline can lead to hypernatremia.

a)

True

b)

False

100.

Which is the MOST important vital sign to monitor closely when a patient is suffering from circulatory overload?

a)

BP

b)

Temperature

c)

SpO2%

d)

HR

e)

RR