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Entrepreneurship Final Exam

Total questions: 106

Worksheet time: 9hrs 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

 (p. 257) Investors usually insist that the management team not operate the business as a part-time venture. 

a)

True

b)

False

2.

(p. 257) Investors accept that the management team draws a large salary for their contributions in early operations. 

a)

True

b)

False

3.

p. 258) The proprietor is only personally liable for all aspects of the business when gross negligence occurs. 

a)

True

b)

False

4.

(p. 258) The corporation is considered a legal person that is taxable and absorbs liability. TRUE

a)

True

b)

False

5.

 (p. 259) In a limited partnership, the limited partners are equally liable for the debts of the partnership. 

a)

True

b)

False

6.

(p. 258) In a partnership, the general partners usually share the amount of personal liability according to their capital contributions. 

a)

True

b)

False

7.

 (p. 260) The most expensive type of business to start is the partnership. 

a)

True

b)

False

8.

p. 260) In order for a corporation to be legally formed the owners have to register the name and articles of incorporation and meet statutory requirements. 

a)

True

b)

False

9.

 (p. 260) The corporation can be created only by statute. TRUE

a)

True

b)

False

10.

(p. 260) In a partnership, the death of a general partner generally does not result in termination of the partnership. 

a)

True

b)

False

11.

p. 260) The corporation has the most continuity of the forms of business. 

a)

True

b)

False

12.

 (p. 260) In a limited liability partnership (LLP), the death or withdrawal of a partner dissolves the partnership. 

a)

True

b)

False

13.

(p. 261) In an S Corporation, ownership can be freely transferred as long as the buyer is an individual. 

a)

True

b)

False

14.

 (p. 261) In an LLP, the transfer of interest of one limited partner is typically not allowed. 

a)

True

b)

False

15.

 (p. 261) Transferability of interest is easiest in a limited partnership. 

a)

True

b)

False

16.

 (p. 261) Sole proprietors can access two sources of capital—personal contributions from the entrepreneur and sale of stock. 

a)

True

b)

False

17.

(p. 262) The only source of capital for a corporation is the sale of shares of stock. 

a)

True

b)

False

18.

 (p. 262) The sole proprietorship form of ownership gives owners the most control of business operations. 

a)

True

b)

False

19.

 (p. 262) The limited partners in a venture share control of day-to-day operations with the general partners. 

a)

True

b)

False

20.

(p. 262) Stockholders in a corporation share day-to-day control of the entrepreneur. 

a)

True

b)

False

21.

 (p. 262) In the partnership, profit and loss distribution is determined by the partnership agreement. 

a)

True

b)

False

22.

 (p. 263) Corporations are not able to distribute profits to shareholders. 

a)

True

b)

False

23.

 (p. 263) Corporations distribute profits primarily through dividends. 

a)

True

b)

False

24.

 (p. 263) The partnership is the most attractive type of business formation for raising capital. FALSE

a)

True

b)

False

25.

 (p. 265) Both partnerships and proprietorships serve as nontaxable conduits of income for their owners. TRUE

a)

True

b)

False

26.

 (p. 263-264) Income from the partnership is taxed twice: once at the business level and once as personal income. 

a)

True

b)

False

27.

(p. 264) Sole proprietorships usually use a calendar year for tax purposes.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

(p. 265) Since a corporation is recognized as a separate tax, it has the advantage of being able to take many deductions and expenses that are not available to the proprietorship or partnership. 

a)

True

b)

False

29.

 (p. 265) The limited liability company is automatically taxed as a corporation. 

a)

True

b)

False

30.

(p. 267) In a limited liability company, every member has limited liability. 

a)

True

b)

False

31.

(p. 268) The limited liability company is the only form of organization that allows members to share liability. 

a)

True

b)

False

32.

(p. 267) Shares of stock are issued to members of a limited liability company. 

a)

True

b)

False

33.

(p. 268) The standard term of a limited liability company is 30 years. 

a)

True

b)

False

34.

(p. 272) When hiring employees for the venture, the entrepreneur should consider the candidate's skills and abilities and avoid considering the individual's personality. 

a)

True

b)

False

35.

 (p. 272) The hiring process is one area of business operation that the entrepreneur should not cut back on to save time. 

a)

True

b)

False

36.

(p. 273) The board of directors should be an even number of members. 

a)

True

b)

False

37.

 (p. 274) A board of advisors has less decision making authority than a board of directors does. 

a)

True

b)

False

38.

 (p. 274) Once the board of advisors have been hired, the entrepreneur should not question their advice. 

a)

True

b)

False

39.

(p. 257) The management team of a new venture: 

a)

is encouraged to operate the business as a sideline.

b)

must operate the business full-time.

c)

can expect to draw a large salary.

d)

should be employed elsewhere to assure adequate income.

40.

(p. 258) _____________ have unlimited liability for the actions of the business. 

a)

Limited liability company members

b)

Corporate shareholders

c)

General partners

d)

 Limited partners

41.

(p. 259) In a limited partnership, the limited partners: 

a)

are liable only for the amount of their capital contributions.

b)

share the amount of personal liabilities equally.

c)

have only insurance as protection against liability suits.

d)

are allowed to decide on the amount of individual liabilities.

42.

 (p. 258) Liability is one of the most critical reasons for establishing a: 

a)

limited liability company.

b)

corporation.

c)

partnership.

d)

 sole proprietorship.

43.

 (p. 260) In a limited liability partnership (LLP) death or withdrawal of a partner: 

a)

results in automatic transfer of ownership to surviving partner(s).

b)

may result in problems trying to find a market for the shares.

c)

always results in termination of the partnership.

d)

has no effect on the partnership.

44.

(p. 260) Which type of ownership is the least expensive to start? 

a)

Corporation

b)

General partnership

c)

Limited partner

d)

Sole proprietorship

45.

(p. 260) Which type of ownership is the most expensive to start? 

a)

Corporation

b)

General partnership

c)

Limited partner

d)

Sole proprietorship

46.

 (p. 265) Which of the following ways of distributing the income of corporations is taxed twice? 

a)

Bonus

b)

Salary

c)

Profit sharing

d)

Dividends

47.

Empowering and encouraging employees to work on their own

a)

Leadership

b)

Management

c)

Staff

d)

Rules

48.

Why is it important to consider competition when determining where to conduct business?

a)

So you know who and how many competitors are in the area

b)

So you know how your competition is doing business and what you can improve or do differently

c)

So you know how likely consumers are to choose you

d)

All of the above

49.

Of the folowing examples, which would be breaking a rule

a)

Mandy is late to work because she is stuck in traffic

b)

Brittany, suffering from the flu, called out sick

c)

Zach is tired of making minimum wage and decides to steal from Benny's

d)

Justin took 5 minutes more on his 30 minute break

50.

If it costs Apple $225 to manufacturer an iPhone and $25 to sell, what is the minimum amount they can charge?

a)

$225

b)

$25

c)

$250

d)

$699

51.

What is the difference between wages and salary?

a)

wages are paid hourly, while salary is a fixed amount regardless of hours worked

b)

Wages are fixed amount, while salary is paid hourly

c)

Wages include benefits provided, while salary does not

d)

There is no difference

52.

Of the following, which is key to managing?

a)

Knowledge

b)

Fear

c)

Communication

d)

Kindness

53.

(p. 6) The four basic aspects of being an entrepreneur are creation, motivation, delegation and risk-taking. 

a)

True

b)

False

54.

 (p. 6) The term entrepreneur means different things to different people. 

a)

True

b)

False

55.

(p. 6) The key element found in all definitions of entrepreneurship is risk taking

a)

True

b)

False

56.

(p. 8) Technical people are often the best source for entrepreneurs for identifying new business opportunities due to their expert knowledge. 

a)

True

b)

False

57.

(p. 8) The market size and the length of the window of opportunity are the primary bases for determining risks and rewards. 

a)

True

b)

False

58.

(p. 8) Entrepreneurs can develop an internal desire for any venture. 

a)

True

b)

False

59.

(p. 10) Entrepreneurs must often make decisions in highly uncertain environments where there is considerable emotional investment. 

a)

True

b)

False

60.

(p. 11) Demographics, ethnic origin, and marital status are examples of segmentation variables. 

a)

True

b)

False

61.

(p. 13) Principles of effectuation help entrepreneurs develop their cognitive adaptability. 

a)

True

b)

False

62.

(p. 13) The question "What is this technology all about?" is a comprehension question. 

a)

True

b)

False

63.

 (p. 13) Comprehension questions are designed to stimulate entrepreneurs to think about their own understanding. 

a)

True

b)

False

64.

(p. 19) An entrepreneur typically learns more from failures than from successes. 

a)

True

b)

False

65.

 (p. 19) The motivation for managing one's own business is typically driven out of personal profit. 

a)

True

b)

False

66.

(p. 21) An entrepreneur's recovery from grief is detrimental to society. 

a)

True

b)

False

67.

 (p. 22) Entrepreneurs tend to rely much more on their personal value systems than managers when making ethical decisions. 

a)

True

b)

False

68.

(p. 24) The process for developing and commercializing an innovation is known as the product-evolution process. 

a)

True

b)

False

69.

(p. 7) Major parts of the business plan include all of the following except: 

a)

Risk and Return Assessment

b)

Marketing Plan

c)

 Financial Plan

d)

Description of Business

70.

(p. 9) In determining the resources required for a new venture an entrepreneur should: 

a)

be concerned much more with quality than cost.

b)

start by identifying resource suppliers.

c)

acquire needed resources as fast as possible while giving up the least amount of control possible.

d)

focus on how much money is needed to fund the business because obtaining capital takes the most time.

71.

(p. 6) Which of the following is not an element of the entrepreneurial definition? 

a)

Implementing the innovation

b)

Devoting time and effort

c)

Assuming risks

d)

Creating something new

72.

(p. 8) Which is the most fruitful source for identifying a business opportunity? 

a)

Members of a distribution system

b)

Consumers

c)

Technical people

d)

Business associates

73.

32. (p. 8) The market size and the length of the window of opportunity are the primary bases for: 

a)

evaluating the profitability of the venture.

b)

determining the risks and rewards.

c)

developing a stable business.

d)

growth of an already stable business.

74.

(p. 9) Which of the following is not a part of the opportunity assessment plan? 

a)

A viable exit strategy

b)

Assessment of the entrepreneur and the team

c)

The source of capital

d)

 Description of the product or service

75.

(p. 13) An entrepreneur questioning the meaning of a key technological concept would fall under which of these categories? 

a)

Strategic questions

b)

Connection tasks

c)

Reflection tasks

d)

Comprehension questions

76.

 (p. 13) Questions designed to increase an entrepreneurs' understanding of the nature of the environment are known as: 

a)

Strategic questions

b)

Connection tasks

c)

Reflection tasks

d)

 Comprehension questions

77.

(p. 18) An entrepreneur considering if what they are doing makes sense is an example of: 

a)

A strategic question

b)

A connection task

c)

A reflection task

d)

A comprehension question

78.

 (p. 18) An entrepreneur asks if there is a better way to implement a strategy. Identify the category of this question. 

a)

Reflection tasks

b)

Connection tasks

c)

Strategic questions

d)

Comprehension questions

79.

(p. 19) What is the most probable motivation for managing one's own company? 

a)

Personal profit

b)

Loyalty to a product, market and customers

c)

Stability of family's future

d)

Respectability in holding a position of authority

80.

 (p. 19) Which negative emotional response does a person feel from the loss of something important? 

a)

Fear

b)

Guilt of failure

c)

Anger

d)

Grief

81.

 (p. 20) When would an entrepreneur be pronounced to have recovered from the grief of a lost business? 

a)

On the availability of equally challenging entrepreneurial opportunities.

b)

Upon a simultaneous engagement in an analysis of the failed business.

c)

On having evaluated and absorbed the lessons learnt from the failed business.

d)

Thoughts about the events surrounding, and leading up to the loss of the business, no longer generate a negative emotional response.

82.

(p. 21) In the loss-orientation process of grief recovery, when are painful memories likely to dominate most? 

a)

In the early phase of grief.

b)

 In the medial stage of grief.

c)

In the later stage of grief.

d)

Each time a related negative thought comes to mind.

83.

(p. 21) Why is loss-orientation physically and mentally exhausting? 

a)

Since it involves psychological counseling.

b)

Since it involves confrontation.

c)

 Since it advocates change of lifestyle.

d)

Since it takes a long time to recover from grief.

84.

(p. 21) Why does restoration-orientation have adverse effects on an individual's health? 

a)

Since it involves suppression by mental effort.

b)

Since it prescribes physical diversions like a hobby.

c)

Since it involves regular physical exertion via exercise.

d)

Since it involves mental catharsis to bring out the grief

85.

 (p. 21) Which of the following is most effective in grief-recovery? 

a)

Restoration-orientation

b)

Loss-orientation

c)

Dual process

d)

Grief recovery process

86.

(p. 22) Investigation of business practices in light of human values is business: 

a)

values.

b)

ethics.

c)

morality.

d)

 technology transfer.

87.

 (p. 22) According to the text business ethics is defined as: 

a)

the study of behavior and morals in a business situation.

b)

the principles that make up your code of ethics.

c)

the laws that govern business gifts and employee behavior.

d)

the process of deciding between right and wrong.

88.

 (p. 24) Which of the following is not a stage of the product evolution process?

a)

 Development Phase

b)

Industrial Phase

c)

Risk Adjustment Phase

d)

Recognition of Social Need

89.

(p. 24) The product evolution process begins with: 

a)

government investment.

b)

market research.

c)

financial planning.

d)

knowledge in technology and science.

90.

(p. 25) Iterative synthesis is best defined as: 

a)

the number of times it takes to produce an product that is accepted by the market and is profitable.

b)

the intersection of knowledge and social need that starts the product development process.

c)

the process of developing breakthrough innovations.

d)

 the role government takes in stimulating entrepreneurship through investment.

91.

(p. 25) New products with significant technological advancement are known as: 

a)

technological innovations

b)

 ordinary innovations

c)

 breakthrough innovations

d)

 scientific innovations

92.

(p. 25) Which of the following would be considered an ordinary innovation? 

a)

 iPhone

b)

Netflix

c)

 The invention of the light bulb

d)

A new color of toilet tissue

93.

Companies rely on ________________ to plan funding for marketing plans.

a)

Pull Marketing

b)

Conversion Rates

c)

Financial Projections

94.

A strategy used to retain customers through customer loyalty and brand loyalty initiatives.

a)

Retention Strategy

b)

WISE Pops

c)

Conversion Strategy

d)

Promotion Strategy

95.

Transform a person into a paying customer. For example, transform a website visitor into a customer.

a)

Retention Strategy

b)

WISE Pops

c)

Conversion Strategy

d)

Promotion Strategy

96.

A plan to increase awareness, persuade a target audience, create interest, generate sales, or create brand loyalty.

a)

A. Retention Strategy

b)

B. WISE Pops

c)

C. Conversion Strategy

d)

D. Promotion Strategy

97.

5. The path a product takes from producer to consumer is known as a _____________ of distribution.

a)

A. Channel

b)

B. Canal

c)

C. Passage

d)

D. Path

98.

The total number of product lines a company offers to its customers.

a)

A. Multiple Target Markets

b)

B. Product Mix

c)

C. Unique Selling Proposition

d)

D. Pricing and Position Strategy

99.

Ability to price products according to competitors and position the product at a specific level or quality category.

a)

A. Multiple Target Markets

b)

B. Product Mix

c)

C. Unique Selling Proposition

d)

D. Pricing and Position Strategy

100.

_____________________ the factor that differentiates a product from its competitors.

a)

A. Multiple Target Markets

b)

B. Product Mix

c)

C. Unique Selling Proposition

d)

D. Pricing and Position Strategy

101.

When a business does not identify a________________, its marketing plan has no focus.

a)

A. Target Market

b)

B. Product Mix

c)

C. Unique Selling Proposition

d)

D. Pricing and Position Strategy

102.

According to the use of the 4-P’s classifications for developing a marketing strategy on product, price, place, and promotion, patents or legal protection would be a part of which P?

a)

A. Product

b)

B. Price

c)

C. Place

d)

D. Promotion

103.

According to the use of the 4-P’s classifications for developing a marketing strategy on product, price, place, and promotion, reputation and image among consumers would be a part of which P?

a)

A. Product

b)

B. Price

c)

C. Place

d)

D. Promotion

104.

According to the use of the 4-P’s classifications for developing a marketing strategy on product, price, place, and promotion. Where products are being sold would be a part of which P?

a)

A. Product

b)

B. Price

c)

C. Place

d)

D. Promotion

105.

According to the use of the 4-P’s classifications for developing a marketing strategy on product, price, place, and promotion. How to price a product would be a part of which P?

a)

A. Product

b)

B. Price

c)

C. Place

d)

D. Promotion

106.

 (p. 257) Investors usually insist that the management team not operate the business as a part-time venture. 

a)

True

b)

False