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muscle system exam

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 14hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

connective tissue that surrounds an entire muscle is called

a)

endomysium

b)

perimysium

c)

sarcolemma

d)

sarcomere

e)

epimysium

2.

myofibrils are made primarily of

a)

actin and myosin

b)

epimysium

c)

atp and adp

d)

troponin

e)

tropomyosin

3.

the advantage of having many nuclei in a skeletal muscle fiber is

a)

the ability to contract

b)

the ability to produce more ATP with little oxygen

c)

the ability to repair the fiber after an injury

d)

the ability to produce large amount of the enzymes and structural proteins needed for contraction

e)

none of the above

4.

the area between z lines is the

a)

sarcolemma

b)

sarcomere

c)

sarcoplasmi reticulum

d)

myofibril

e)

myofilament

5.

the center of the sarcomere is the

a)

z line

b)

m line

c)

h band

d)

a band

e)

i band

6.

the area of the sarcomere that contains only thick filaments and no zone of overlap is the

a)

z line

b)

m line

c)

h band

d)

a band

e)

i band

7.

neurotransmitters that cause skeletal muscle contraction are normally stored in

a)

myofibrils

b)

motor neuron endings

c)

motor units

d)

motor end plates

e)

actin

8.

at rest, myosin molecules are

a)

bound to other myosin molecules

b)

bound to troponin molecules

c)

blocked from binding tropomyosin molecules

d)

bound to ATP molecules

e)

blocked from binding to calcium ions

9.

in response to action potentials arriving from the tranverse tubules, the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases

a)

acetylcholine

b)

sodium ions

c)

potassium ions

d)

calcium ions

e)

all of the above

10.

rigor mortis occurs at death due to lack of

a)

cAMP

b)

DNA

c)

RNA

d)

ATP

e)

tRNA

11.

calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum during the ___ phase of contraction

a)

latent

b)

contracction

c)

twitch

d)

relaxation

e)

recovery

12.

the all-or-none response means that

a)

all of the muscles in a region contract together

b)

when a muscle fiber contracts, it contracts completley

c)

all of the muscle fibers within a muscle contract together

d)

when a muscle fiber contracts, all of its ATP is converted to ADP

e)

none of the above

13.

in a recording of a muscle twitch, the delay between the stimulus nd the muscle response is called the

a)

refractory period

b)

latent period

c)

contraction period

d)

relaxation period

e)

both B and D

14.

increasing the frequency of stimulation so that a muscle contracts without relaxation is called

a)

tetany

b)

a twitch

c)

relaxation

d)

recovery

e)

recruitment

15.

creatine phosphate serves to

a)

cause the decomposition of ATP

b)

supply energy to synthesize ATP

c)

decompose ADP

d)

synthesize ADP

e)

synthesize glucose

16.

decreasing tensions in a muscle due to lowering levels of ATP is called

a)

muscle fatigue

b)

the condiction of neural information to the muscle fiber

c)

muscle contraction

d)

muscle relaxation

e)

the stripped appearance of skeletal muscle

17.

a muscle cramp is most likley due to lack of

a)

ATP

b)

ADP

c)

actin

d)

myosin

e)

acetylcholine

18.

myoglobin stores

a)

oxygen

b)

glycogen

c)

ATP

d)

calcium ions

e)

glucose

19.

glycolysis

a)

refers to the process of anaerobic respiration

b)

can replace ATP in binding to myosin molecules during contraction

c)

acts as the only source of ATP in muscle tissue

d)

is only active during strenuous exersise

e)

can usually make enough ATP for skeletal muscle function

20.

increased oxygen consumption would accompany

a)

increased heat production

b)

increased conversion of lacti acid to glucose

c)

increased aerobic respiration by muscle cell

d)

increased muscle activity

e)

all of the above

21.

fast fiber

a)

have high resistance to fatigue

b)

have a hgih concentration of myoglobin

c)

have mainly mitochondria

d)

contract quickly

e)

all of the above

22.

activitiees that require anaerobic endurance

a)

rquire maximal contraction of muscles for short periods of time

b)

do not use ATP very quickly

c)

usually do not cause an individual to develop an oxygen debt

d)

do not rely on the energy reserves of creatine phosphate

e)

all of the above

23.

during activites requiring aerobic endurance,

a)

glycogen and glycosis are the primary sources of reserve energy

b)

oxygen debts are common

c)

most of the muscles energy is produced in mitochondria

d)

fatigue occurs in a few minuetes

e)

all of the above

24.

a person whose genetic makeup makes him or her a better marathon runner than a sprinter probably has more ___ in his or her leg muscles

a)

fast fibeers

b)

intermediate fibers

c)

slow fibers

d)

dark fibers

e)

noncontractile fibers

25.

the term used to describe muscular growth in response to usage in

a)

multiple sclerosis

b)

muscular dystrophy

c)

atrophy

d)

hypertrophy

e)

myopathy

26.

which of the following is chracteristc of cardiac muscle

a)

caridac muscles are striates

b)

cardiac muscles achieve tetany with every contraction

c)

cardiac muscles fibers are multinucleated

d)

cardiac muscles are faster than skeletal muscles

e)

neurons tha innervate cardiac muscles are under voluntary control

27.

nonstriated, involuntary muscle is

a)

cardiac

b)

red skeletal

c)

smooth

d)

white skeletal

e)

intermediate skeletal

28.

the less movable end of a skeletal muscle is the

a)

insertion

b)

belly

c)

origin

d)

proximal end

e)

distal end

29.

which of the following terms is a descriptive word for a muscles size

a)

levator

b)

extensor

c)

tensor

d)

longissimus

e)

adductor

30.

muscles whose names contain the root cervic- would be found in the

a)

head

b)

neck

c)

chest

d)

abdomen

e)

groin

31.

which of the following muscles is named for its shape

a)

pectoralis major

b)

biceps brachii

c)

deltoid

d)

erector spinae

e)

tibialis anterior

32.

the "kissing muscle" that purses the lips is the

a)

zygomaticus

b)

orbicularis oris

c)

buccinator

d)

orbicularis oculi

e)

temporalis

33.

which of the following is considered a postural muscle

a)

erector spinae

b)

biceps brachii

c)

triceps brachii

d)

rectus femoris

e)

hamstrings

34.

newborns are most likley to develop which muscles most quickly

a)

the masseter and buccinator

b)

the buccinator and obicularis oris

c)

the orbicularis oris and risorius

d)

the risorius and zygomaticus

e)

the levator labii and mentalis

35.

which of the following moves the humerus

a)

pectoralis minor

b)

deltoid

c)

serratus anterior

d)

rhomboideus

e)

trapezius

36.

the muscle that inserts on the superior angle of the scapula is the

a)

serratus anterior

b)

trapezius

c)

sternocleidomastoid

d)

pectoralis minor

e)

levator scapulae

37.

the muscle that extends the arm while doing push - ups is the

a)

deltoid

b)

pectoralis major

c)

brachialis

d)

triceps brachii

e)

biceps brachii

38.

the muscle directly deep to the gastrocnemius is the

a)

peroneus

b)

extensor digitorum

c)

soleus

d)

tibialis posterior

e)

tibialis anterior

39.

the muscle that dorsiflexes the food is the

a)

tibialis anterior

b)

tibialis porterior

c)

soleus

d)

peroneus

e)

gastrocnemius

40.

the rotator cuff refers to muscles surrounding the

a)

pelvic girdle

b)

pectoral girdle

41.

which of the following muscles contracts when grasping an object in the hand

a)

palmaris longus

b)

flexor digitorium

c)

extensor carpi radialis

d)

pronator teres

e)

supinator

42.

muscles comprising the quadriceps ground include the

a)

rectus femoris, vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis, and vastus medialis

b)

rectus femoris, tibialis anterior, soleus, and adductor longus

c)

peroneus, gastrocnemius, vastus intermedius, and rectus femoris

d)

iliopsoas, gracilis, adductor mangus, biceps femoris, and gracilis

e)

semitendinosus, biceps femoris, rectus femoris, and vastus medialis

43.

in addition to the number and type of muscle fibers in a muscle, peak athletic performance required

a)

a good blood supply and system of blood delivery

b)

a well-developed respiratory system

c)

the coordination of the nervous system

d)

good supplies of nutrients

e)

all of the above

44.

rectus femoris

a)

dorsiflexion

b)

extends leg

c)

platar flexion

d)

adducts thigh

e)

flexes leg

45.

adductor magnus

a)

dorsiflexion

b)

extends leg

c)

platar flexion

d)

adducts thigh

e)

flexes leg

46.

biceps femoris

a)

dorsiflexion

b)

extends leg

c)

platar flexion

d)

adducts thigh

e)

flexes leg

47.

tibialis anterior

a)

dorsiflexion

b)

extends leg

c)

platar flexion

d)

adducts thigh

e)

flexes leg

48.

connective tissue that surrounds an entire muscle is called

a)

endomysium

b)

perimysium

c)

sacrolemma

d)

sarcomere

e)

epimysium

49.

myofibrils are made primarily of

a)

actin and myosin

b)

epimysium

c)

ATP and ADP

d)

troponin

e)

tropomyosin

50.

the area between z lines is the

a)

sarcolemma

b)

sarcomere

c)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

d)

myofibril

e)

myofilament

51.

the center of the sarcomere is the

a)

z line

b)

m line

c)

h band

d)

a band

e)

i band

52.

neurotransmitters that cause skeletal muscle contraction are normally stored in

a)

myofibrils

b)

motor neuron endings

c)

motor units

d)

motor end plates

e)

actin

53.

the enzyme acetylcholinesterase causes acetylcholine to

a)

decompose

b)

synthesize

c)

bond to actin

d)

be secreted

e)

form cross-bridges

54.

in response to action potentials arriving from the transverse tubules, the sarcoplasic reticulum releases

a)

acetylchonline

b)

sodium ions

c)

potassium ions

d)

calcium ions

e)

all of the above

55.

calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum during the ___ phase of contraction

a)

letend

b)

contraction

c)

twitch

d)

relaxation

e)

recovery

56.

increasing the frequency of stimulation so that a muscle contracts without relaxation is called

a)

tetany

b)

a twitch

c)

relaxation

d)

recovery

e)

recruitment

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