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Bio B Finals Practice

Total questions: 187

Worksheet time: 2hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The mortality rate of organisms following a type I survivorship curve is __________.

a)

fairly constant throughout life

b)

higher in post-reproductive years

c)

lower after the organisms become established

d)

unrelated to age

2.

Which contribute to a positive population growth?

a)

immigration

b)

positive birth rate

c)

emigration

d)

positive death rate

3.

Which of the following is NOT an outcome of high population density?

a)

mortality increase

b)

predators tend to ignore prey that is overabundant

c)

reduction in births

d)

decreased resource availability

4.

Which of the following describes the population of elephants in Kenya from 1973-1989?

a)

(immigration + births) – (emigration + deaths) = 0

b)

(immigration + births) – (emigration + deaths) = 1

c)

(immigration + births) – (emigration + deaths) < 0

d)

(immigration + births) – (emigration + deaths) > 0

5.

What type of factor has an increasing impact as the population size increases?

a)

density-independent

b)

density-dependent

c)

cohort effect

d)

survivorship factor

6.

Which of the following are density dependent factors?

a)

competition for resources

b)

predation

c)

disease

d)

natural disasters

7.

Which of the following are examples of a density independent factors?

a)

forest fire

b)

seasonal cycles

c)

storms

d)

disease

8.

Factors like predation can have a positive benefit to the population of prey organisms because predators tend to keep prey populations below their ___________.

a)

carrying capacity

b)

sustainibility number

c)

exponential growth point

d)

competition level

9.

As a population of a species increases within a territory, which of the following most likely also increases?

a)

Immigration

b)

Food supply

c)

Carrying capacity

d)

Competition

10.

What type of growth model is shown in image A?

a)

Exponential

b)

Logistic

11.

What type of growth model is shown in image B?

a)

Exponential

b)

Logistic

12.

What point on the graph represents carrying capacity?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

13.

At carrying capacity, a population __________.

a)

increases rapidly

b)

increases slowly

c)

decreases slowly

d)

is in dynamic equilibrium

14.

Which choice most closely approximates the deer population's carrying capacity based on the graph?

a)

100

b)

80

c)

60

d)

10

15.

Which mathematical model most closely describes the population growth curve shown in deer population graph from the previous question?

a)

logistic growth

b)

exponential growth

16.

Which of the following populations is most likely to go extinct?

a)

a very small population in an unstable environment

b)

a moderate-sized population of r strategists

c)

a large population with lots of genetic variability

d)

all would be equally likely to go extinct

17.

What is the the closest approximation of the size of the human population today?

a)

850 million

b)

7.5 billion

c)

20.8 billion

d)

1.7 trillion

18.

Which population growth model most closely describes the human population in the modern age?

a)

logistic growth

b)

exponential growth

c)

upward growth

d)

tumor growth

19.
If the number of births in a population is the same as the number of deaths in a population, what will happen to the growth of the population?
a)
It will increase.
b)
It will decrease.
c)
It will stay the same.
d)
It will fluctuate.
20.
Largest number of individuals of a population that the environment can support...  
a)
carrying capacity
b)
population crash
c)
lag phase
d)
mutualism
21.
When a population grows past the ecosystem's carrying capacity, what happens to the population?
a)
Continues to grow
b)
The population starts to die off to return to carrying capcity
c)
The population will go extinct due to lack of resources
d)
The population grows then finds a new carrying capacity
22.
Food, water, sunlight, shelter, and space are resources that are often __________.
a)
limiting factors
b)
wet
c)
messy
d)
found in rocks
23.
Any thing or organism that regulates the size of a population of another organism is known as __________.
a)
a limiting measure
b)
a limiting factor
c)
factorization
d)
materialization of precipitation
24.
When organisms move out of the population, this is known as
a)
emigration
b)
abandonment
c)
immigration
d)
succession
25.
which statement sounds accurate based on the graph data. 
a)
The zebra and lions do not affect each other
b)
when lions population increases, so does the zebra population
c)
When the zebra population increases, it causes the lion population to also increase
d)
when zebra populations go down, the zebra population goes up. 
26.
A population is...
a)
A group of one species in one area
b)
Multiple species that live in one area
c)
All of the living and nonliving things in an area
d)
None of these
27.

This graph shows ....

a)

When one population increases, the other decreases.

b)

When one population decreases, the other increases.

c)

When one population increases, the other increases instantly.

d)

When one population increases, it causes the other to increases shortly after.

28.
The way in which individuals of a population are spread out is called
a)
population density
b)
survivorship
c)
population dispersion
d)
logistic curve
29.
Lichens and mosses that first live in uninhabited areas are examples of
a)
secondary species
b)
non-native species
c)
pioneer species
d)
climax species
30.
A sequence of biotic changes that regenerate or create an ecological community is known as
a)
factors
b)
erosion
c)
succession
d)
progression
31.
Secondary succession is most likely to occur
a)
on a volcanic island
b)
after a rainstorm
c)
after a Thanksgiving Turkey dinner
d)
after a forest fire
32.

Nesting birds often space themselves evenly from other nests. This pattern is called

a)

uniform dispersion

b)

clumped dispersion

c)

random dispersion

d)

type I dispersion

33.
Which kind of dispersion is #1?
a)
clumped
b)
random
c)
uniform
34.

The first species to take hold in a barren area after a disaster has occurred is called a

a)

climax community

b)

parasite

c)

pioneer species

d)

carnivore

35.
Name that population pyramid...
a)
Rapid Growth
b)
Industrialized Country
c)
Declining Growth
d)
Stable Growth
36.
Name that population pyramid...
a)
Declining Growth
b)
Rapid Growth
c)
Stable Growth
37.
What is the approximate population of men age 65-69 in the US in 2014? (see pyramid)
a)
7.5 million
b)
10.5 million
c)
5 million
d)
12 million
38.
What is one characteristic evident in this population pyramid of Vietnam in 2014?
a)
The population of youth under age 20 is growing.
b)
There are more females aged 0-4 than males.
c)
Vietnam is in Stage 2 of the Demographic Transition Model.
d)
There are more women aged 65-99 than men.
39.

According to the graph, which age group is the smallest for the male population in the United States?

a)

20-24

b)

85+

c)

50-54

40.

Mitosis is the stage of the cell cycle during which ____.

a)

the cell's nucleus divides into two new nuclei.

b)

the cell divides into two new cells.

c)

the cell's DNA is replicated.

d)

the cell's cytoplasm divides.

41.

During what stage of the cell cycle does replication occur?

a)

interphase

b)

cytokinesis

c)

prophase

d)

mitosis

42.

What happens during cytokinesis of an animal cell?

a)

Each organelle divides into two parts.

b)

A new round of mitosis begins.

c)

Two new daughter cells are formed.

d)

A cell plate forms.

43.

Chromatids are...

a)

identical daughter cells.

b)

doubled rods of condensed chromatin.

c)

pigments that absorb the energy in sunlight.

d)

identical strands of chromosomes.

44.

Cycle of growth and division that cells undergo is...

a)

replication

b)

the cell cycle.

c)

interphase.

d)

mitosis.

45.

At the end of prophase, each of the following happens except

a)

tighter coiling of the chromosomes.

b)

breaking down of the nuclear envelope

c)

disappearing of the nucleolus.

d)

chromosomes line up in the middle.

46.

The longest phase of the cell cycle is...

a)

prophase

b)

interphase

c)

metaphase

d)

mitosis

47.

The structures that become tightly packed during cell division and contain DNA are

a)

centromeres

b)

centrioles

c)

chromosomes

d)

spindle fibers

48.

Which stage of mitosis do the chromosomes line up the middle?

a)

anaphase

b)

metaphase

c)

prophase

d)

telophase

49.

Which stage of mitosis is visible here?

a)

anaphase

b)

prophase

c)

telophase

d)

metaphase

50.

Which stage is visible?

a)

anaphase

b)

prophase

c)

telophase

d)

metaphase

51.

What happens during cytokinesis?

a)

nuclear division

b)

DNA replicates

c)

cell grows

d)

cytoplasm divides

52.

Identify the stage.

a)

prophase

b)

anaphase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

53.

Chromatids are...

a)

identical daughter cells.

b)

doubled rods of condensed chromatin.

c)

pigments that absorb the energy in sunlight.

d)

identical strands of chromosomes.

54.

What is apoptosis?

a)

A cell passing a checkpoint.

b)

A cell pausing to fix something wrong with itself.

c)

cell death

d)

a part of the cell "pops" into place.

55.

What is the end result of Mitosis/cytokinesis?

a)

two genetically different daughter cells

b)

four identical daughter cells

c)

two identical daughter cells

d)

four genetically different daughter cells

56.

Cancer cells...

a)

divide too frequently

b)

are uncontrolled

c)

can metastasize (move) to other locations

d)

all of these.

57.
Cell division is represented by what letter?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
58.
A cell spends __% of its cycle in ____.
a)
100, interphase
b)
10, cytokinesis
c)
40, mitosis
d)
90, interphase
59.
Which of the following is correct?
a)
S phase, cell division
b)
M phase, cell growth
c)
G1 phase, DNA replication
d)
G2 phase, preparation for division
60.
Which of the following shows the correct order for mitosis
a)
Prophase, telophase, anaphase, metaphase
b)
telophase, metaphase, anaphase, prophase
c)
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
d)
prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase
61.
What stage is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
62.
What stage is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
63.
What stage is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
64.
What stage is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
65.
What is the role of the spindle during mitosis?
a)
it changes the chromatin to chromosome
b)
duplicate the DNA
c)
breaks down the membrane
d)
separates the chromatids.
66.
Which cells are more efficient at obtaining nutrients?
a)
Small Cells
b)
Medium Size Cells
c)
Large Cells
d)
X-Large Cells
67.
The absorption of nutrients is determined by...
a)
The cell's volume
b)
The cell's surface area
c)
The cell's ribosomes
d)
The cell's DNA
68.
The amount of nutrients needed is determined by...
a)
The cell's volume
b)
The cell's surface area
c)
The cell's Rough ER
d)
The cell's Smooth ER
69.
Which type of cell is easier to get Oxygen in and waste out?
a)
small cell
b)
large cell
70.
As a cell becomes larger, its
a)
surface area increases faster than its volume.
b)
volume increases faster than its surface area
71.
The larger a cell is, the more difficult it is for the cell to move enough nutrients and wastes across its cell membrane to maintain its normal functions.
a)
True
b)
False
72.
As a cell’s size increases, its ratio of surface area to volume decreases.
a)
True
b)
False
73.
Define Surface area
a)
The total area on the surface of an object
b)
Length X Width 
c)
6 X (length X width)
d)
Add up the sides and divide by 4
74.
The amount of space something takes up is called the.... 
a)
Surface area
b)
Perimeter 
c)
Volume
d)
Weight
75.
High Surface area to volume ratio allows cells to do what quickly?
a)
Move materials around inside the cell
b)
Move materials in and out of the cell 
c)
Communicate to other cells
d)
Divide
76.

Which of the following are reasons why cells need to divide?

a)

Growth

b)

Replace

c)

Repair

d)

Reproduction

77.

A cell has a volume of 64 units and total surface area of 96 units. What is the cell's surface area to volume ratio?

a)

1.5

b)

2.8

c)

3.4

d)

4.7

78.

A small cell has a ________ surface area to volume ratio than a larger cell.

a)

larger

b)

smaller

c)

equal

79.

The cell's surface area to volume ratio limits the size of a cell by limiting the transport of nutrients and gases into and out of the cell.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Which of the following is least efficient?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

81.

Which of the following has the largest surface area to volume ratio?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

82.
Histones are 
a)
proteins wound up in DNA
b)
critical to maintaining the shape of chromosomes
c)
aid in the tight packing of DNA
d)
all of these 
83.
Each identical side of a chromosome is the 
a)
centromere
b)
chromatin
c)
centriole
d)
chromatid
84.
When DNA is in its less coiled, "relaxed," state, between cell divisions, it is called
a)
autosomes
b)
chromatid
c)
chromatin
d)
centromere
85.
The structure that holds two chromosomes together until they separate for cell division is the
a)
chromatid
b)
chromatin
c)
centromere
d)
cytoplasm
86.

The disc shaped protein core that DNA wraps around is called

a)

histone

b)

nucleosome

c)

chromatin

d)

gene

87.

Chromosomes contain genetic information in the form of

a)

DNA

b)

histone

c)

centromere

d)

karyotypes

88.

A histone core with DNA wrapped around it is called a

a)

somatic cell

b)

gene

c)

centromere

d)

nucleosome

89.

A segment of DNA

a)

nucleosome

b)

gene

c)

histone

d)

chromatin

90.

Made of chromatin and become visible during cell division

a)

chromosomes

b)

histones

c)

mitochondria

d)

nucleosomes

91.

DNA stands for

(a)  

92.

Which of the following statements about chromosomes is correct?

a)

Chromosomes are long, thread-like structures

b)

Chromosomes are found in the nucleus of all cells in the human body

c)

Chromosomes contain DNA

d)

All of the above

93.

How many chromosomes are found in each cell of your body?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

40

d)

45

94.

What does DNA stand for?

a)

Deoxyribonucleic acid

b)

ribosenucleic acid

c)

Deoxyribose

d)

Nucleic acid

95.

How many pairs of chromosomes do human cells contain?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

16

d)

32

96.

What is a long coiled strand of DNA and proteins?

a)

gene

b)

RNA

c)

chromosome

d)

genome

97.

Where is DNA found in a human cell?

a)

ribosome

b)

nucleus

c)

cell membrane

d)

cytoplasm

98.
The twisted ladder shape of DNA is referred to as a ....
a)
Twizzler candy
b)
twisted ladder
c)
double helix
d)
yo mama
99.

From smallest to largest how would genetic information be organized?

a)

genes, cell, nucleus, chromosome, DNA

b)

chromosome, cell, gene, DNA, nucleus

c)

DNA/nucleotides, gene, chromosome, nucleus, cell

d)

nucleus, cell, gene, DNA, chromosome

100.

A _______ is an egg that has been fertilized by a sperm cell.

a)

gene

b)

chromosome

c)

zygote

d)

embryo

101.
What are the nucleotides made of?
a)
Sugar, Phosphate, nitrogen base
b)
Phosphate, Adenine, nitrogen base
c)
Thymine, Adenine, Cytomine
d)
Phosphate, Nitrogen, Adenine
102.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
103.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA? (This is the MONOMER of DNA.) 
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
104.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
105.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
106.
What are the 4 nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine
b)
adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine
c)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol
d)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
107.
Which 2 molecules forms the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose and adenine
b)
deoxyribose and a hydrogen bond
c)
sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate
108.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
109.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
110.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
111.
DNA holds the code for
a)
lipids
b)
carbohydrates
c)
protein
d)
sugar
112.

According to the Base Pair rule, Cytosine always pairs with

a)

Adenine

b)

Uracil

c)

Thymine

d)

Guanine

113.
Which of the following is not a nitrogen base found in DNA?
a)
Thymine
b)
Uracil 
c)
Guanine
d)
Adenine
114.
Name this structure
a)
double helix
b)
nucelotide
c)
amino acid
d)
protein
115.
Which shows the correct complementary base pairing for DNA?
a)
C-A, T-G
b)
A-G, C-T
c)
C-G, U-A
d)
T-A, G-C
116.

In a ________ mutation, a base is left out.

a)

substitution

b)

insertion

c)

deletion

117.

A _________________ is a cell organelle made of ribosomal RNA and protein.

a)

ribosome

b)

mitochondria

c)

nucleus

118.

In a(n) ____________________ mutation, an extra base is added.

a)

substitution

b)

insertion

c)

deletion

119.

When replication is complete, there are two _____________ DNA modules.

a)

identical

b)

different

c)

similar

120.

Who was the scientist who used X-rays to "take a picture" of DNA which was eventually used to figure out the structure of DNA?

a)

Rosalind Franklin

b)

Watson and Crick

c)

Maurice Wilkins

d)

Sherlock and Watson

121.

What is the name of the two scientists who used Rosalind Franklin's X-ray image to determine the double helix shape of DNA?

a)

Watson and Crick

b)

Watson and Franklin

c)

Crick and Franklin

d)

Sherlock and Watson

122.

DNA that codes for a specific protein is called a

a)

gene

b)

codon

c)

amino acid

d)

phenotype

123.

What does the arrow indicate on the DNA model?

a)

The bond between adjacent phosphate and deoxyribose molecules

b)

The junction of introns and exons in the sense strand of DNA

c)

The hydrogen bond between complementary nucleotides

d)

The junction of a codon and a DNA triplet

124.

What letter represents the part of the nucleotide that is the genetic code?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

None of the above

125.

3' AGGTCAGGT 5'

a)

5' AGGTCAGGT 3'

b)

5' ACCTCUGGT 3'

c)

5' TGGACTGGA 3'

d)

5' TCCAGTCCA 3'

126.

Which letter represents the phosphate group on the DNA strand?

a)

X

b)

Y

c)

W

d)

Z

127.

Which letter represents the deoxyribose sugar on the DNA strand?

a)

X

b)

Y

c)

W

d)

Z

128.
The enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
129.
Okazaki fragments form on the:
a)
lagging strand
b)
leading strand
c)
base-pairs
d)
5' end
130.
Which of the following is required for DNA replication to occur?
a)
DNA helicase
b)
DNA ligase
c)
DNA polymerase
d)
all of these
131.
During replication, what enzyme adds complimentary bases?
a)
helicase
b)
synthesase
c)
ligase
d)
polymerase
132.

Which enzyme is responsible for forming phosphodiester bonds between the Okazaki fragments?

a)

Ligase

b)

Helicase

c)

DNA Polymerase 1

d)

DNA Polymerase 3

133.

Which enzyme proofreads and removes RNA Primase

a)

Ligase

b)

Polymerase 1

c)

Polymerase 3

d)

Helicase

134.

Direction that DNA is replicated

a)

3' to 5'

b)

5' to 3'

135.
What strand is copied faster?
a)
Leading
b)
Lagging
136.

Structure C is

a)

helicase

b)

primase

c)

DNA polymerase III

d)

gyrase

137.

H is the

a)

leading strand

b)

lagging strand

c)

parent strand

d)

none of these

138.

Structure G is

a)

primase

b)

gyrase

c)

DNA polymerase III

d)

DNA polymerase I

139.

Replication is occurring AWAY FROM the replication fork on strand

a)

I, the leading strand

b)

I, the lagging strand

c)

H, the leading strand

d)

H, the lagging strand

140.

This structure is an Okazaki fragment.

a)

A

b)

D

c)

F

d)

G

141.

The picture below shows the steps of DNA replication beginning with step one and ending with step three.


​Because you are reusing the old, or parent, DNA strand DNA replication is said to be

a)

Semi- Conservative

b)

Semi-discontinuous

c)

Continuous

d)

Fully-Conserveative

142.

Which enzyme is responsible for adding the free nucleotides to the replicating DNA? ​

a)

DNA Helicase

b)

DNA Ligase

c)

DNA polyermase

d)

RNA Polymerase

143.

Which is the first step?

a)

DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA strand

b)

RNA Primase lays down RNA primer for new nucleotide bases.

c)

DNA polymerase builds new strands by bring in new nucleotide bases.

d)

Ligase knits together fragments on lagging strand

144.

Which is the second step?

a)

DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA strand

b)

RNA Primase lays down RNA primer for new nucleotide bases.

c)

DNA polymerase builds new strands by bring in new nucleotide bases.

d)

Ligase knits together fragments on lagging strand

145.

Which is the third step?

a)

DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA strand

b)

RNA Primase lays down RNA primer for new nucleotide bases.

c)

DNA polymerase builds new strands by bring in new nucleotide bases.

d)

Ligase knits together fragments on lagging strand

146.

Which is the fourth step?

a)

DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA strand

b)

RNA Primase lays down RNA primer for new nucleotide bases.

c)

DNA polymerase builds new strands by bring in new nucleotide bases.

d)

Ligase knits together fragments on lagging strand

147.

Which letter in the picture below depicts the leading strand in DNA replication?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

B

d)

None of the above

148.

If a person suffered from a disorder where their DNA fragments were unable to fill in the missing slots in between the fragments of the lagging strand, they would most likely have a disorder that affected which enzyme?

a)

DNA Helicase

b)

DNA Ligase

c)

DNA polyermase

d)

RNA Polymerase

149.

DNA replication runs from ______' to _____' and is said to be ______________________

a)

5, 3, antiparallel

b)

3, 5, antiparallel

c)

5, 3, parallel

d)

3, 5, parallel

150.

The directionality of DNA is said to be ___________, because it is side by side by goes in opposite directions.

a)

Anti-directional

b)

Parallel

c)

Anti-parallel

d)

Anti-uniform

151.
This scientist(s) found a "transforming principle" that changed harmless bacteria into harmful bacteria
a)
Mendel
b)
Avery
c)
Chargraff
d)
Griffith
152.
The scientist(s) who settled the debate about whether it was proteins or DNA that was the genetic material of the cell
a)
Avery
b)
Hershey & Chase
c)
Watson & Crick
d)
Griffith
153.
Scientist(s) who used chemical analysis to show that the genetic material in bacteria was DNA
a)
Griffith
b)
Hershey & Chase
c)
Mendel
d)
Avery
154.
This scientist(s) conducted experiments that involved injecting mice with S bacteria and R bacteria.
a)
Avery
b)
Griffith
c)
Watson & Crick
d)
Hershey & Chase
155.
The first scientist to perform multiple tests on the transforming principle, to determine if it was DNA or protein
a)
Griffith
b)
Chargraff
c)
Avery
d)
Hershey
156.
By using radioactive isotopes, Hershey and Chase were able to conclude that __ is/are the carrier(s) of genetic information.
a)
nucleic acid
b)
Proteins
c)
Carbohydrates
d)
Lipids
157.
Griffith discovered that
a)
DNA is different than RNA.
b)
adenine = thymine.
c)
bacteria can transfer DNA.
d)
DNA is the genetic molecule.
158.
Which two radioactive isotopes were used to label the DNA and protein components of viruses called bacteriophages?
a)
Nitrogen and Phosphorus
b)
Phosphorus and Sulfur
c)
Nitrogen and Sulfur
159.

In what process is mRNA synthesized?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

DNA Replication

d)

Mitosis

160.

Where does TRANSCRIPTION occur?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

161.

How many codons equals 1 amino acid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

162.

How many nucleotides equal 1 amino acid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

163.

TRANSCRIBE this DNA sequence: TACGTTACT

a)

AUGCAAUGA

b)

ATGCAATGA

c)

AUGGATUGA

d)

TACGTTACT

164.

Which of the following are differences in the structure between RNA and DNA

a)

DNA uses deoxyribose sugar, RNA uses sugar ribose

b)

DNA pairs Adenine with Uracil, RNA pairs Adenine with Thymine

c)

DNA is a double helix, RNA is a single helix

d)

DNA pairs Adenine with Thymine, RNA pairs Adenine with Uracil

165.

Which organelle is the location where protein is made?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

166.

When these bond together, they form a protein

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Peptide Bonds

c)

Ribose

d)

Nucleotides

167.
What is the term for a three-nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid?
a)
base
b)
codon
c)
amine
d)
serine
168.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
169.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
170.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
171.
Does the order of amino acids in a protein matter?
a)
YES!
b)
NO!
172.
How many base pairs would be needed to chain together 3 amino acids?
a)
3
b)
6
c)
9
d)
12
173.

What process is steps 1-3 referring to?

a)

DNA Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Nucleus

174.

What is 11. pointing to?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Ribosome

c)

mRNA

d)

Nucleus

175.

What is 2. pointing to?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Ribosome

c)

mRNA

d)

Nucleus

176.

What process is step 12 referring to?

a)

DNA Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Nucleus

177.

What does tRNA carry to the ribosome?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Codons

c)

Amino Acids

d)

None of the Above

178.

Where does TRANSCRIPTION occur?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

179.

Which of the following is a codon?

a)
b)

ATG

c)

AUG

d)

AUT

180.

On which molecule can an anticodon be found?

a)

mRNA

b)

DNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

181.

A polypeptide is a sequence of ____________________ held together by a ______________ bond.

a)

amino acids; peptide

b)

fatty acids; ionic

c)

proteins; hydrogen

d)

fatty acids; covalent

182.

How do you know when to begin translating a strand of mRNA?

a)

look for AUG

b)

start at the beginning

c)

look for ATG

d)

when the teacher says so!!!

183.

TRANSLATE this RNA sequence: AUGCAAUGA

a)

Met-Glu-Stop

b)

Met-His-Stop

c)

Thr-Glu-Stop

d)

Thr-Pro-Stop

184.
One human disease is caused by a change in one codon in a gene from GAA to GUA. The disease is a result of 
a)
a mutation
b)
crossing-over
c)
a meiosis error
d)
polyploidy
185.

Another name for a point mutation is:

a)

Substitution

b)

Frameshift

c)

Insertion

d)

Deletion

186.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Base Substitution
b)
Base Insertion
c)
Base Inversion
d)
Translocation
187.
ATTTGAGCC- Original
ATTGAGCC - Mutated
The example above is an example of a 
a)
Insertion- Frameshift
b)
Deletion- Substitution
c)
Deletion -Frameshift
d)
All of the above

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