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Biology Semester 2 Final (Raugewitz 2021-2022)

Total questions: 178

Worksheet time: 4hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Fats, oils, and cholesterol are all types of

a)

cell membranes.

b)

hormones.

c)

lipids.

d)

fatty acids.

2.

Proteins are composed of which molecules?

a)

Amino acids.

b)

Fatty acids.

c)

Monosaccharides.

d)

Nucleic acids.

3.

DNA and RNA are two types of

a)

carbohydrates.

b)

lipids.

c)

proteins.

d)

nucleic acids.

4.

Glycogen, cellulose, and starch are examples of which macro molecule?

a)

Carbohydrates.

b)

Proteins.

c)

Lipids.

d)

Nucleic Acids.

5.
Glucose (sugar) is an example of a
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipid
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic Acid
6.
Building blocks of the body, hair , muscles etc.
a)
protein
b)
nucleic acid
c)
lipids
d)
carbohydrates
7.
Attraction between molecules of the same substance
a)
Adhesion
b)
Cohesion
c)
Polarity
d)
Van der Waals forces
8.

Describe ADHESION.

a)

Water molecules attracted to other substances.

b)

Water molecules climbing upwards against the force of gravity.

c)

Water molecules dissolving many substances because of its polarity.

d)

Water molecules attracted to other water molecules.

9.

Molecules (like water) that have an uneven distribution of charges are known as _____.

a)

polar

b)

ions

c)

solvents

d)

non-polar

10.

Monomers are:

a)

single units of larger molecules linked together

b)

single sugars

c)

large molecules

11.

Macromolecule means:

a)

a very small molecule

b)

a double unit of a molecule

c)

a single unit of a molecule

d)

a very large molecule

12.

What is happening in this picture?

a)

an enzyme is binding a substrate together to form a product

b)

an enzyme is breaking down a substrate to release new products

c)

the active site of the enzyme does not fit the substrate

d)

a change in pH has damaged the enzyme

13.

This process assembles/makes organic molecules by removing a water molecule:

a)

dehydration synthesis

b)

hydrolysis

c)

phosphodiester bonding

d)

hydrogen bonding

14.
When you add water to a polymer to break it into monomers, the process is
a)
dehydration synthesis
b)
hydrolysis
15.
Based on the graph, what temperature does this enzyme work best? 
a)
15 C
b)
40 C
c)
30 C
16.
Letter D...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
17.
Enzymes are _________ that __________ chemical reactions.
a)
proteins, slow down
b)
proteins, speed up
c)
lipids, slow down
d)
lipids, speed up
18.
Organisms must be able to adapt to a changing external and internal environment.  An organism's ability to maintain a stable internal environment is known as homeostasis.  How does a cell's membrane help an organism maintain homeostasis?
a)
Cell membranes directly control the temperature of the cell.
b)
Cell membranes control the substances that enter or leave cells.
c)
Cell membranes use a large portion of the cell's energy supply.
d)
Cell membranes protect the cell organelles from large doses of radiation.
19.
Normal homeostatic conditions require potassium concentrations to be about 1000 times higher inside the cell than in the blood.
What mechanisms does a cell use to move these small potassium molecules into the cell against the concentration gradient?
a)
passive transport by osmosis
b)
passive transport by diffusion
c)
active transport by proteins
d)
active transport by endocytosis
20.
Which of the following types of passive transport involves water molecules moving from a high concentration to a low concentration?
a)
osmosis
b)
simple diffusion
c)
filtration
d)
facilitated diffusion
21.

Describe ADHESION.

a)

Water molecules attracted to other substances.

b)

Water molecules climbing upwards against the force of gravity.

c)

Water molecules dissolving many substances because of its polarity.

d)

Water molecules attracted to other water molecules.

22.
What type of transport is this?
a)
facilitated diffusion
b)
active transport
c)
diffusion
d)
osmosis
23.
What is this image?
a)
cell membrane
b)
mitochondria
c)
golgi apparatus
d)
endoplasmic reticulum
24.

When something is 'water fearing' it is....

a)

Hydrophobic

b)

Hydrophilic

c)

Hydroelectric

d)

Hydrochloric

25.
In which direction will these molecules diffuse?
a)
from right to left
b)
from left to right
c)
they will not move at all
d)
they will move in both directions equally
26.

The cell membrane is selectively permeable, which means...

a)

All materials can enter and leave the cell

b)

Certain things can enter and leave while others cannot

c)

The cell manually sorts through all materials

d)

Only certain cells can interact with the cell.

27.
When both inside and outside of a cell have the same amount of water it is said that the cell has reached a state of
a)
Osmosis
b)
Diffusion
c)
Equilibrium
28.

What type of solution will cause a cell to lose water and shrivel up (remember the egg) ?

a)

Hypotonic

b)

Isotonic

c)

Pure solution

d)

Hypertonic

29.

What is homeostasis?

a)

The process of making energy in a cell

b)

The process of maintaining an internal balance while responding to external changes

c)

The process of producing new and healthy cells

d)

The process of converting DNA code into proteins in a cell

30.
Gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide move across the cell membranes by:
a)
Endocytosis
b)
Ion Channels
c)
Diffusion
d)
Facilitated Diffusion
31.
ATP is 
a)
the cells usable form of chemical energy
b)
radiant energy
c)
your teachers intials
d)
glucose 
32.
Attractions between the negative Oxygen atom of one water molecule and the positive Hydrogen atom of another water molecule are called
a)
Covalent bonds
b)
Ionic bonds
c)
Polar bonds
d)
Hydrogen bonds
33.
Water is a universal solvent because it...
a)
It can be found anywhere
b)
It freezes when it gets cold
c)
floats when frozen
d)
Dissolves most substances
34.

The water molecule is a polar molecule. A water molecule is polar because

a)

The electrons are shared equally

b)

Oxygen has a stronger attraction for electrons than hydrogen

c)

It is very cold

d)

Hydrogen atoms have a stronger attraction for electrons than oxygen

35.

Refer to the picture; the insect is not falling through the water because of:

a)

surface tension

b)

capillary action

36.

Basic unit of all forms of life

a)

Cell

b)

Nucleus

c)

Prokaryote

d)

Eukaryote

37.

Cell organelle consisting of RNA and protein found throughout the cytoplasm in a cell; the site of protein synthesis

a)

Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Ribosome / Rough Endoplasmin reticulum

c)

Nucleus

d)

Nucleolus

38.

Organelle found in cells of plants and some other organisms that captures the energy from sunlight and converts it into chemical energy (photosynthesis).

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Lipid Bilayer

39.

What is the major difference between a prokaryote and a eukaryote?

a)

prokaryotes do not have a nucleus

b)

prokaryotes do not have ribosomes.

c)

prokaryotes do not have a cell membrane.

d)

prokaryotes do not contain DNA

40.
Directs all cell activities through the DNA located there.
a)
Lysosomes
b)
Nucleus
c)
ribosomes
d)
Mitochondria
41.
I am a protein packaging and shipping machine! Who am I?
a)
vacuole
b)
ribosome
c)
mitochondrion
d)
golgi apparatus
42.
You might think of me as the trash collector, but recycler is maybe more accurate. What am I?
a)
mitochondria
b)
lysosome
c)
vacuole
d)
ribosome
43.
What is the name of the genetic material that is inside the nucleus?
a)
ER
b)
ATP
c)
YOLO
d)
DNA
44.
What are tiny organelles that convert glucose into ATP?
a)
Ribosomes
b)
Vesicles
c)
Cytoskeleton
d)
Mitochondria
45.
A storage area for food, water and waste.
a)
vacuole
b)
chloroplasts
c)
cell wall
d)
cell membrane
46.
"Gatekeeper" It determines what can come in and out of the cell.
a)
cell wall
b)
cell membrane
c)
cytoplasm
d)
vacuole
47.

Two parents are carriers of a genetic disease. This means they are ____.

a)

homozygous

b)

homozygous dominant

c)

homozygous recessive

d)

heterozygous

48.

In the winter, the fur of this arctic fox will turn white. Is this due to genetics, the environment, or both?

a)

genetics

b)

environment

c)

both

49.

Many genes determine 1 trait (ex: skin color)

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Polygenic

c)

Codominance

d)

Multiple alleles

50.
I have 2 X chromosomes. What am I?
a)
Male
b)
Female
51.
I have 1 X chromosome and 1 Y chromosome. What am I?
a)
Male
b)
Female
52.

A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Co dominance with X-inactivation

c)

Independent assortment

d)

Recessive inheritance

53.
If a male has an affected x chromosome for a sex-linked trait such as colorblindness, where did he get the chromosome from?
a)
His father
b)
His mother
54.
Looking at this pedigree, how many female family members are carriers?
a)
1
b)
3
c)
10
d)
7
55.
Colorblindness is more common in males than in females because the allele for colorblindness is
a)
dominant and located on the X chromosome.
b)
recessive and located on the Y chromosome.
c)
recessive and located on the X chromosome.
d)
recessive and located on the Y chromosome.    
56.
How are Incomplete Dominance and Co Dominance different than a normal Mendelian cross?
a)
There is no difference
b)
The heterozygous genotype has a unique phenotype
c)
There is no heterozygous genotype
d)
There is only one phenotype regardless of genotype.
57.
If a gene is found only on the X chromosome and not the Y chromosome, it is said to be what?
a)
sex-linked trait
b)
polygenic trait
c)
codominant trait
d)
incomplete dominance trait
58.
Blood types are an example of co dominance and
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
sex linked traits
c)
multiple alleles
d)
polygenics
59.
Homozygous is when...
a)
the alleles are the same
b)
the alleles are different
c)
the alleles are absent
d)
the alleles are present
60.
What type of inheritance is shown?
a)
complete
b)
incomplete
c)
codominance
d)
sex-linked
61.
This is an example of ___________?
a)
Incomplete dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
62.
What you see, or the physical appearance.
a)
Genotype
b)
Phenotype
c)
Homozygous
d)
Heterozygous
63.
Aa, DD, bB, yy are all examples of
a)
genotypes
b)
phenotypes
64.

Weaker traits that can be hidden by others are called

a)

Inherited traits

b)

Environmental traits

c)

Dominant traits

d)

Recessive traits

65.

Traits that always overpower others are called

a)

Inherited traits

b)

Environmental traits

c)

Dominant traits

d)

Recessive traits

66.

Which is homozygous recessive?

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

d)

None of them

67.

Which is homozygous dominant?

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

d)

None of them

68.
How many boxes would say BB?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
4
d)
0
69.

What are punnett squares used for?

a)

Predicting the possible offspring of two parents

b)

Determining the alleles of a specific gene

c)

Identifying dominant and recessive traits

d)

Determining an individuals genotype

70.
G = green, g = yellow
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
all of the choices result in yellow
71.

How many chromosomes do humans have?

a)

12

b)

25

c)

46

d)

102

72.
Who is considered the "father of genetics"?
a)
Gregor Mendel
b)
Reginald Punnett
c)
James Watson
d)
Justin Bieber
73.
What allele combination should go in the missing box?
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
d)
none of these
74.
What are the 3 types of muscle tissue?
a)
Thigh, Calf, & Shoulder
b)
Traps, Forearm, & Abs
c)
Hamstring, Biceps, & Triceps
d)
Smooth Muscle, Cardiac Muscle, & Skeletal Muscle
75.
This picture shows how _____ connects bone to bone.
a)
tendon
b)
cartilage
c)
ligament
d)
tissue
76.
 Skeletal muscles always work in______.
a)
isolation
b)
pairs
c)
alone
d)
none of the above
77.

What is the correct order of urine flow through the urinary tract?

a)

Urethra, kidney, bladder, ureter

b)

Urethra, bladder, ureter, kidney

c)

Kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra

d)

Kidney, urethra, bladder, ureter

78.

Food moves down the esophagus by:

a)

Gravity

b)

Peristalsis

c)

Sphincter contraction

d)

Lacteal contration

79.

By the end of the digestive process...

a)

Starch has been changed into simple sugars

b)

Fats have been changed into fatty acids and glycerol

c)

Proteins have been changed into amino acids

d)

All of the above

80.

Which of the following best describes the acidity/basicity of pancreatic juice?

a)

Pancreatic juice needs to be acidic to neutralize the basic solution from the stomach.

b)

Pancreatic juice needs to be basic to neutralize the acidic solution from the stomach.

c)

Pancreatic juice needs to be basic to mix well with the basic solution from the stomach.

d)

Pancreatic juice needs to be acidic to mix well with the acidic solution from the stomach.

81.

The stomach continues the process of __________________ and ________________ digestion using its strong muscles and gastric acid.

a)

chemical and mechanical

b)

measuring and chemical

c)

mixing and mechanical

82.
Which organ in the digestive system absorbs the most water from food?
a)
esophagus
b)
small intestine
c)
large intestine
d)
stomach
83.
Food is changed in the stomach into a thin, watery liquid called _______.
a)
Peristalsis
b)
Villi
c)
Chyme
d)
Enzyme
84.
An _____is a type of protein that speeds up the rate of a chemical reaction in your body.
a)
Enzyme
b)
Fat
c)
Mineral
d)
Vitamin
85.
Two major branches of the nervous system
a)
central and peripheral
b)
peripheral and motor
c)
motor and sensory
d)
central and motor
86.
Major function of the nervous system
a)
movement
b)
sensation
c)
thought
d)
all of these
87.
The brain is part of the ____ nervous system.
a)
central
b)
peripheral
c)
motor
d)
internal
88.
The nerves in your fingertips are part of the ___ nervous system
a)
central
b)
peripheral
c)
internal
d)
cardiovascular
89.
Neurons send signals in the brain and body via...
a)
neurotransmitters only
b)
electrical impulses only
c)
wifi
d)
neurotransmitters AND electrical signals
90.
Which of the following delivers oxygen to cells?
a)
Red Blood cells
b)
White blood cells
c)
Platelets
d)
Plasma
91.

Which of the following are the blood vessels that have the thickest walls and carry blood away from the heart?

a)

Veins

b)

Arteries

c)

Capillaries

92.
What is the name of the circulation between the heart and lungs?
a)
Diastolic
b)
Systemic
c)
Pulmonary
d)
Coronary
93.
What is the name of the circulation between the heart and the body?
a)
Diastolic
b)
Systemic
c)
Pulmonary
d)
Coronary
94.
What is the function of a valve?
a)
Helps blood to clot
b)
Keeps blood flowing in all directions
c)
Keeps blood flowing in one direction
d)
Stops blood from flowing
95.

A blood vessel that carries blood back to the heart and is under low pressure.

a)

Cardiovascular System

b)

Heart

c)

Vein

d)

Artery

96.

What is function of the dome-shaped diaphragm muscle?

a)

This is where gas exchange happens.

b)

Air passes through the diaphragm on the way to the lungs.

c)

It attaches to the lribs and contracts and relaxes to help in breathing.

97.
The air sacs that are covered with capillaries where gas exchange takes place
a)
bronchi
b)
lungs
c)
oxygen
d)
alveoli
98.

The finger-like structures that line the small intestine and is where absorption of nutrients (protiens, carbs, fats) occurs?

a)

cilia

b)

villi

c)

hair

d)

amoeba

99.

What organs can you see in this picture?

a)

Heart

b)

Lungs

c)

Liver

d)

Small Intestines

e)

Large Intestines

100.

What are these organs? What system of the body are they part of?

a)

Liver

b)

Kidneys

c)

lungs

d)

respiratory

e)

excretory

101.

What organ is this? And what system of the body is it part of?

a)

Brain

b)

Large Intestines

c)

Small intestines

d)

Excretory

e)

Digestive

102.

What nutrients are absorbed here?

a)

protein

b)

carbohydrates

c)

vitamins & minerals

d)

water

e)

fats

103.

What organs do you see here>

a)

Liver

b)

Heart

c)

Lungs

d)

Kidney

e)

Stomach

104.

Here in the liver there is the teardrop shaped gland (green gland). What is it called, what does it hold, where does it deliver its contents?

a)

Pancreas, Saliva, Stomach

b)

Gall Bladder, Bile, Stomach

c)

Gall Bladder, Bile, Small Intestines

d)

Pancreas, Insulin, Stomach

e)

Gall Bladder, Saliva, Small Intestines

105.

What is the LARGER tube called?

What is the smaller tube called?

Where did they come from?

a)

Esophagus, Trachea, Phaynx

b)

Trachea, Esophagus, Phaynx

c)

Aorta, Vena Cava, Heart

d)

Pulmonary Artery, Vein, Lung

106.

Genetically modified food (or GM food) is food produced from plants or animals whose DNA has been altered through genetic engineering.

a)

True

b)

False

107.
All of the following are advantages of GMO's except
a)
pest resistant crops
b)
more nutritional foods
c)
unknown long term health effects
d)
creating more human insulin
108.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
109.

What is the first cloned mammal?

a)

goat

b)

cat

c)

sheep

d)

cow

110.
In cloning, what is the purpose of the surrogate mother? 
a)
Donate her DNA
b)
Donate her egg cell
c)
Incubate and carry the baby until birth
d)
Nothing.  She's useless.
111.
Stem cells are ____________________.
a)
cells that grow uncontrollably
b)
undifferentiated and can turn into any type of cell
c)
those that never go through cell division
d)
differentiated cells that do one job
112.

What does transgenic mean?

a)

An organism that can change its genes at will

b)

A stem cell that can differentiate into anything

c)

An organism that has had another species' DNA put in it

d)

A bacteria that reproduces asexually

113.

A special protein that targets a specific base sequence and cuts DNA into smaller fragments.

a)

PCR

b)

DNA Polymerase

c)

Helicase

d)

Restriction Enzyme

114.
DNA cutting "scissors" are
a)
Bacteriophages
b)
Restriction Enzymes
c)
DNA Enzymes
d)
Plasmids
115.
Which of the following is a circular DNA from bacteria that can hold a foreign gene?
a)
plasmid
b)
restriction enzyme
c)
ligase
d)
protein expression
116.
Which of the following terms describes the process of the uptake of recombinant plasmids into bacteria cells?
a)
rDNA technology
b)
transferrence
c)
transformation
d)
rDNA plasmid
117.

On which of the plates would you expect to have transformed bacterial colonies AND Gene expression of the GFP gene (they'll be glowing)?

a)

-DNA/Amp

b)

+DNA/Amp

c)

+DNA/Amp/Ara

118.
What are the 4 nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine
b)
adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine
c)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol
d)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
119.
Which shows the correct complementary base pairing for DNA?
a)
C-A, T-G
b)
A-G, C-T
c)
C-G, U-A
d)
T-A, G-C
120.

A cell structure that contains genetic information along strands of DNA.

a)

Allele

b)

Chromosome

c)

DNA

121.

On which plate would you find glowing transformed E. coli?

a)

-pGlo, -AMP

b)

-pGlo, + AMP

c)

+pGlo, +AMP

d)

+pGlo, +AMP + ara

122.

What is pGlo?

a)

A plasmid that dies in the presence of ampicillin

b)

A gene for green fluorescent protein (GFP)

c)

A plasmid with genes for GFP and ampicillin resistance

d)

A chemical that makes jelleyfish glow

123.

The purpose of the Petri dish with the p-Glo plasmid added and ampicillin is to...

a)

Fight off invading bacteria

b)

Identify transformed bacteria

c)

Kill all bacteria so the dish is sterile

d)

Destroy extra plasmids

124.

Why do you not add plasmid to the -pGlo tube?

a)

The plasmid was already added to the -pGlo tube before

b)

Instructions are wrong; you should add the plasmid in to the - tube

c)

The -pGlo tube is a control, with bacteria but no plasmid

125.

On which plate would you find bacteria most like the original non-transformed E. coli?

a)

-pGlo, -AMP

b)

-pGlo, + AMP

c)

+pGlo, +AMP

126.

What is the point of the heat shock and transformation solution?

a)

To kill bacteria we don't want

b)

To make the bacteria's membrane open so the pGlo can go in

c)

To heat the plasmid up so ligase will work

d)

To make the pGlo plasmid

127.

How often do you need a new sterile loop?

a)

You'll use the same one the entire lab

b)

You should switch every 5 minutes

c)

Use a new loop every time you touch new/different bacteria/plasmid

d)

It doesn't matter

128.

How many times do you put the tubes on ice, and for how long?

a)

Once for 5 min

b)

Twice for 5 min each

c)

Once for 10 min, a second time for 2 min

d)

5 min, then 2 min, then 5 min again

129.

How long should the tubes be in the 42oC water bath?

a)

30 seconds

b)

50 seconds

c)

60 seconds

d)

120 seconds

130.

How many of your plates will have the -pGlo bacteria on them?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

131.

On which plate would you find transformed E. coli?

a)

-pGlo, -AMP

b)

-pGlo, + AMP

c)

+pGlo, +AMP

132.

On which plate would you find glowing transformed E. coli?

a)

-pGlo, -AMP

b)

-pGlo, + AMP

c)

+pGlo, +AMP

d)

+pGlo, +AMP + ara

133.

On which plate would you find NOTHING growing?

a)

-pGlo, -AMP

b)

-pGlo, + AMP

c)

+pGlo, +AMP

d)

+pGlo, +AMP + ara

134.

What is LB?

a)

lab

b)

Label B

c)

broth / food

d)

antibiotics

135.

What is Amp?

a)

voltage unit

b)

to be hyper

c)

ampicillin

d)

amplitutde

136.

What is Ara?

a)

arabinose sugar

b)

arachnids

c)

arabic

d)

a clone

137.

What is used as a transformation solution?

a)

water

b)

antibiotics

c)

calcium chloride

d)

luria broth

138.

What is the name of this type of procedure?

a)

gel electrophoresis

b)

bacterial transformation

c)

cloning

d)

biotech

139.

What is LB?

a)

lab

b)

Label B

c)

broth / food

d)

antibiotics

140.

What is Amp?

a)

voltage unit

b)

to be hyper

c)

ampicillin

d)

amplitutde

141.

What is Ara?

a)

arabinose sugar

b)

arachnids

c)

arabic

d)

a clone

142.

What is the name of this type of procedure?

a)

gel electrophoresis

b)

bacterial transformation

c)

cloning

d)

biotech

143.
Which of the following sequences of processes correctly reflects the central dogma?
a)
protein synthesis, transcription, translation
b)
protein synthesis, translation, transcription
c)
transcription, translation, protein synthesis
d)
translation, transcription, protein synthesis
144.
What is the complimentary mRNA sequence to the DNA sequence A-T-T-G-C-A.
a)
T-A-A-C-G-T
b)
U-A-A-C-G-T
c)
U-A-A-C-G-U
d)
T-A-A-G-C-U
145.
Which defines a codon in DNA or mRNA?
a)
pair of nucleic acid and sugar
b)
pair of phosphate and sugar
c)
three-base code
d)
two-base code
146.
What mutation has occurred here? 
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift 
147.
Are all mutations bad?
a)
Yes
b)
No
148.
Any change in the sequence of DNA is...
a)
transgenic shift
b)
Single Genotype
c)
Monohybrid Trait
d)
Mutation
149.
DNA has a ______ strand; RNA has a ______ strand.
a)
double/double
b)
double/triple
c)
double/single
d)
single/single
150.
In RNA, the nitrogen base____ replaces ____ that was present in DNA. 
a)
A, U (adenine, uracil)
b)
C, G (cytosine, guanine)
c)
U, T (uracil, thymine)
d)
U, A (uracil, adenine)
151.
The "central dogma" states that genetic information flows from 
a)
Protein-->mRNA-->DNA
b)
Protein-->DNA-->mRNA
c)
mRNA-->DNA-->Protein
d)
DNA-->mRNA-->Protein
152.
Transcription takes place in the 
a)
cytoplasm
b)
ribosome
c)
mitochondrion
d)
nucleus
153.
Translation occurs in the
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
cytoplasm
d)
golgi apparatus
154.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
155.
The codon CCU codes for what amino acid?
a)
Isoleucine
b)
Stop
c)
Methionine
d)
Proline
156.

Organic compound made of amino acids that is responsible for cell specialization, gene expression, growth, repair and many critical cellular functions

a)

gene therapy

b)

protein

c)

codon

d)

amino acids

157.
What is does this image represent? 
a)
Mutation
b)
Translation 
c)
tRNA
d)
Transcription 
158.
How are mutations passed on to offspring?
a)
Any mutation that an organism acquires in its life can be passed on to the offspring through its gametes (sex cells)
b)
Only mutations that occur in the gametes can be passed on to the offspring
c)
Mutations are not usually passed on to the offspring. A mutation stays within the original organism.
d)
Mutations are not passed to offspring. They only occur within developing embryos.
159.

In the following structure, the circled item is a

a)

chromosome

b)

chromatid

c)

centromere

d)

chromatin

160.

Chromosomes that have the same sequence of genes and the same structure are ___________.

a)

homologous chromosomes

b)

alleles

c)

phenotypes

d)

genotypes

161.

Two identical copies of a single replicated chromosome that are connected by a centromere.

a)

Chromatin

b)

Homologous chromosomes

c)

Sister chromatid

d)

Centromere

162.

When an area of a chromatid is exchanged with the matching area on a chromatid of its homologous chromosome, _____ occurs.

a)

crossing over

b)

mutagenesis

c)

hybridization

d)

fertilization

163.

A threadlike structure of nucleic acids carrying genetic information in the form of genes.

a)

Chromosome

b)

Centremere

c)

Gene

d)

Sister Chromatid

164.

Unit of heredity which is transferred from a parent to offspring and is used to determine specific characteristics of the offspring.

a)

Gene

b)

Sister Chromatid

c)

Chromosome

d)

Crossing Over

165.

A two stage process that creates gametes by dividing the chromosomes in a diploid cell to create haploid gamete cells.

a)

Meiosis

b)

Mitosis

c)

Interphase

d)

Cell Cycle

166.

A cell that contains two copies of genetic material. Usually represented as 2n.

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

c)

Prokaryotic

d)

Bacteria

167.

A cell that contains only one copy of genetic material. Usually represented as n or 1n.

a)

Diploid

b)

Haploid

c)

Bacteria

d)

Prokaryotic

168.

Meiosis is a process that happens in organisms that reproduce ________________.

a)

asexually

b)

sexually

c)

binary fission

d)

fragmentation

169.

What two parts of meiosis create the genetic differences in the offspring of organisms that reproduce sexually.

a)

Crossing Over

b)

Independent Assortment

c)

Mitosis

d)

Cytokinesis

170.

The process of joining gametes.

a)

Fertilization

b)

Crossing Over

c)

Independent Assortment

d)

Mitosis

171.

When sperm (haploid) fertilizes this egg (haploid), the resulting cell is the ____________ (diploid).

a)

Zygote

b)

Egg

c)

Sperm

d)

Somatic Cell

172.

_____________ is a process that creates haploid gametes: _____________ is a process that creates identical diploid cells for growth, repair and maintaining homeostasis.

a)

Meiosis; Mitosis

b)

Mitosis: Meiosis

c)

Fertilization: Mitosis

d)

Mitosis: Independent Assortment

173.
If the Diploid number of Carrots is 18, the haploid number is
a)
18
b)
9
c)
27
d)
36
174.
What phase is represented?
a)
metaphase 1
b)
metaphase 2
c)
anaphase 1
d)
anaphase 2
175.
What process, and which type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
176.

At the end of mitosis you have _____ cells

a)

identical

b)

different

c)

identical twins

d)

variety

177.
This picture shows which process?
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
the cell cycle
178.
These parts of the brain are MOST important for maintaining homeostasis.
a)
cerebellum and frontal lobe
b)
hypothalamus and brain stem
c)
brain stem only
d)
cerebellum and hypothalamus

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