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Nutrition 2-6

Total questions: 148

Worksheet time: 1hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Carbohydrates are nutrients that are composed of the elements carbon, hydrogen, and

a)

oxygen

b)

nitrogen

c)

water

d)

glucose

2.

Carbohydrates play a major role in nutrition because they

a)

provide a long-term energy store

b)

are digested in the stomach

c)

help regulate body functions

d)

provide the body’s major source of energy

3.

Carbohydrates are stored as glycogen in the

a)

central nervous system and muscles

b)

heart and liver

c)

small intestine

d)

liver and muscles

4.

An example of a food that contains a fructose sugar is

a)

milk

b)

honey

c)

molasses

d)

corn

5.

Examples of the simple carbohydrates include

a)

glucose and galactose

b)

sucrose and starch

c)

lactose and lignin

d)

fructose and glycogen

6.

The sugar to which all other sugars are converted and the one that circulates in the blood to provide major fuel for the body’s cells is

a)

sucrose

b)

fructose

c)

glucose

d)

maltose

7.

Carbohydrates are quick energy foods because

a)

they do not take long to prepare and are readily available

b)

the human body can rapidly break them down to yield energy

c)

they are abundant in fast foods and can be readily absorbed

d)

they can yield more energy than other nutrients

8.

The carbohydrate form in which glucose is stored in the body is

a)

starch

b)

polysaccharide

c)

glycogen

d)

fructose

9.

Of the following, the best sources of dietary fiber are

a)

fruit and fruit juice

b)

rice and crackers

c)

iceberg

lettuce and tomato juice

d)

lentils and corn

10.

Types of dietary fiber include

a)

lactose, galactose, and maltose

b)

polysaccharides and polyols

c)

starch, ptyalin, and glucose

d)

cellulose, lignin, and noncellulose

11.

The recommended daily intake of dietary fiber for an adult woman is _____ g/day.

a)

15

b)

21

c)

25

d)

30

12.

A health professional is determining the caloric intake for a patient. Her caloric intake from fiber would be

a)

3.4 kcal/g.

b)

0 kcal/g.

c)

4 kcal/g.

d)

9 kcal/g.

13.

Wavelike contractions of the muscle fibers of the stomach and intestinal walls are called

a)

segmentation

b)

peristalsis

c)

metabolism

d)

digestion

14.

A basket of fruit contains ripe grapes, apples, and oranges as well as pears and peaches that are not quite ripe. The fruits with the highest amount of simple sugar include the

a)

pears and apples

b)

peaches and oranges

c)

grapes and apples

d)

peaches and pears

15.

An apple contains a type of soluble dietary fiber called

a)

lignin

b)

starch

c)

cellulose

d)

pectin

16.

Of the following, the food with the lowest carbohydrate content (as a percentage of weight) would be

a)

orange juice

b)

raisins

c)

whole milk

d)

dried beans

17.

Digestion of the starch component of a peanut butter sandwich begins in the

a)

mouth

b)

stomach

c)

small intestine

d)

liver

18.

A negative effect of sugar alcohols is that they

a)

contain more kilocalories than sugar

b)

can cause intoxication

c)

promote bacterial disease in the colon

d)

may cause diarrhea

19.

Once monosaccharides are absorbed into the intestinal bloodstream, they are transported to the

a)

cells

b)

liver

c)

heart

d)

brain

20.

A client has a goal of increasing fiber intake to 30 grams per day. Current intake reveals the following information: Breakfast intake is 3/4 cup sugary corn popped cereal, 1 cup skim milk, 1 slice white toast, and 1/2 cup orange juice. Lunch includes 2 ounces sliced turkey, 1 slice wheat bread, 1 tablespoon mayonnaise, 2 chocolate chip cookies, and 1 cup water. Dinner includes 4 ounces beef, 1/2 cup green beans, 3/4 cup instant mashed potatoes with butter, 1 biscuit, and 1 cup skim milk. As the nutrition expert counseling this patient, one appropriate recommendation might be to

a)

encourage whole-grain breads and cereals in place of white breads and cereals

b)

double the amount of proteins such as turkey and beef and eliminate sugar intake

c)

add 2 tablespoons of omega-3 fatty-acid enriched margarine to breads and potatoes

d)

make no changes because adequate fiber intake is present

21.

An example of a food low in carbohydrates is

a)

low-fat yogurt

b)

steak

c)

beans

d)

potatoes

22.

The major site or organ in the body for metabolic processing of carbohydrates is the

a)

intestine

b)

heart

c)

brain

d)

liver

23.

The digestion of milk yields the monosaccharides

a)

fructose and glucos

b)

galactose and glucose

c)

galactose and sucrose

d)

glucose and maltose

24.

A food that contains maltose is

a)

milk

b)

fruit

c)

molasses

d)

table sugar

25.

A molecule of glycogen is composed of hundreds of units of

a)

galactose

b)

glucose

c)

glucose, fructose, and galactose

d)

disaccharide

26.

Sufficient dietary carbohydrates prevent excess formation of

a)

ketones

b)

ammonia

c)

amino acids

d)

water

27.

A part of the body that depends on a constant supply of carbohydrate to function properly is the

a)

cardiopulmonary system

b)

urinogenital system

c)

central nervous system

d)

gastrointestinal system

28.

The number of kilocalories from carbohydrates in a baked potato that contains 40 g carbohydrate is _____ kcal

a)

40

b)

80

c)

160

d)

360

29.

A food that is a good source of fiber is

a)

oatmeal

b)

prune juice

c)

salmon

d)

cornstarch

30.

Which of the following carbohydrates provides the fastest source of energy?

a)

ground beef

b)

cranberry juice

c)

whole-grain cereal

d)

milk

31.

The functions of fat in the body include

a)

enzyme production, insulation of long bones, and bone structure

b)

formation of bone structure and energy for daily activities

c)

flavoring low-fat foods, supplying fatty acids, and lubrication for vital organs

d)

insulation of vital organs, temperature regulation, and cell membrane structure

32.

The number of kilocalories from fat in a meal that contains 35 g fat is

a)

35

b)

140

c)

315

d)

350

33.

The recommended total calories provided by fat in an 1800-calorie diet should not exceed

a)

180 calories

b)

270 calories

c)

630 calories

d)

720 calories

34.

An element not found in triglycerides is

a)

carbon

b)

hydrogen

c)

nitrogen

d)

oxygen

35.

Triglycerides are composed of

a)

glycerol and amino acids

b)

trans-fatty acids

c)

hydrogenated fatty acids

d)

glycerol and fatty acids

36.

The chemical feature that distinguishes a saturated fatty acid from an unsaturated fatty acid is the

a)

amount of water it contains

b)

amount of cholesterol it contains

c)

source

d)

amount of hydrogen it contains

37.

An example of a food that contains a high level of saturated fatty acids is

a)

beefsteak

b)

olive oil

c)

green tomatoes

d)

whole-grain bread

38.

Of the following fats, the one that is least saturated is

a)

safflower oil

b)

coconut oil

c)

olive oil

d)

butter oil

39.

Most fatty acids in plant foods are

a)

monounsaturated

b)

polyunsaturated

c)

unsaturated

d)

saturated

40.

A patient is concerned with her weight. Her energy intake is calculated to be 1600 calories. Intake records reveal that her fat intake for the past month has been 120 calories or less per day. The most appropriate intervention would be to

a)

assess for essential fatty acid deficiency

b)

continue to monitor for changes

c)

continue current meal plan

d)

draw lab work immediately

41.

The body needs linoleic acid for

a)

digestion of food

b)

protein metabolism

c)

fluid balance

d)

blood clotting

42.

The best food choice to provide alpha-linolenic acid is

a)

strawberries

b)

canola oil.

c)

raisin toast

d)

lard

43.

The process of adding hydrogen to fatty acids is called

a)

hydrolysis

b)

hydrogenation

c)

emulsification

d)

hydration

44.

A change brought about as the result of hydrogenation is that

a)

liquid fats become solids

b)

fats become less saturated

c)

monoglycerides become diglycerides

d)

vitamins are destroyed

45.

An example of a food that does not contain cholesterol is

a)

liver

b)

sausage

c)

cheese

d)

coconut

46.

Cholesterol is synthesized by the body mainly in the

a)

intestine

b)

liver

c)

adipose tissue

d)

skin

47.

After a dietary assessment is completed, it reveals that a client consumes 50% of his or her daily calories from fat. This amount of fat places the client at risk for

a)

obesity, arthritis, and elevated blood pressure

b)

obesity, elevated blood fats, and diabetes

c)

elevated blood pressure, diabetes, and allergies.

d)

diabetes, dementia, and stroke

48.

Factors that increase the risk of heart disease include

a)

a family history of cancer

b)

increased stress and obesity

c)

anemia and low thyroid levels

d)

gallbladder disease

49.

After eating a dinner of fried chicken, gravy, and mashed potatoes, chemical digestion of the fat component primarily takes place in the

a)

mouth

b)

stomach

c)

small intestine

d)

large intestine

50.

The substances that serve as the major vehicles for fat transport in the bloodstream are

a)

micelles

b)

glycolipids

c)

chylomicrons

d)

bile salts

51.

The hormone responsible for stimulating the gallbladder to contract and release bile into the small intestine is

a)

gastric lipase

b)

cholecystokinin

c)

enteric lipase

d)

enterokinin

52.

End products of fat digestion do not include

a)

fatty acids

b)

glycerol

c)

diglycerides

d)

monosaccharides

53.

An important function of bile is to

a)

digest triglycerides

b)

activate the intestinal lipases

c)

break fat into smaller particles

d)

split fatty acids into two-carbon molecules

54.

A type of fat that may be associated with a high risk of atherosclerosis if consumed on a regular basis is

a)

olive oil

b)

safflower oil

c)

fish oil

d)

butter

55.

Fat substitutes are used in food products to

a)

reduce the cost of popular foods

b)

reduce the trans-fatty acid content of the food

c)

prolong the shelf life of the food

d)

improve the flavor and physical texture of low-fat foods

56.

The greatest number of kilocalories is provided by

a)

40 g carbohydrates

b)

30 g fat

c)

60 g carbohydrates

d)

50 g protein

57.

A food relatively high in saturated fat is

a)

corn oil

b)

peanut oil

c)

avocado oil

d)

margarine

58.

In a diet that contains 50 g fat and a total of 1500 kcal, the proportion of total kilocalories from fat is

a)

3%

b)

13%

c)

30%

d)

33%

59.

A good source of monounsaturated fat is

a)

fish

b)

margarine

c)

avocado

d)

tofu

60.

Proteins are built from simpler organic compounds called

a)

indispensable amino acids

b)

amino acids

c)

fatty acids

d)

monosaccharides

61.

The element that is contained in proteins but not in carbohydrates or lipids is

a)

carbon

b)

hydrogen

c)

nitrogen

d)

oxygen

62.

Two types of protein in the body are _____ protein and _____ protein.

a)

complete, incomplete

b)

animal, vegetable

c)

dispensable, indispensable

d)

tissue, plasma

63.

The number of amino acids that are indispensable for human beings is

a)

6

b)

9

c)

11

d)

14

64.

What is the food that is the best source of indispensable amino acids?

a)

Black beans

b)

Peanuts

c)

Safflower oil

d)

Turkey

65.

A protein that contains all indispensable amino acids in the correct proportion and ratio is

a)

a simple protein

b)

an incomplete protein

c)

a complete protein

d)

an indispensable protein

66.

The number of kilocalories from protein in a sandwich that contains 24 g protein is _____ kcal.

a)

6

b)

96

c)

120

d)

216

67.

An animal protein that has relatively little value as a dietary protein source when eaten alone is

a)

an egg

b)

gelatin

c)

milk

d)

fish

68.

Proteins from plant sources that are classified as incomplete include

a)

wheat, peanuts, and corn

b)

milk, nuts, and cheese

c)

oats, gelatin, and soybeans

d)

corn, chicken, and milk

69.

The primary function of protein in the diet is to supply

a)

energy for growth and development

b)

insulation for vital organs

c)

material for growth and maintenance

d)

all 20 amino acids for heart maintenance

70.

Protein plays an important role in the body

a)

as the first source of energy fuel

b)

in the conversion of glucose to glycogen for storage

c)

as a coenzyme needed for energy utilization

d)

in defense against disease and infection

71.

After a piece of grilled chicken is partially digested in the stomach, it eventually reaches the small intestine, where it is digested by which of the following enzymes secreted by the pancreas?

a)

Chymotrypsin, trypsin, and carboxypeptidase

b)

Chymotrypsin, pepsin, and trypsin

c)

Sucrase, pepsin, and carboxypeptidase

d)

Lactase, chymotrypsin, and carboxypeptidase

72.

Proteins are mostly absorbed as

a)

fatty acids

b)

disaccharides

c)

amino acids

d)

polypeptides

73.

Pepsinogen secreted by the gastric cells is converted into pepsin by

a)

food in the stomach

b)

hydrochloric acid.

c)

gastric lipase

d)

pancreatic lipase

74.

Protein catabolism is increased in conditions such as

a)

pregnancy

b)

childhood

c)

puberty

d)

illness

75.

The phase of metabolism that makes growth and repair possible is

a)

digestion

b)

catabolism

c)

anabolism

d)

homeostasis

76.

A gastric enzyme that coagulates the protein in milk and is produced by infants but not by adults is

a)

hydrochloric acid

b)

pepsinogen

c)

trypsin

d)

rennin

77.

A protein-digesting enzyme found in the stomach rather than in pancreatic secretions is

a)

trypsin

b)

pepsin

c)

chymotrypsin

d)

carboxypeptidase

78.

The enzyme trypsin is activated by the enzyme

a)

zymogen

b)

bile

c)

gastrin

d)

enterokinase

79.

The enzymes aminopeptidase and dipeptidase are secreted by the

a)

mouth

b)

stomach

c)

small intestine

d)

pancreas

80.

Complementary proteins

a)

provide higher quality protein when eaten together

b)

enhance each other’s metabolic actions

c)

are more easily absorbed.

d)

taste good together

81.

In the mouth, protein foods are

a)

broken down to amino acids

b)

broken up mechanically by chewing

c)

broken down to peptides

d)

coagulated by rennin

82.

The meal with the highest quality protein is

a)

an omelet with cheese, whole wheat toast, and orange juice

b)

a stir fry with chicken, green beans, and carrots

c)

a stuffed turkey breast, peas, and a baked potato

d)

a bean burrito, corn on the cob, and a tomato salad

83.

Which of the following conditions might result in the greatest catabolism?

a)

Growth

b)

Multiple trauma with extensive organ damage

c)

Rehabilitation after routine gallbladder surgery

d)

Healing a broken bone in the arm

84.

If the excretion of nitrogen exceeds the nitrogen intake, the condition is called

a)

total nitrogen balance

b)

positive nitrogen balance

c)

negative nitrogen balance

d)

anabolism

85.

The grams of high-quality protein required daily for an individual who weighs 170 lb and is close to ideal body weight would be _____ g.

a)

45.2

b)

55.3

c)

61.8

d)

94.0

86.

In planning a vegetarian meal, an appropriate combination of complementary proteins would be

a)

cornmeal tamales and beans

b)

lentils and beans

c)

bean sprouts and cabbage

d)

whole wheat and rice

87.

A client weighs 130 lbs. She is close to her desirable body weight and consumes a total of 40 g of protein/day. The most appropriate nutritional counseling would be to

a)

increase her protein intake

b)

maintain her current protein intake

c)

decrease her protein intake

d)

increase her use of complementary proteins

88.

Very high intakes of animal protein may lead to

a)

increased body weight and blood lipid levels

b)

increased muscle mass and strength

c)

decreased body weight and blood lipid levels

d)

muscle atrophy and weakness

89.

The process of digestion involves

a)

thermal and chemical actions

b)

chemical and metabolic actions

c)

mechanical and chemical actions

d)

mechanical and thermal actions

90.

The rhythmic contractions of the stomach and intestine that propel food along are called

a)

segmentation

b)

peristalsis

c)

cardiospasm

d)

pendular movements

91.

An example of a gastric secretion is

a)

intestinal lipase.

b)

pancreatic amylase.

c)

bile

d)

hydrochloric acid

92.

A pizza slice is being consumed by a hungry teen. The first actions of biting, chewing, and breaking up the slice into smaller particles are called

a)

peristalsis.

b)

segmentation.

c)

pendular movements.

d)

mastication

93.

A food that begins chemical digestion in the mouth is

a)

chicken

b)

yogurt

c)

candy

d)

bread

94.

After ingested food is mixed and churned with gastric secretions, the semifluid mass is called

a)

chyle

b)

chyme

c)

renin

d)

bolus

95.

One type of movement in the small intestine is

a)

mastication

b)

segmentation

c)

kinetic propulsion.

d)

expulsion

96.

Compared with the pH in the stomach, the pH in the small intestine is

a)

lower

b)

higher

c)

the same

d)

neutral

97.

The enzyme that would be most important for digesting a skinless chicken breast would be

a)

sucrase

b)

lipase

c)

peptidase

d)

bile

98.

A food that is high in a macronutrient broken down by trypsin is

a)

bread

b)

fruit

c)

margarine

d)

fish

99.

The lining of the stomach and intestine is protected from strong acid by

a)

pepsinogen

b)

bile

c)

mucus

d)

the presence of food

100.

The hormone that stimulates the pancreas to release its secretions is

a)

gastrin

b)

enterogastrone

c)

cholecystokinin

d)

secretin

101.

A meal consisting of country-fried steak, carrots, and a baked potato with butter and sour cream would stimulate the hormone cholecystokinin because of the

a)

presence of food in the duodenum

b)

presence of fat in the duodenum

c)

entry of the acidic chyme into the duodenum

d)

entry of bile into the duodenum

102.

After eating fried chicken, the resulting products from the digestion of fat include

a)

glycerol and fatty acids.

b)

glucose

and fatty acids

c)

amino acids and dipeptides

d)

cholesterol and glycerol

103.

A means of absorption that occurs in the small intestine is

a)

exchange

b)

pinocytosis

c)

filtration

d)

electrochemical transport

104.

After absorption, the end products of carbohydrate and protein digestion enter the

a)

lacteal.

b)

bile duct

c)

blood system

d)

bowel

105.

The primary nutritional function of the large intestine is the

a)

absorption of fats

b)

absorption of water

c)

excretion of waste products

d)

completion of the digestive process

106.

A child with phenylketonuria should avoid drinking ]

a)

diet beverages sweetened with aspartame

b)

beverages sweetened with high-fructose corn syrup

c)

coffee and other caffeinated beverages

d)

fluoridated drinking water

107.

Gas formation in the colon is the result of the

a)

ingestion of certain foods.

b)

ingestion of too much water

c)

inadequate ingestion of fiber

d)

bacterial action on undigested items

108.

After digestion, fatty materials are absorbed into the

a)

bloodstream

b)

outer skin

c)

colon

d)

lacteals

109.

Dietary fiber is beneficial because it

a)

is high in nutrients.

b)

is readily digested.

c)

adds bulk to feces

d)

absorbs excess nutrients

110.

The sum of all the chemical changes that an organism performs to maintain its life and produce energy is called

a)

metabolism

b)

digestion

c)

absorption

d)

respiration

111.

Bile contains

a)

hormones

b)

enzymes

c)

plasma

d)

emulsifiers

112.

Two organs that work with the small intestine in digestion are the

a)

liver and kidneys

b)

stomach and large intestine

c)

pancreas and liver

d)

large intestine and colon

113.

Conversion of amino acids to glucose is called

a)

metabolism

b)

glycogenosis

c)

gluconeogenesis

d)

catabolism

114.

The surface of the intestinal wall has mucosal folds, villi, and microvilli to

a)

aid in peristalsis

b)

increase the surface area for absorption

c)

decrease the surface area for absorption

d)

increase the number of enzyme-secreting cells

115.

Ways to minimize formation of stomach gas include =

a)

avoiding caffeine

b)

chewing with your mouth open

c)

drinking liquids through a straw

d)

not gulping

116.

A beverage that may cause intestinal gas in adults is

a)

milk

b)

coffee

c)

apple juice

d)

cola.

117.

Ms. J. complains of gas and bloating along with abdominal pain, especially after drinking milk or eating ice cream or cheese. She may have

a)

lactose intolerance

b)

phenylalanine intolerance

c)

a calcium deficiency

d)

a vitamin D deficiency

118.

Which of the following foods would require peptidases to assist in its chemical digestion?

a)

Chicken

b)

A banana

c)

Orange juice

d)

Margarine

119.

What is a nutrient that does not provide energy for the body?

a)

A carbohydrate

b)

a vitamin

c)

a protein

d)

fat

120.

Energy is lost from the body as

a)

heat

b)

urine

c)

sweat

d)

far

121.

The unit of measurement used to refer to the amount of energy in food is the

a)

watt

b)

kilogram

c)

milligram

d)

kilocalorie

122.

The total number of kilocalories in a snack that contains 10 g carbohydrate, 2 g protein, and 5 g fat is _____ kcal.

a)

17

b)

68

c)

93

d)

153

123.

Which of the following represents an external energy cycle?

a)

The moon

b)

Growing plants

c)

Crystals

d)

Metabolism

124.

After foods are eaten, they are converted into which of the following body fuels?

a)

Amino acids and fatty acids

b)

Fatty

acids and glucose

c)

Glucose and triglycerides

d)

Glycogen and glucose

125.

The metabolic rate would increase significantly with a body temperature of

a)

97.4 F

b)

98.4 F

c)

98.6 F

d)

101.2 F

126.

The amount of energy the body needs to maintain life while at digestive, physical, and emotional rest is called

a)

the basal metabolic rate

b)

indirect calorimetry.

c)

the respiratory quotient

d)

total energy expenditure

127.

Metabolically active tissues in the body include

a)

the heart, kidneys, and liver

b)

the brain, nerves, and hair

c)

the liver, kidney, fingernails, and toenails

d)

all body tissues

128.

Indirect calorimetry is used to measure

a)

basal or resting energy expenditure

b)

the thermic effect of food.

c)

energy expended in physical activity

d)

body mass index

129.

The term for the effect of food intake on the metabolic rate is

a)

the thermic effect of food.

b)

the resting metabolic rate

c)

the total energy requirement

d)

indirect calorimetry

130.

The sum of basal metabolism, energy expended in physical activity, and the thermic effect of food is known

a)

the metabolic rate

b)

energy intake

c)

basal energy needs

d)

the total energy requirement

131.

When energy intake exceeds energy expenditure, the result can be

a)

anorexia

b)

malnutrition

c)

weight gain

d)

hyperactivity

132.

An activity that results in increased energy expenditure is

a)

cleaning the house

b)

balancing a checkbook

c)

experiencing emotional stress

d)

playing video games

133.

The thermic effect of food refers to the fact that

a)

all nutrients contain calories

b)

certain foods are more stimulating than others to the gastrointestinal tract

c)

the presence of food in the stomach starts the process of digestion

d)

the process of digestion, absorption, and metabolism of food requires energy

134.

The body’s sources of stored energy include

a)

glucose

b)

adipose tissue

c)

undigested food

d)

bone

135.

The basal metabolic rate is controlled by the hormone

a)

cortisol

b)

growth hormone

c)

thyroxine

d)

insulin

136.

The first source of stored energy to be used during a period of fasting is

a)

amino acids

b)

glycogen

c)

adipose tissue.

d)

glucose

137.

Which of the following foods has the greatest caloric density?

a)

A banana

b)

Bread

c)

Nuts

d)

Milk

138.

Nutrient density means the

a)

total weight of the nutrients in a food

b)

digestibility of the nutrients in a food.

c)

concentration of energy in a given amount of food

d)

concentration of nutrients in a given amount of food

139.

The liver and muscles store enough glycogen to last

a)

4 to 6 hours

b)

6 to 24 hours

c)

12 to 48 hours

d)

24 to 72 hours

140.

In cases of extreme starvation, the energy substrate used as a last resort would be

a)

glycogen

b)

muscle mass

c)

adipose tissue

d)

bone mass

141.

Fever increases the basal metabolic rate by approximately

a)

1% for each 1° F increase

b)

7% for each 1° C increase

c)

1% for each 7° F increase

d)

7% for each 1° F increase

142.

Energy expenditure is increased by

a)

physical exercise

b)

mental work.

c)

stress

d)

fatigue

143.

Energy needs per pound of body weight

a)

increase with age

b)

increase throughout childhood

c)

decrease

with age

d)

are greater in women than in men

144.

A 75-year-old man’s energy intake should focus on meals

a)

high in calories with nutrient-dense foods

b)

low in calories and high in fiber and meat

c)

with lower energy density and high nutrient density

d)

high in energy, vitamins, and minerals

145.

Resting energy expenditure is

a)

slightly higher than basal energy expenditures

b)

slightly lower than basal energy expenditure

c)

the same as basal energy expenditure

d)

more accurate for predicting energy needs than is basal energy expenditure

146.

Mr. Jones normally has a basal metabolic rate of 1500 kcal. He develops a fever of 100.6° F. His rate would now be approximately _____ kcal.

a)

1550

b)

1600

c)

1710

d)

1830

147.

The person requiring the highest energy needs per unit of body weight is a

a)

15-year-old boy

b)

45-year-old man

c)

75-year-old grandmother

d)

7-year-old girl

148.

The estimated daily basal metabolic rate for a man who weighs 150 lb is _____ kcal.

a)

1500

b)

1575

c)

1636

d)

1686