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Human Biology PASS Exam Buster 2022

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the smallest level of structural complexity in the human body?

a)

Tissues

b)

Atoms

c)

Organs

d)

Molecules

2.

A patient comes into hospital with signs of cirrhosis and a history of chronic alcohol abuse. Using the nine (9) abdominopelvic regional scheme, in what region is the right lobe of the liver situated?

a)

Right lumbar region

b)

Right hypochondriac region

c)

Hypogastric region

d)

Right iliac region

3.

Which of the following responses is controlled by positive feedback?

a)

Blood sugar levels

b)

Inflammatory response

c)

Breathing rate

d)

Body temperature

4.

Which of the following is an example of a symptom felt by a patient?

a)

Rash

b)

Fever

c)

Nausea

d)

Redness of skin

5.

A person who just received a large knock on the head is placed face-up, flat on the floor (on their back) with a blanket over their legs. They are said to be in the

a)

Supine position

b)

Prone position

c)

Semi-prone position

d)

Unconscious position

6.

Which of the following statements regarding medical imaging is incorrect?

a)

MRI can be used on patients with metal implants in the body

b)

Sonography is safe, invasive and painless

c)

PET scans measure cell activity and metabolism

d)

Both a and b are incorrect

7.

The fluid mosaic model describes the plasma membrane as consisting of:

a)

Two layers of phospholipids with protein sandwiched between them

b)

A phospholipid bilayer with proteins bound only to the outside by covalent bonds

c)

A phospholipid single layer with embedded proteins

d)

A phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins

8.

Which one of the following process could result in the net movement of a substance into a cell, if the substance is more concentrated in the cell than in the surroundings?

a)

Active transport

b)

Osmosis

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

None of the above are correct

9.

The bursting of cells due to osmosis occurs in a _____________ solution.

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypertonic

c)

Hypotonic

d)

Aqueous

10.

Which of the following acts as the digestive system inside a cell, helps to break down old or unneeded parts of the cell, and substances that have been brought into the cell from the outside?

a)

Centriole

b)

Ribosome

c)

Lysosome

d)

Cytochrome

11.

Which one of the following cells, tissues or structures is not considered as a connective tissue?

a)

An erythrocyte

b)

An intervertebral disc

c)

Patella

d)

Myocardium

12.

Epithelium that appears layered due to the varying levels at which nuclei are found in cells, but in reality, is not layered, is ____________.

a)

Transitional epithelium

b)

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

c)

Stratified squamous epithelium

d)

Simple columnar epithelium

13.

The cells that directly and specifically secrete mucus are called ___________ cells.

a)

Epithelial

b)

Endocrine

c)

Exocrine

d)

Goblet

14.

A communicating junction that allows ions and small molecules to pass from the cytoplasm of one cell to the cytoplasm of the next is called a:

a)

Desmosome

b)

Gap junction

c)

Tight junction

d)

Hemidesmosome

15.

Where do epithelial cells usually receive nutrients from?

a)

Underlying tissues

b)

Cerebrospinal fluid

c)

Goblet cells

d)

Endocrine glands

16.

What type of epithelial cell is found in the bladder?

a)

Stratified squamous epithelium

b)

Simple cuboidal epithelium

c)

Transitional epithelium

d)

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

17.

Which of the following epithelial cells are present in blood vessels?

a)

Simple cuboidal epithelium

b)

Simple squamous epithelium

c)

Stratified squamous epithelium

d)

Transitional epithelium

18.

Which of the following attach cells to each other?

a)

Tight junctions

b)

Connexins

c)

Hemidesmosomes

d)

Cadherins

19.

Under which tissue classification do blood cells fall under?

a)

Nervous

b)

Epithelial

c)

Connective

d)

Muscular

20.

Which of these are a basic function of the skin?

a)

Provide a physical and chemical barrier

b)

Maintain body temperature

c)

Vitamin D synthesis

d)

All of the above

21.

What do Langerhans' cells do?

a)

Present antigens to the immune system

b)

Produce fibrous intermediate filament proteins

c)

Secrete pigment

d)

Provide structure to the rest of the tissue

22.

Which best describes the stratum corneum?

a)

The spiny layer

b)

The granular layer

c)

The horny layer

d)

The clear layer

23.

In what type of skin is stratum lucidum found?

a)

Thin skin

b)

Thick skin

c)

All skin types

d)

No skin types

24.

Which two layers make up the dermis?

a)

Papillary – loose connective tissue and dermal papillae; and reticular – dense connective tissue and elastin

b)

Reticular – loose connective tissue and dermal papillae; and papillary – dense connective tissue and elastin

c)

Elastic – dense connective tissue and elastin; and papillary – loose connective tissue and dermal papillae

d)

Reticular – dense connective tissue and elastin; and areolar – loose connective tissue and dermal papillae

25.

What are the distinguishing features of eccrine sweat glands?

a)

Secretes ‘true’ sweat via ducts that lead to pores in the skin

b)

Located on palms of hands, soles of feet and forehead

c)

Both of the above

d)

None of the above

26.

Where is the yellow bone marrow found in a long bone?

a)

Diaphysis

b)

Medullary cavity

c)

Epiphysis

d)

Periosteum

27.

Why do collagen fibres run in different directions in each lamella?

a)

To resist torsion

b)

To resist tension

c)

To increase flexibility

d)

To decrease rigidity

28.

Cartilage consists of:

a)

Collagen and elastin fibres

b)

Fibral fibres, elastin fibres and chondroitin sulphate

c)

Fibral fibres, collagen fibres and chondroitin sulphate

d)

Collagen fibres, elastin fibres and chondroitin sulphate

29.

What joint structure’s purpose is to provide strength and support?

a)

A tight junction

b)

Cartilage

c)

Fibrous connective tissue

d)

A synovial joint

30.

What type of joint connects the fibula and tibia in the ankle?

a)

Gomphosis (fibrous joint)

b)

Syndesmosis (fibrous joint)

c)

Symphyses (cartilaginous joint)

d)

Synchondroses (cartilaginous joint)

31.

What is a bursa?

a)

A section of protective cartilage

b)

The end of a long bone which is encased in cartilage

c)

The membrane surrounding the articular cartilage

d)

A bag of lubricant which rests between surfaces to reduce friction

32.

The shoulder joint has what kind of mobility?

a)

Synarthroses

b)

Diarthroses

c)

Amphiarthroses

d)

Synchondroses

33.

What is the function of fibrous connective tissue?

a)

Cushioning

b)

Strength and flexibility

c)

Strength and support

d)

Lubrication of joint

34.

Which of the following is an example of an ellipsoid joint?

a)

Neck

b)

Shoulder

c)

Wrist

d)

Thumb

35.

Which type of muscle tissue can be found in the stomach?

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Stomach muscle

c)

Cardiac muscle

d)

Smooth muscle

36.

Troponin and tropomyosin are examples of what kind of protein?

a)

Contractile

b)

Regulatory

c)

Structural

d)

Sarcomere

37.

What is the name of the membrane that surrounds each fascicle in skeletal muscles?

a)

Epimysium

b)

Endomysium

c)

Perimysium

d)

Sarcomysium

38.

How many ventricles are there in the brain?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

39.

The parietal lobe

a)

Contains the primary motor cortex

b)

Contains the primary sensory cortex

c)

Contains the primary vision centre

d)

Contains the primary olfactory centre

40.

The occipital lobe of the brain controls which function?

a)

Eyesight

b)

Auditory

c)

Memory

d)

Emotional expression

41.

The area of the brain that regulates posture and balance (i.e. walking and arm-swing) is the

a)

Limbic system

b)

Cerebrum

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Thalamus

42.

Which of the following is a function of the medulla oblongata?

a)

The control of the posterior pituitary gland

b)

The control of the vomit and cough reflexes

c)

The regulation of body temperature

d)

The regulation of water balance and thirst sensation

43.

The subarachnoid space is found between

a)

Arachnoid mater and pia mater

b)

Dura mater and skull bone

c)

Pia mater and the cerebrum surface

d)

None of the above

44.

Which type of response are pupil and airway constriction?

a)

Central

b)

Somatic

c)

Sympathetic

d)

Parasympathetic

45.

A humeral stimulus for hormone release is caused by:

a)

Nervous input

b)

The release of a different hormone

c)

Changes in the level of a certain substance in the blood

d)

A good joke

46.

The posterior pituitary gland secretes

a)

Oxytocin

b)

hGH

c)

TSH

d)

ACTH

47.

The pancreas is an:

a)

Endocrine gland

b)

Exocrine gland

c)

Both of the above

d)

None of the above

48.

Which of the following are not found in the gastric glands?

a)

Chief cells

b)

Goblet cells

c)

Parietal cells

d)

Enteroendocrine cells

49.

Hyperthyroidism has all the following characteristics except...

a)

Increased metabolic rate

b)

Decreased heart rate

c)

Sweating

d)

Weight loss

50.

The parathyroid hormone stimulates the...

a)

Osteoblasts

b)

Osteocytes

c)

Osteoclasts

d)

Osteogenesis

51.

The corticosteroids include hydrocortisone. Its purpose is to...

a)

decrease inflammatory response

b)

control blood pressure by increasing sodium re-absorption from the kidneys

c)

play a role in onset of puberty

d)

none of the above

52.

Steroid hormones...

a)

Are water soluble

b)

Act on receptors in the plasma membrane that initiate signalling cascades

c)

Act on receptors inside the cell that directly promote transcription

d)

Both a & b

53.

The production of red blood cells is controlled by:

a)

Erythropoiesis

b)

Leukopoiesis

c)

Thrombopoiesis

d)

Periaqueductal Gray

54.

What is the life span of an RBC?

a)

240 days

b)

120 days

c)

65 days

d)

120 hours

55.

T-lymphocytes mature in the __________, while B-lymphocytes mature in the ________.

a)

Yellow bone marrow; red bone marrow

b)

Thyroid follicles; bone marrow

c)

Bone marrow; thymus

d)

Thymus; bone marrow

56.

When do the AV valves close during the cardiac cycle?

a)

When pressure inside the ventricles is at its lowest

b)

When pressure inside the atria is greater than that inside the ventricles

c)

When ventricular pressure exceeds that of the atria

d)

When pressure is greater in the aorta than in the left ventricle

57.

Which is not a type of capillary?

a)

Continuous

b)

Fenestrated

c)

Sinusoid

d)

Valvular

58.

The T wave represents

a)

Atrial depolarisation

b)

Atrial repolarisation

c)

Ventricular depolarisation

d)

Ventricular repolarisation

59.

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of flow of an electrical impulse through the heart?

a)

SA node -> Bundle of His -> AV node -> Right and left bundle branches -> Purkinje fibres

b)

SA node -> AV node -> Purkinje fibres -> Bundle of His -> Right and left bundle branches

c)

SA node -> AV node -> Bundle of His -> Right and left bundle branches -> Purkinje fibres

d)

AV node -> SA node -> Bundle of His -> Right and left bundle branches -> Purkinje fibres

60.

Arteries:

a)

Use valves

b)

Have a thicker tunica media

c)

Have a smaller lumen

d)

Are not elastic

61.

Freshly oxygenated blood enters the heart through the __________, and is pumped out through the __________.

a)

Right atrium; aorta

b)

Left atrium; aorta

c)

Right ventricle; pulmonary arteries

d)

Left ventricle; pulmonary veins

62.

The layer of the heart that forms a smooth, protective lining inside of the heart chambers and valves is the __________.

a)

Endocardium

b)

Myocardium

c)

Epicardium

d)

Pericardial sac

63.

Which is not a function of the spleen?

a)

Blood reservoir

b)

Immune surveillance

c)

Synthesise erythrocytes

d)

Store platelets

64.

Large groups of lymphatic nodules in the mucosa of the gastrointestinal, respiratory, genital, and urinary tracts are collectively called:

a)

MALT

b)

Peyer Patches

c)

Germinal centres

d)

Mucosal lymph nodes

65.

The germinal centres in lymph nodes mainly contain:

a)

Macrophages

b)

Proliferating B cells

c)

T lymphocytes

d)

All of the above

66.

Diapedesis involves

a)

Movement of leukocytes through a capillary wall to the inflamed tissue

b)

Activation of ‘defensin’ proteins to destroy bacteria

c)

Chemical attraction to the site of injury

d)

Release of chemicals that result in vasodilation

67.

Which is not an effect of an antigen-antibody complex?

a)

Agglutination

b)

Cell lysis

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Proliferation

68.

Which type of immunity is developed after receiving the influenza vaccine?

a)

Naturally acquired passive immunity

b)

Artificially acquired passive immunity

c)

Naturally acquired active immunity

d)

Artificially acquired active immunity

69.

Humoral immunity is a type of adaptive immunity that results in the circulation of which of the following throughout the blood?

a)

Antigens

b)

Natural killer cells

c)

Antibodies

d)

Macrophages

70.

Which of the following is not one of the three main antigen-presenting cell types?

a)

Natural killer cells

b)

Dendritic cells

c)

B lymphocytes

d)

Macrophages

71.

Which of the following is not a benefit of fever?

a)

Increases metabolic rate

b)

Speeds up repair processes

c)

Decreases metabolic rate

d)

Liver and spleen sequester Fe and Zn

72.

Activated B cells divide into memory B cells and ________.

a)

Antibodies

b)

Platelets

c)

Antigens

d)

Plasma cells

73.

Which of the following is not an example of an internal defence?

a)

Mucous membranes

b)

Phagocytes

c)

Inflammation

d)

Fever

74.

Which of the following is a role of T helper cells?

a)

Bind to T cells and releases costimulatory signals to complete T cell activation

b)

Moderate immune response

c)

Destroy abnormal/virus infected cells

d)

Bind to dendritic cells and stimulate them to express costimulatory molecules

75.

The respiratory zone consists of:

a)

Respiratory passageways, respiratory bronchioles, and alveoli

b)

Respiratory passageways, alveolar ducts, and alveoli

c)

Respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli

d)

Terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, and alveoli

76.

Which of the following is a function of the larynx?

a)

Provide a patent airway

b)

Switching mechanism to route air and food

c)

Voice production

d)

All of the above

77.

The left lung is made of __________ lobes, and the right lung is made of __________ lobes.

a)

2; 2

b)

2; 3

c)

3; 2

d)

3; 3

78.

Which of the following does not form part of the respiratory membrane?

a)

Type II alveolar cells

b)

Wall of capillary

c)

Basement membrane

d)

Type I alveolar cells

79.

What is the main method of transport used to move carbon dioxide throughout the bloodstream?

a)

Bound to haemoglobin

b)

As soluble bicarbonate ions

c)

Simply dissolved in plasma

d)

Bound to red blood cells

80.

Respiration is controlled mainly by the:

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Corpus Callosum

c)

Brain Stem

d)

All of the aboe

81.

Which organ produces an alkaline substance that aids in fat digestion?

a)

Stomach

b)

Gallbladder

c)

Liver

d)

Appendix

82.

Brush-border cells are located in the ____________, and function to _____________?

a)

Villus of the large intestine; absorb and digest nutrients

b)

Villus of the small intestine; absorb and digest nutrients

c)

Villus of the large intestine; secretes lysozyme

d)

Villus of the small intestine; secretes lysozyme

83.

The major layers of the GIT are, in order of innermost to outermost:

a)

Serosa, mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa

b)

Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa

c)

Submucosa, mucosa, serosa, muscularis externa

d)

Muscularis externa, mucosa, submucosa, serosa

84.

The purpose of saliva is to:

a)

Clean the mouth

b)

Dissolve food particles so they can be tasted

c)

Prevent overgrowth of harmful bacteria

d)

All of the above

85.

What substance do chief cells in the gastric glands secrete?

a)

Hydrochloric acid

b)

Gastrin

c)

Pepsinogen

d)

Mucus

86.

What type of capillaries is present in the glomerulus?

a)

Fenestrated capillaries

b)

Sinusoid capillaries

c)

Continuous capillaries

d)

None of the above

87.

What is the function of the renal pelvis?

a)

Filter blood

b)

Collect urine

c)

Re-absorb essential components into blood

d)

Excrete non-essential components out of blood

88.

Which structure of the nephron allows for predominately water reabsorption?

a)

Proximal convoluted tubule

b)

Distal convoluted tubule

c)

Descending limb of nephron loop

d)

Ascending limb of nephron loop

89.

Antidiuretic hormone:

a)

Regulates water permeability within collecting ducts

b)

Is released by the anterior pituitary gland

c)

Causes less water to be reabsorbed into the blood

d)

All of the above

90.

The structure that is continuous with the renal pelvis and conveys urine to the bladder is called the:

a)

Urethra

b)

Ureter

c)

Major calyx

d)

Urinary duct

91.

Which of the following anatomical portions of a nephron connects the Bowman’s capsule to the loop of Henle?

a)

Distal convoluted tubulue

b)

Connecting tubule

c)

Proximal convoluted tubule

d)

Collecting duct

92.

Which portion of the brain is mainly responsible for thermoregulation?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Thalamus

c)

Cerebral cortex

d)

Medulla oblongata

93.

What is considered the major agent of heat transfer between the core and surface?

a)

Lymph

b)

Connective tissue

c)

Skeletal muscles

d)

Blood

94.

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding heat exhaustion?

a)

Sweating and blood flow to the periphery are reduced

b)

Associated with vigorous exercise and/or exposure to high environmental temperatures

c)

Elevated core body temperature (37.5-39oC)

d)

Heat-loss mechanisms are functional

95.

Where are peripheral thermoreceptors located?

a)

Blood vessels

b)

Spinal cord

c)

Skin

d)

Hypothalamus

96.

What is convection?

a)

Transfer of heat from one object to another by the movement of a medium (liquid or gas).

b)

The transfer of heat from one object to another through direct contact.

c)

Heat loss via electromagnetic radiation.

d)

Conversion of a liquid to a gas

97.

What is the main mechanism by which muscles affect thermoregulation?

a)

Erector pili muscles make hair stand up

b)

Shivering increases body temperature

c)

Muscles do not help regulate body temperature

d)

Shivering decreases body temperature

98.

Which behaviour leads to an increase of heat loss?

a)

Increasing physical activity

b)

Sheltering from the wind

c)

Reducing surface area

d)

Removing clothing

99.

Which two body systems regulate feedback mechanisms?

a)

Skeletal and muscular

b)

Skeletal and endocrine

c)

Endocrine and nervous

d)

Muscular and nervous

100.

The heat transfer mechanism that occurs between the sun and the outer layer of the skin is called what?

a)

Radiation

b)

Conduction

c)

Convection

d)

Evaporation