wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

REVISION UPS 2 CHAPTER 3-6 SB025

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The best word to describe about natural selection that helps an organism survive in its environment is 

a)

Camouflage

b)

Adaptation

c)

Mutation

d)

Evolution

2.

In directional selection, the curve of the population after selection will

a)

Shift to the selection pressure

b)

Shift to the favored phenotype

c)

Shift to the unfavored phenotype

d)

Shift to the left and right

3.

Choose the CORRECT explanation

a)

Stabilizing selection promotes genetic variability as both extreme phenotypes are eliminated

b)

Disruptive selection promotes genetic variability as both extreme phenotypes are favored

c)

Stabilizing and disruptive selection will reduce genetic variability

d)

Directional selection reduce genetic variability as both extreme phenotypes are eliminated

4.

Artificial selection is also known as

a)

Genetic manipulation

b)

Selective hearing

c)

Selective breeding

d)

Random selection

5.

What is means by "survival of the fittest"?

a)

Being the strongest

b)

Being the smartest

c)

Being able to survive and produce offspring

d)

Being able to collect as much resources as possible

6.
A flash flood carried a raft of Amazon ants away from their original population. There is enough distance between the two groups, that they will never meet in nature again. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
temporal isolation 
c)
gametic isolation
d)
geographic isolation 
7.
The genitalia of the male damselfly varies in shape. Certain males can only hold onto & mate with females whose genitalia fit.  What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
temporal isolation 
c)
gametic isolation
d)
mechanical isolation 
8.
Some female peacocks prefer males with large, colorful tales while other female peacocks prefer males with no tail at all. Females are beginning to only mate with the type of males with the tail they prefer. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
hybrid sterility 
c)
temporal isolation
d)
mechanical isolation 
9.
The flowers of pink tulips open in the morning, while the flowers of lavender tulips open in the early afternoon. The bees that pollinate these tulips cannot carry pollen back & forth between the two types of tulips because of their flowers being closed at different times of day. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
hybrid sterility 
c)
temporal isolation
d)
mechanical isolation 
10.
The term for the formation of new and distinct species over the course of evolution is...
a)
speciation
b)
biological species concept
c)
reproductive barrier
d)
natural selection
11.
What is a species? 
a)
A group of organisms that can mate with each other and produce fertile offspring. 
b)
A group of organisms that can mate and produce offspring even if those offspring are infertile.
c)
A group of organisms that genetically are very different from each other. 
d)
Indivual organisms that live in the same environment. 
12.

The Western Skunk mates in the fall and the Eastern Skunk mates in the spring. This is a type of

a)

prezygotic barrier

b)

postzygotic barrier

c)

allopatric barrier

d)

polyploidy

13.

A study shows that the average mortality rate among infants who are less heavy and very heavy is high. Which is true of this type of selection?

a)

Elimination

b)

Directional

c)

Disruptive

d)

Stabilising

14.

Which statements about a population undergoing disruptive selection are true?


I A group of extreme phenotypes is selected.

II Individuals with intermediate phenotypes are the fewest in numbers.

III Human birth weight displays disruptive selection.

IV Reduce genetic variability.

a)

I and III only

b)

I and II only

c)

II and III only

d)

III and IV only

15.

The occurrence of large beaks and small beaks in the absence of medium-sized beaks in finches is an example of

a)

directional selection

b)

the founder effect

c)

disruptive selection

d)

adaptive radiation

16.

Which factors are involved as prezygotic reproductive barriers?


I Gametic isolation

II Temporal isolation

III Hybrid breakdown

IV Reduced hybrid viability

a)

I and II

b)

I and IV

c)

II and III

d)

III and IV

17.

Genetic drift occurs when a few individuals of a species colonized an isolated area. This particular phenomenon is known as

a)

the founder effect

b)

habitat isolation

c)

random mating

d)

the bottleneck effect

18.

X is a species of fish in a river. After a dam is constructed, individuals of species X upstream are separated from the individuals downstream. Gradually, the individuals in the upstream become a new species. This type of speciation is known as

a)

allopatric

b)

sympatric

c)

inbreeding

d)

outbreeding

19.

Which of the following is NOT associated with speciation?

a)

Reproductive isolation

b)

Genetic drift

c)

Adaptive radiation

d)

Inbreeding

20.

A few individuals from a population of butterflies in a forest migrate to another forest somedistance away and reproduce. The frequency of allele in this new population is different from that of the original population. A situation where the allele frequencies change due to the migration of a small subgroup of a population is known as

a)

Mendelian effect

b)

founder effect

c)

bottleneck effect

d)

habitat isolation

21.

How can temporal isolation lead to speciation?

a)

The courtship display and mating rituals by one sex is not recognized by the other.

b)

The two populations have different genitalia which prevents successful copulation.

c)

The two populations reproduce at different times, making them unlikely to reproduce with each other which may cause them to become separate species.

d)

Two populations are separated by geographical barrier, preventing members of the two population from reproducing with one other, which may cause them to become separate species.

22.

Populations of squirrels living in area north of the Grand Canyon do not mate with the squirrels in the south. They are isolated by a

a)

sympatric barrier

b)

geographical barrier

c)

genetic barrier

d)

mechanical barrier

23.

Which of the following is the best definition of species?

a)

A group of organisms that lives in the same habitat

b)

A group o organisms that exploit the same ecological niche

c)

A group of organisms that can interbreed and produce viable and fertile offspring

d)

A group of organisms that have the same appearance

24.

Different finch populations lived on separate islands with different environments. They evolved to best adapt to those particular environments and can no longer mate. What type of speciation is this?

a)

Allopatric

b)

Sympatric

c)

Temporal

d)

Mechanical

25.
Scientist have created larger and sweeter strawberries for humans to consume (eat). What process was used?
a)
Natural Selection 
b)
Artificial Selection 
c)
Cellular Respiration 
d)
Environmental Natural Selection 
26.

Monomer of enzymes are...

a)

nucleic acids

b)

proteins

c)

lipids

d)

carbohydrates

27.

A holoenzyme consist of...

More than ONE answer.

a)

Substrate

b)

Inhibitor

c)

Cofactor

d)

Apoenzyme

28.

Which of the following are factor that caused the denaturation of enzyme?

More than ONE answer.

a)

Extreme pH

b)

Competitive inhibitor

c)

Heavy metal effects

d)

High temperature

29.
Where do substrates bind on an enzyme?
a)
voltage-gated channels
b)
surface receptor
c)
calcium channels
d)
active site
30.

The enzyme increase the rate of reaction by

a)

Shifting the position of equilibrium of the reaction.

b)

Increasing the rate of random collisions of molecule.

c)

Lowering the activation energy.

d)

Supplying the energy required to start the reaction.

31.

What happens to the enzyme when its denatured?

a)

The activation energy is lowered.

b)

The conformational shape of the enzyme molecule is changed.

c)

The activation energy is doubled.

d)

The optimal temperature for enzyme action is doubled.

32.

Active site of maltase only for maltose as its reactant. This statement is refer to enzyme is _______.

a)

fragile

b)

reusable

c)

specific

d)

catalyst

33.

Only protease can catalyses the breakdown of protein. This shows that enzyme

a)

is a biological catalyst

b)

is highly specific in action

c)

able to speed up chemical reaction

d)

may catalyses reversibly

34.

These enzymes bring about oxidation and reduction reactions .

a)

reductases

b)

dehydrogenases

c)

oxidases

d)

oxidoreductases

35.

Which class of enzyme catalyses the formation of bonds between two molecules using energy derived from the breakdown of ATP?

a)

Oxidoreductases

b)

Hydrolases

c)

Ligases

d)

Transferases

36.

What happens when enzymes are heated at high extreme temperature?

a)

The enzymes die.

b)

The shapes of the enzyme are altered denature

c)

The enzymes' amino acid sequence changes.

d)

The enzymes remain the same

37.

The pH at which an enzyme is most efficient is called the _________ pH of an enzyme.

a)

neutral

b)

optimum

c)

minimum

d)

experimental

38.

What are the enzymes called when they are at high temperature or extreme pH?

a)

denatured

b)

Killed

c)

inactive

d)

normal

39.

Which statement explains the increase in the rate of reaction at the beginning of an enzymatic reaction when the substrates concentration is increased?

a)

More substrates bind to the enzyme

b)

The speed of substrate movement increase

c)

The active sites of the enzyme are saturated

d)

The affinity of the enzyme towards the substrate increases

40.

The protein part of an enzyme that binds to prosthetic group to form a functional enzyme is called

a)

holoenzyme

b)

apoenzyme

c)

coenzyme

d)

conjugated protein

41.

Which of the following is TRUE about competitive inhibitors?

a)

Have same shape with the substrate.

b)

Compete for the same allosteric site.

c)

Have similar shape with the substrate.

d)

Example is isoleucine.

42.

Which of the following is TRUE about non-competitive inhibitors?

More than ONE answer.

a)

Have not similar shape with the substrate.

b)

Compete for the same allosteric site.

c)

Have similar shape with the substrate.

d)

Bind to the allosteric site.

43.

Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is CORRECT?

a)

Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of substrate.

b)

Competitive inhibition is seen a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an inhibitor protein.

c)

Non-competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme.

d)

Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme.

44.

What is the function of an enzyme?

a)

enzymes involve directly in catalytic reaction

b)

enzymes slow down chemical reactions

c)

enzymes speed up chemical reactions

d)

enzymes combine products to form reactants

45.

What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?

a)

the enzymes will destroy

b)

The conformation of active site of the enzyme will change

c)

The enzymes' amino acid sequence changes.

d)

the conformation of enzyme will change

46.

Which best describe an enzyme?

a)

it is globular protein

b)

act as biological catalyst

c)

its monomer is amino acid

d)

speed up a chemical reaction

47.

Only protease can catalyses the breakdown of protein. This shows that enzyme

a)

is a biological catalyst

b)

is highly specific in action

c)

able to speed up chemical reaction

d)

may catalyses reversibly

48.

In the diagram, what is letter A?

a)

subsrate -enzyme complex

b)

substrate

c)

enzyme-substrate complex

d)

active site

49.
Based on the graph, what is the optimal temperature for this enzyme? 
a)
15oC
b)
40oC
c)
30oC
d)
35oC
50.

Enzyme that catalyses the transfer of functional group of atoms from one molecule to another. This enzyme is

a)

Isomerases

b)

Transferases

c)

Oxidoreductase

d)

Lyases

51.

The area that the substrate fits into on the enzyme is called the:

a)

Active Site

b)

Allosteric Site

c)

Binding site

d)

Activation site

52.

When a molecule can occupy the same active site as the substrate, a situation called __________________

a)

Competitive lnhibition

b)

Allosteric Regulation

c)

Non-Competitive Inhibition

d)

Feedback Inhibition

53.

Molecules that bind to enzymes and enhance an enzyme's ability are called:

a)

Coenzyme

b)

Cofactor

c)

Apoenzyme

d)

Holoenzyme

54.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
55.

Which of the following is TRUE about ATP.

(more than ONE answer)

a)

Each molecule of ATP consist of nitrogenous base, Adenine

b)

Each molecule of ATP consist of three phosphate group

c)

ATP will be hydrolyzed when organism need energy

d)

ATP will be synthesized through phosphorylation

56.

Fermentation regenerates what substance so glycolysis can continue to occur?

a)

ATP

b)

FAD

c)

NAD+

d)

FADH2

57.

What type of fermentation occurs in most organisms, including animals?

a)

Aerobic

b)

Alcoholic

c)

Citric Acid

d)

Lactic Acid

58.

What is the correct order for aerobic cellular respiration?

a)

glycolysis-->ETC--> Krebs Cycle

b)

ETC-->glycolysis-->Krebs Cycle

c)

glycolysis-->Krebs Cycle-->ETC

d)

Krebs Cycle-->glycolysis-->ETC

59.
The purpose of cellular respiration is to 
a)
make water
b)
make ATP
c)
make glucose
d)
make  oxygen
60.

In cellular respiration, redox reaction is occur when ________

(more than ONE answer)

a)

Oxygen is reduced to water

b)

Oxygen is oxidized to water

c)

Glucose is oxidized to carbon dioxide

d)

Glucose is reduced to carbon dioxide

61.

During the process of reduction, _________________

a)

Hydrogen are lost.

b)

Oxygen are gained.

c)

electrons are lost.

d)

electrons are gained

62.

Which of the following is NOT of metabolic process in aerobic respiration?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Krebs cycle

c)

Link reaction

d)

Oxidative phosphorylation

63.

State type of ATP production in Glycolysis.

a)

Phosphorylation

b)

Energy payoff phase

c)

Oxidative phosphorylation

d)

Substrate level phosphorylation

64.
Where does glycolysis take place in cells?
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Mitochondrion
c)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
d)
Ribosomes
65.
Glycolysis results in the net gain of:
a)
2 ATP
b)
4 ATP
c)
4 NADH
d)
2 Acetyl CoA
66.
Glycolysis results in the total production of:
a)
2 ATP
b)
4 ATP
c)
4 NADH
d)
2 Acetyl CoA
67.
Which is not part of the net products of Glycolysis?
a)
2 ATP
b)
2 NADH
c)
2 Pyruvate
d)
2 CO2
68.
In the final step of glycolysis ATP is made through the process of:
a)
Substrate Level Phosphorylation
b)
Oxidative Phosphorylation
c)
Photo-Phosphorylation
d)
RedOx Reactions
69.

How many C atoms does acetyl CoA contain?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

70.

The products of the link reaction are

a)

pyruvate and carbon dioxide

b)

carbon dioxide and co-enzyme A

c)

carbon dioxide, acetyl coA and NADH

d)

NADH and carbon dioxide

71.

Krebs cycle takes place in the:

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Mitochondrial Matrix

c)

Ribsome

d)

InterMembrane Space

72.

The number of ATP molecules produced out of Krebs cycle for 1 molecule of glucose is:

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

0

73.

How many NADH molecules are produced in the Krebs cycle for 1 molecule of glucose?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

6

74.

At the end of aerobic respiration, how many ATPs produced per 1 molecule of glucose?

a)

32

b)

34

c)

36

d)

38

75.

Where does oxidative phosphorylation take place?

a)

Cytosol

b)

Matrix of mitochondria

c)

Innermembrane of mitochondria

d)

Intermembrane space of mitochondria

76.

The electrons that are transferred through the electron transport chain initially belonged to

a)

NADH

b)

FADH2

c)

NADH and FADH2

d)

Oxygen

77.

Which of the following is an electron donor for succinate dehydrogenase in electron transport chain?

a)

NAD+

b)

FADH2

c)

NADH

d)

FAD

78.

As electrons travel down the electron transport chain, they release

a)

ADP

b)

Energy

c)

ATP

d)

Hydrogen ion

79.

In chemiosmosis, how many ATPs produced per 1 molecule of glucose through oxidative phosphorylation?

a)

30

b)

32

c)

34

d)

36

80.
The process carried out by yeast that causes bread to rise is
a)

alcohol fermentation

b)
lactic acid fermentation
c)
cellular respiration
d)
yeast mitosis
81.

Which phrase best describes the main role of fermentation?

a)

converts glucose into pyruvate and

NADH

b)

produces lactic acid to counteract an

oxygen deficit

c)

allows glycolysis to continue making a

small amount of ATP

d)

allowing anaerobic production of ADP

82.

Why does a runner breathe hard for a few minutes after finishing a race?

a)

The runner's cells need oxygen to make lactic acid.

b)

The runner's cells continue the fermentation process.

c)

The runner's cells are making up for an oxygen deficit

d)

The runner's cells cannot perform glycolysis.

83.

Why is fermentation important even though no more ATP's are made?

a)

Lactate is an essential product for muscle growth

b)

It regenerates NAD+ to be reused in glycolysis

c)

Yeast need alcohol to survive

d)

It splits the glucose into usable sized molecules

84.
Protons move into the thylakoid due to the
a)
concentration gradient in the stroma
b)
  Brownian motion of the protons.
c)
  peer pressure of the cool electrons in the stroma.  
d)
movement of electrons through the electron transport chain
85.
Which of the following is NOT a product of the light reactions?
a)
ATP
b)
NADPH
c)
Oxygen
d)
Glucose
86.

The role of water molecule in light dependent reaction is to …

a)

Hydrolyse NADP+ at the end of the electron transport chain.

b)

Involve directly in the production of ATP.

c)

Replace the excited electron of reaction centre molecule in photosystem II.

d)

Involve directly in Calvin cycle.

87.

Complete equation for photosynthesis is

a)

6CO2 +6H2O= 6C6H12O6 + 6O2

b)

CO2 +H2O= C6H12O6 + O2

c)

3CO2 +3H2O= 3C6H12O6 + 3O2

d)

3O2 +3H2O= 3C6H12O6 + 3CO2

88.

Which of the following are not the properties of light?

a)

Light is a form of electromagnetic energy

b)

The electromagnetic energy travels in waves

c)

The entire range of radiation is known as the electromagnetic spectrum

d)

A distance between the peaks of electromagnetic waves is called the amplitude

89.

What is the wavelength of visible light

a)

Between 380nm to 750nm

b)

Between 100nm to 360nm

c)

Between 760nm to 1500nm

d)

Between 280nm to 550nm

90.

which of the following reaction can't occur without sunlight?

a)

Light independent reaction

b)

Light dependent reaction

c)

Both can occur

d)

Both can't occur

91.

Where does light dependent reaction occur in the chloroplast?

a)

Membrane of thylakoid

b)

Stroma

c)

Granum

d)

Inner membrane

92.

Where does light independent reaction occur in the chloroplast?

a)

Membrane of thylakoid

b)

Stroma

c)

Granum

d)

Inner membrane

93.

Which photosynthetic pigment is function as the primary pigment in the reaction center for Photosystem 1?

a)

Chlorophyll a P700

b)

Chlorophyll a P680

c)

Chlorophyll b P700

d)

Chlorophyll b P680

94.

What is the general structure of a chlorophyll?

a)

Consist of a porphyrin ring (with magnesium at the centre) & hydrocarbon chain

b)

Consist of a porphyrin ring (with iron at the centre) & hydrocarbon chain

c)

Consist of a porphyrin ring (with copper at the centre) & hydrocarbon chain

d)

Consist of a porphyrin ring (with zinc at the centre) & hydrocarbon chain

95.

A stack of thylakoid are known as.

a)

Granum

b)

Stroma

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Matrix

96.
What is the function of NADPH and ATP?
a)
They absorb light
b)
They power the light-dependent reactions
c)
They are light-reflecting pigments
d)
They are short term energy carriers
97.

What is the main purpose of the light dependent reactions?

a)

To provide the energy and electrons for the Calvin cycle

b)

To capture light energy and make sugar

c)
To reflect green light
d)
To make sugars
98.

Which of the following is an example of an AUTOTROPH?

a)

mosses

b)

yeast

c)

Mushroom

d)

Human

99.

The most effective colour of light for Photosynthesis.

a)

blue and green

b)

blue and yellow

c)

blue and red

d)

red and orange

100.

What are the products of photosynthesis?

a)

carbon dioxide and glucose

b)

oxygen and glucose

c)

water and carbon dioxide

d)

oxygen and carbon dioxide

Similar Resources on Wayground

Word Within The Word Lists 1-4

100 questions

Word Within The Word Lists 1-4

quiz

Worksheet

•

3rd Grade - University

Bio 102 Exam 4 practice

103 questions

Bio 102 Exam 4 practice

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Digestive System

100 questions

Digestive System

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade - University

Seleksi iMSPQ-IMPHO 2022

100 questions

Seleksi iMSPQ-IMPHO 2022

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Test 1 Botany Algae and Vocabulary

100 questions

Test 1 Botany Algae and Vocabulary

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

อุอิ

99 questions

อุอิ

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Biol 232 Ch. 6 & Ch. 8

99 questions

Biol 232 Ch. 6 & Ch. 8

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Review for BIOL1406 Final

95 questions

Review for BIOL1406 Final

quiz

Worksheet

•

University