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WorksheetsHelminth_Final_Exam
Total questions: 200
Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The snail host of Fasciola gigantica in the Philippines is?
a)
Lymnaea truncatula
b)
Lymnaea bulimoides
c)
Lymnaea auricularia rubiginosa
d)
Lymnaea tormentosa
2.
The following parasites occur in the liver of their respective hosts, EXCEPT?
a)
Fimbraria fasciolaris
b)
Eimeria stiedai
c)
Clonorchis sinensis
d)
Thysanosoma actinoides
3.
The following helminths require earthworms as intermediate hosts, EXCEPT?
a)
Capillaria hepatica
b)
Metastrongylus spp.
c)
Capillaria annulata
d)
Amoebotaenia cuneata
4.
This helminth genus is characterized by having a parasitic and free-living generations; the former is parthenogenetic with filariform esophagus and the latter with rhabditiform esophagus?
a)
Strongylus
b)
Strongyloides
c)
Trichostrongylus
d)
Filarioides
5.
Transmammary infection occurs in the following, EXCEPT?
a)
Toxocara cati
b)
Strongyloides ransomi
c)
Ancylostoma caninum
d)
Bunostomum trigonocephalum
6.
In Dirofilaria immitis infection in dogs, diagnosis is by finding its microfilaria during blood examination, but this microfilaria should be differentiated from that of this species which is also present in dogs?
a)
Dirofilaria corynoides
b)
Parafilaria multipapillosa
c)
Dipetalonema reconditum
d)
Dipetalonema perstans
7.
The following are hookworm species, EXCEPT?
a)
Ancylostoma duodenale
b)
Necator americanus
c)
Agriostomum vryburgi
d)
Amidostomum anseris
8.
All of these are parasites of the eyes, EXCEPT?
a)
Oxyspirura mansoni
b)
Philopthalmus spp.
c)
Ascarops strongylina
d)
Thelazia rhodesii
9.
Pedogenesis also known as polyembryony refers to the production of several individuals from a single larval form and is exhibited by all trematodes. The species of tapeworms below also have this characteristic, EXCEPT?
a)
Moniezia spp.
b)
Echinococcus spp.
c)
Mesocestoides lineatus
d)
Multiceps multiceps
10.
Milk spots in the liver of pigs infected with Ascaris suum are actually?
a)
Hepatic cysts
b)
Focal area of calcification
c)
Hepatic abscesses
d)
Localized fibrosis
11.
This helminth usually occurs in pairs inside cysts in the lung parenchyma?
a)
Paragonimus westermani
b)
Cystocaulus nigrescens
c)
Muellerius capillaries
d)
Protostrongylus rufescens
12.
Oribatid mites serve as intermediate host of the following, EXCEPT?
a)
Anoplocephala perfoliata
b)
Moniezia benedeni
c)
Raillietina tetragona
d)
Cittotaenia pectinata
13.
Which among the following nematodes has an indirect life cycle?
a)
Strongyloides westeri
b)
Capillaria annulata
c)
Toxascaris leonina
d)
Trichuris suis
14.
Which pair has the same mode of infection for the definitive vertebrate host?
a)
Ascaris suum-Trichinella spiralis
b)
Oxyuris equi-Strongyloides stercoralis
c)
Taenia saginata-Schistosoma japonicum
d)
Paranoplocephala mamillana-Choanotaenia infundibulum
15.
Feeling of shame and inferiority is one of the symptoms observed in man infected with?
a)
Diphyllobothrium latum
b)
Capillaria philippinensis
c)
Enterobius vermicularis
d)
Trichinella spiralis larvae
16.
Pseudoscolex is a feature of?
a)
Thysaniezia giardi
b)
Fimbraria fasciolaris
c)
Echinococcus multilocularis
d)
Cittotaenia denticulata
17.
Flukes with head collar bearing spines are the?
a)
Dicrocoeliids
b)
Amphistomes
c)
Echinostomatids
d)
Schistosomatids
18.
The mode of transmission of Capillaria philippinensis is?
a)
Consumption of undercooked Pila luzonica containing infective larvae
b)
Skin penetration by the third stage larvae
c)
Ingestion of contaminated drinking water
d)
Ingestion of raw infected Ambassis commersoni or Hypseliotris bipartita
19.
Self-cure phenomenon in helminth infection is best exemplified in?
a)
Equine gastric habronemiasis
b)
Haemonchosis
c)
Hyostrongylosis
d)
Canine ancylostomosis
20.
What nematode species in which the fungus Pilobolus is important in the dissemination of its larvae in the pasture?
a)
Metastrongylus pudendotectus
b)
Dictyocaulus viviparus
c)
Toxocara vitulorum
d)
Mecistocirrus digitatus
21.
Which species has numerous round or oval thickenings on its cuticle especially on the anterior region?
a)
Thelazia rhodesii
b)
Echinuria uncinata
c)
Gongylonema pulchrum
d)
Setaria equina
22.
This pair of species utilizes freshwater fish as second intermediate host?
a)
Clonorchis sinensis and Diphyllobothrium latum
b)
Capillaria hepatica and Gastrodiscus hominis
c)
Dioctophyme renale and Faciolopsis buski
d)
Notocotylus naviformis and Echinostoma revolutum
23.
Which species is not zoonotic?
a)
Trichostrongylus axei
b)
Dicrocoelium dendriticum
c)
Ostertagia ostertagi
d)
Dirofilaria immitis
24.
The rat lungworm Angiostrongylus cantonensis can cause one of the following conditions in man?
a)
Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis
b)
Verminous pneumonia
c)
Swimmer’s itch
d)
Gid
25.
The infective larvae of Habronema species can cause which one of the following conditions when they are deposited on existing wounds of animals especially horses?
a)
Filarial dermatitis
b)
Itch
c)
Queensland itch
d)
Bursati
26.
Which parasite is not transmitted per cutaneously?
a)
Stephanurus dentatus
b)
Ancylostoma caninum
c)
Strongyloides spp.
d)
Skrjabinagia kolchida
27.
Which species does not require two intermediate hosts in its life cycle?
a)
Platynosomum fastosum
b)
Fasciola gigantica
c)
Spirometra erinacei
d)
Echinostoma ilocanum
28.
Which of the following is not part of the female reproductive organ in flukes?
a)
Ootype
b)
Receptaculum seminis
c)
Vitellaria
d)
Telamon
29.
All of these are eyeworms, EXCEPT?
a)
Oxyspirura mansoni
b)
Philophthalmus
c)
Ascarops strongylina
d)
Thelazia rhodesii
30.
Infection with this parasite results in rat-tail appearance in the infected animal due to extreme irritation?
a)
Enterobius vermicularis
b)
Toxocara vitulorum
c)
Oxyuris equi
d)
Toxascaris leonina
31.
It is also called gapeworm?
a)
Stephanurus dentatus
b)
Cyathostoma bronchialis
c)
Mammomonogamus laryngeus
d)
Syngamus trachea
32.
These species are also called arrow-headed worms, EXCEPT?
a)
Toxascaris leonina
b)
Toxocara canis
c)
Toxocara cati
d)
Parascaris equorum
33.
These are hookworms, EXCEPT?
a)
Uncinaria stenocephala
b)
Necator americanus
c)
Graphidium strigiosum
d)
Bunostomum trigonocephalum
34.
Immunizing sheep over six months old produces protective immunity against Haemonchus contortus by vaccination with irradiated?
a)
Sera
b)
Adults
c)
Infective larvae
d)
Eggs
35.
This parasite is an important factor in the development of esophageal sarcoma?
a)
Ascarops strongylina
b)
Spirocerca lupi
c)
Habronema muscae
d)
Oxyspirura mansoni
36.
The adult form of the following species of the family Taeniidae occurs in dogs, EXCEPT?
a)
Taenia hydatigena
b)
Taenia saginata
c)
Echinococcus granulosus
d)
Taenia pisiformis
37.
The helminth parasite with the longest prepatent period is?
a)
Ascaris spp.
b)
Dioctophyme renale
c)
Stephanurus dentatus
d)
Fasciola spp.
38.
The bladderworm of Taenia (Multiceps) multiceps is a?
a)
Coenurus
b)
Cysticercus
c)
Cysticercoid
d)
Tetrathyridium
39.
A hairworm found in the subcutaneous tissues of monkeys and man is?
a)
Capillaria philippinensis
b)
Strogyloides stercoralis
c)
Anatrichosoma cutaneum
d)
Brugia malayi
40.
Which is not transmitted by land mollusk?
a)
Capillaria obsignata
b)
Davainea proglotinna
c)
Aelurustrongylus abstrussus
d)
Crenosoma vulpis
41.
Schistosome cercariae are?
a)
Lophocercous
b)
Furcocercous
c)
Leptocercous
d)
Cysticercus
42.
These nematodes are viviparous, EXCEPT?
a)
Thelazia rhodesii
b)
Dirofilaria immitis
c)
Trichinella spiralis
d)
Metastrongylus spp.
43.
These flukes occur in the ceca and rectum of birds, EXCEPT?
a)
Notocotylus attenuatus
b)
Cyclocoelium mutabile
c)
Catatropis verrucosa
d)
Postharmostomum gallinum
44.
These nematodes occur in the aorta of their respective hosts, EXCEPT?
a)
Onchocerca armillata
b)
Elaeophora poeli
c)
Spirocerca lupi
d)
Onchocerca gutturosa
45.
How does the function of solenocytes can be categorized?
a)
Secretory
b)
Excretory
c)
Circulatory
d)
Respiratory
46.
Hemorrhagic nodules in the skin of buffaloes are caused by?
a)
Setaria labiatopapillosa
b)
Parafilaria bovicola
c)
Onchocerca cebei
d)
Elaeophora poeli
47.
The ceca of the following flukes are simple, EXCEPT?
a)
Fischoederius elongatus
b)
Paragonimus westermani
c)
Opisthorchis felineus
d)
Fasciola gigantica
48.
The organ location of these helminths is the heart and/or pulmonary artery in their respecitive hosts, EXCEPT?
a)
Draschia megastoma
b)
Dipetalonema spirocauda
c)
Dirofilaria immitis
d)
Bhalfilaria ladami
49.
A single egg may give rise to several larvae infective to the final host in?
a)
Tapeworms
b)
Roundworms
c)
Flukes
d)
Acanthocephalans
50.
Alimentary canal is absent in?
a)
Mermithids & trematodes
b)
Cestodes & nematodes
c)
Trematodes & nematodes
d)
Acanthocephalans & cestodes
51.
Members of the family Taeniidae produce the following larvae, EXCEPT?
a)
Cysticercus
b)
Tetrathyridium
c)
Coenurus
d)
Echinococcus or hydatid cyst
52.
What is not true for Toxocara canis, T. cati and T. vitulorum?
a)
Both pre-natal and transmammary infections occur
b)
All have three lips
c)
Eggs are thick-shelled and unembryonated when laid
d)
Males are without copulatory bursa
53.
In the pig, the presence of milk spots in the liver is suggestive of?
a)
Strongyloides ransomi infection
b)
Cysticercus tenuicollis
c)
Visceral larva migrans
d)
Ascariosis
54.
Most members of this family utilize oribatid mites as intermediate hosts?
a)
Anoplocephalidae
b)
Dilepididae
c)
Davaineidae
d)
Hymenolepididae
55.
All but one species can be easily identified by examining the appearance of the pharynx?
a)
Physocephalus sexalatus
b)
Dictyocaulus filaria
c)
Oxyspirura mansoni
d)
Ascarops strongylina
56.
What set of description is true for strongyle eggs?
a)
Oval, smooth and thick-shelled and unsegmented when laid
b)
Oval, shell is thick and finely mammillated and unsegmented when laid
c)
Oval, smooth and thin-shelled and segmented when laid
d)
Round, shell is thick and pitted and unsegmented when laid
57.
All of these nematodes occur in the crop of their respective hosts, EXCEPT?
a)
Capillaria anatis
b)
Gongylonema ingluvicola
c)
Ornithostrongylus quadriradiatus
d)
Amidostomum cygni
58.
Which one occurs in the intestine of monkeys?
a)
Taenia pisiformis
b)
Anatrichosoma cutaneum
c)
Habronema microstoma
d)
Bertiella studeri
59.
These occur in the liver of their respective host, EXCEPT?
a)
Dicrocoelium dentriticum
b)
Thyzanosoma actinoides
c)
Platynosomum fastosum
d)
Stilesia globipunctata
60.
The cause of river blindness in man, which utilizes Simulium spp. as intermediate host is?
a)
Thelazia lacrymalis
b)
Brugia malayi
c)
Onchocerca volvulus
d)
Setaria equina
61.
The males of the following have copulatory bursa, EXCEPT?
a)
Strongylus edentatus
b)
Ancylostoma caninum
c)
Ascaridia galli
d)
Mecistocirrus digitatus
62.
Which species is dependent on predation or cannibalism or decomposition in the release of its egg in the environment?
a)
Capillaria annulata
b)
Capillaria hepatica
c)
Trichuris suis
d)
Fasciola hepatica
63.
Transplacental or prenatal transmission occurs in the following, EXCEPT?
a)
Stephanurus dentatus
b)
Strongyloides ransomi
c)
Protostrongylus rufescens
d)
Strongyloides westeri
64.
Female Physaloptera praeputialis, Spirocerca lupi, Ascarops strongylina and Metastrongylus species are appropriately described as?
a)
Larviparous
b)
Viviparous
c)
Oviparous
d)
Ovoviviparous
65.
Heartworm is transmitted directly to the dog through bite of an infected?
a)
Mite
b)
Mosquito
c)
Fly
d)
Fleas
66.
Which is important in the transmission of the causative agent of infectious enterohepatitis?
a)
Ascaridia galli
b)
Capillaria anatis
c)
Heterakis gallinarum
d)
Dispharynx spiralis
67.
Cutaneous larva migrans in man is mainly caused by?
a)
Ancylostoma braziliense
b)
Oesophagostomum dentatum
c)
Gaigeria pachyscelis
d)
Toxacara cati
68.
Males of the following nematodes have only one spicule, EXCEPT?
a)
Dioctophyme renale
b)
Trichuris vulpis
c)
Trichinella spiralis
d)
Oxyuris equi
69.
This tapeworm can cause neurocysticercosis in man?
a)
Taenia saginata
b)
Taenia solium
c)
Taenia serialis
d)
Dipylidium caninum
70.
The following helminths are dioecious, EXCEPT?
a)
Schistosoma japonicum
b)
Ascaris suum
c)
Fasciola gigantica
d)
Spirocerca lupi
71.
Which invertebrate serve as intermediate host of the thorny-headed worm of pigs?
a)
Dung beetles
b)
Red ants
c)
Earthworms
d)
Oribatid mites
72.
Whose eggs are spindle-shaped and resemble diatoms thus making them favorable food for crustaceans?
a)
Trematoda
b)
Cestoda
c)
Acanthocephala
d)
Nematoda
73.
The following require freeliving oligochaete annelids as intermediate host, EXCEPT?
a)
Hystrichis tricolor
b)
Dioctophyme renale
c)
Eustrongylides Papillosus
d)
Filicolis anatis
74.
The male of this species is degenerate and parasitic in the uterus of the female?
a)
Strongylus vulgaris
b)
Trichosomoides crassicauda
c)
Stephanurus dentatus
d)
Trichuris ovis
75.
Elevated level of plasma pepsinogen in cattle is indicative of infection with?
a)
Mecistocirrus digitatus
b)
Trichostrongylus colubrifomis
c)
Ostertagia ostertagi
d)
Bunostomum trigonocephalum
76.
What trichostrongylid species whose egg does not hatch until infective larva (L3) has developed in the egg shell?
a)
Mecistocirrus digitatus
b)
Cooperia curticei
c)
Paracooperia nodulosa
d)
Nematodirus battus
77.
Pipe-stem liver is a condition associated with?
a)
Fasciolosis hepatica only
b)
Dicrocoeliosis only
c)
Schistosomiasis japonica only
d)
Both A & C
78.
Heavy infection with this species can cause hyperplasia of the affected mucosa giving a characteristic “morocco leather” appearance?
a)
Ostertagia ostertagi
b)
Haemonchus contortus
c)
Nematodirus spathiger
d)
Agriostomm vriburgi
79.
Teeth are wanting in?
a)
Agriostomum vriburgi
b)
Chabertia ovina
c)
Ancylostoma caninum
d)
Strongylus equinus
80.
Among the Trichostrngylidae, this genus is distinguishable from the rest because of the large size of its egg?
a)
Trichostronylus
b)
Ostertagia
c)
Nematodirus
d)
Cooperia
81.
This nematode is unusual in that no period of development is required outside the host because the first stage larva released is immediately infective?
a)
Filarioides osleri
b)
Thelazia rhodesii
c)
Dictyocaulus filaria
d)
Parelaphostrongylus tenuis
82.
Which helminth infection in cats can produce spontaneous pulmonary arteriopathy with pulmonary arterial hypertrophy and hyperplasia?
a)
Platynosomum fastosum
b)
Aelurostrongylus abstrussus
c)
Ollulanus tricuspis
d)
Filaroides hirthi
83.
A flattened amphistome with large ventral papillae and found in the large intestine of cattle is?
a)
Gastrodiscus aegyptiacus
b)
Velasquezotrema brevisaccus
c)
Gigantocotyle formosanum
d)
Homalogaster paloniae
84.
All EXCEPT one has anticestode and antitrematode activity?
a)
Albendazole
b)
Praziquantel
c)
Niclosamide
d)
Bunamidine
85.
An embryonated egg, which is bilaterally symmetrical, spherical or oval with 3 pairs of hooks is called?
a)
Morula
b)
Oncosphere
c)
Acanthor
d)
Coracidium
86.
Which is not a characteristic of a freshly voided taeniid egg?
a)
Thin-shelled
b)
Radially striated embryophore
c)
Larvated
d)
Spherical
87.
All but one is viviparous?
a)
Ollulanus tricuspis
b)
Probstmayria vivipara
c)
Dictyocaulus viviparus
d)
Dracunculus medinensis
88.
In large animals, infection with this species can be diagnosed by rectal palpation?
a)
Parascaris equorum
b)
Oesophagostomum columbianum
c)
Strongylus vulgaris
d)
Oxyuris equi
89.
Generally in Trichostrongylids, the order of susceptibility from least to most to adverse conditions is?
a)
3rd larval stage, embryonated egg, unembryonated egg, 1st larval stage and 2nd larval stage
b)
1st larval stage, 2nd larval stage, 3rd larval stage, embryonate egg and unembryonated egg
c)
Embryonated egg, 3rd larval stage, 2nd larval stage, 1st larval stage and unembryonated egg
d)
2nd larval stage, embryonated egg, 3rd larval stage, unembryoanted egg and 1st larval stage
90.
Male and female of these helminths are permanently in copula, EXCEPT?
a)
Cyathostoma bronchialis
b)
Schistosoma japonicum
c)
Mammomonoganus laryngeus
d)
Syngamus trachea
91.
This parasite occurs in the circulatory system of cyprinid fishes?
a)
Stephanostomum baccatum
b)
Crepidostomum spp.
c)
Sanguinicola inermis
d)
Diplostomum spp.
92.
The following are tapeworms affecting fishes, EXCEPT?
a)
Avetillina
b)
Caryophyllaeus
c)
Trianophorus
d)
Khawia
93.
From the time of infection to the time eggs or larvae appear in the feces/blood of the host is referred to as?
a)
Incubation period
b)
Patent period
c)
Log period
d)
Prepatent period
94.
Lemnisci and uterine bells are present in?
a)
Pentatstomids
b)
Nematodes
c)
Acanthocephalans
d)
Mallophagans
95.
An organism with both the male and female reproductive organ in one individual is termed as?
a)
Monoecious
b)
Parthenogenetic
c)
Dioecious
d)
Monogamous
96.
The main cause of creeping eruption is man is?
a)
Ancylostoma ceylanicum
b)
Ancylostoma braziliense
c)
Necator americanus
d)
Ancylostoma duodenale
97.
Adult tapeworms can be found the in following, EXCEPT?
a)
Pigs
b)
Cats
c)
Dogs
d)
Sheep
98.
Autoinfection is a characteristic feature of these parasites, EXCEPT?
a)
Hymenolepis (Vampirolepis) nana
b)
Capillaria philippinensis
c)
Hymenolepis diminuta
d)
Strongyloides stercoralis
99.
The following are transmitted via both the transplacental and transcolostral or mammary routes, EXCEPT?
a)
Ancylostoma caninum
b)
Toxacara canis
c)
Toxocara vitulorum
d)
Toxocara cati
100.
Freshwater fish is the intermediate hosts of?
a)
Ollulanus tricuspis
b)
Gnathostoma spinigerum
c)
Spirocerca lupi
d)
Physaloptera canis
101.
A form of immunity seen in protozoan and some helminth infections that is dependent upon the continued presence of the parasite is?
a)
Immunological tolerance
b)
Phagocytosis
c)
Pinocytosis
d)
Premunition
102.
Dioctophyme renale is to the kidneys of dogs and related carnivores, Stephanurus dentatus to the perirenal fat sometimes in the renal pelvis of pigs, and Capillaria plica to the urinary bladder sometimes in the renal pelvis of?
a)
Rabbits
b)
Monkeys
c)
Bovines
d)
Dogs, cats and foxes
103.
Which among these has no alimentary canal but has uterine bell?
a)
Heterakis beramporiae
b)
Dipylidium caninum
c)
Polymorphus boschadis
d)
Fischoederius elongatus
104.
Which of the following has only one spicule?
a)
Ascaris suum
b)
Haemonchus contortus
c)
Oesophagotomum radiatum
d)
None of the above
105.
In Elaeophora poeli those that are fully enclosed inside the nodules are?
a)
Both male and females
b)
Male only
c)
Female only
d)
None of the above
106.
This species causes haemorrhagic nodules on the skin of cattle and water buffaloes?
a)
Parafilaria bovicola
b)
Setaria digitata
c)
Haematopinus tuberculatus
d)
Ostertagia ostertagi
107.
Fertilized females exhibit brown cement-like ring around the vulva in this species?
a)
Tetrameres americana
b)
Spirocerca lupi
c)
Physalotera praeputialis
d)
None of the above
108.
The presence of cordons is a feature seen in the following, EXCEPT?
a)
Dispharynx spiralis
b)
Heterakis gallinae
c)
Echinuria uncinata
d)
Cheilospirura hamulosa
109.
The following are all stomach worms of their respective hosts, EXCEPT?
a)
Hyostrongylus rubidus
b)
Physocephalus sexalatus
c)
Ascarops strongylina
d)
Oesophagustomum dentatum
110.
The cause of eosinophilic granulomata in the intestine of man is?
a)
Brugia malayi
b)
Angiostrongylus costaricensis
c)
Enterobius vermicularis
d)
Angiostrongylus cantonensis
111.
Both hyper and autoinfections can occur in infection with this species?
a)
Ascaris suum
b)
Strongyloides stercoralis
c)
Capillaria annulata
d)
none of the above
112.
Ascaris suum eggs are not immediately infective after being passed out with feces but need maturation period of?
a)
30 days
b)
25 days
c)
10-12 days
d)
5 days
113.
These structures are found in the posterior end of nematodes which function as chemoreceptors, well supplied with nerve fibers and associated with glandular structure?
a)
Phasmids
b)
Dierids
c)
Amphids
d)
None of the above
114.
The following members of the family Fasciolidae occur in the liver of their respective hosts, EXCEPT?
a)
Fasciolopsis buski
b)
Fascioloides magna
c)
Fasciola gigantica
d)
Fasciola nyanzae
115.
Fecal examination is not a reliable method of diagnosing infection with this parasite?
a)
Trichostrongylus spp.
b)
Trichuris vulpis
c)
Oxyuris equi
d)
None of the above
116.
What trichostrongylid species whose egg does not hatch until infective larva (L3) has developed in the eggshell?
a)
Mecistocirrus digitatus
b)
Cooperia curticei
c)
Paracooperia nodulosa
d)
Nematodirus battus
117.
The cause of granular dermatitis in horses is?
a)
Gnathostoma doloresi
b)
Ascarops strongylina
c)
Physocephalus sexalatus
d)
Habronema muscae
118.
These nematodes undergo hypobiosis, EXCEPT?
a)
Ostertagia ostertagi
b)
Haemonchus contortus
c)
Uncinaria stenocephala
d)
Cooperia oncophora
119.
A pathological condition with symptoms such as hepatomegaly, pulmonary infiltration, intermittent fever, loss of weight and appetite and persistent cough caused by ascaris organisms. This is called?
a)
Cutaneous larva migrans
b)
Visceral larva migrans
c)
Urticarial hepatic syndrome
d)
Localized general peritonitis
120.
This is an important nodular worm of cattle?
a)
Oesophagostomum radiatum
b)
Oesophagostomum stephanostomum
c)
Oesophagostomum aculeatum
d)
Oesophagostomum dentatum
121.
These are all effects of Trichostrongylus, EXCEPT?
a)
Low secretion of cholecystokinin
b)
Reduced utilization of food
c)
Decreased uptake of selenium
d)
Low plasma phosphorus
122.
The cause of gape in poultry is?
a)
Stephanurus dentatus
b)
Cyathostoma bronchialis
c)
Mammomonogamus laryngeus
d)
Syngamus trachea
123.
Which of these stages of Trichostrongylus is the least susceptible to extreme changes in environmental conditions?
a)
Second stage larva
b)
Embryonated egg
c)
Unembryonated egg
d)
Third stage larva
124.
A complication of the acute illness of this infection is black disease, which occurs in normal sheep. What parasite causes this illness?
a)
Fasciolopsis buski
b)
Fascioloides magna
c)
Fasciola hepatica
d)
Clonorchis sinensis
125.
Elongate unisexual trematode, which carries its female in a canal and inhabit the blood vessel of its host?
a)
Schistosoma
b)
Fasciolopsis buski
c)
Eurytrema pancreaticum
d)
Thysanosoma actinoides
126.
It has been proven that prenatal infection occurs in the life cycle of these nematodes, EXCEPT?
a)
Toxocara canis
b)
Parascaris equorum
c)
Toxocara vitulorum
d)
Toxocara cati
127.
All of these parasites infect the lungs, EXCEPT?
a)
Cheilospirura hamulosa
b)
Filarioides osleri
c)
Dictyocaulus viviparus
d)
Metastrongylus elongatus
128.
Which of these stages of Trichostrongylus sp. is most susceptible to extreme environmental condition?
a)
Unembryonated egg
b)
Second stage larva
c)
First stage larva
d)
Embryonated egg
129.
These are hookworms, EXCEPT?
a)
Uncinaria stenocephala
b)
Necator americanus
c)
Graphidium strigiosum
d)
Bunostomum trigonocephalum
130.
Cause of cascado or verminous dermatitis in man is?
a)
Mecistocirrus digitatus
b)
Gnathostoma spinigerum
c)
Tetrameres americana
d)
Stephanofilaria okinawaensis
131.
All of these cause dirofilariosis, EXCEPT?
a)
Brugia timori
b)
Elaeophora schneideri
c)
Mastophorus muris
d)
Wuchereria bancrofti
132.
Pathogenic effect of Strongylus vulgaris in equine is?
a)
Interference with absorption, bowel movement and indigestion
b)
Severe lesions in arterial system forming thrombi which maybe fatal
c)
Cirrhosis of the liver resulting to ascites
d)
Nodular formation causing localized inflammation around each larva
133.
Fatal human hydatidosis is caused by?
a)
Echinococcus granulosus
b)
Moniezia benedeni
c)
Oesophagostomum stephanostomum
d)
Spirometra mansoni
134.
Oesophageal worm of dogs is?
a)
Spirocerca lupi
b)
Echinococcus granulosus
c)
Physaloptera praeputialis
d)
Thelazia californensis
135.
Cutaneous larva migrans is caused by?
a)
Toxocara vitulorum
b)
Uncinaria stenocephala
c)
Filariodes osleri
d)
Toxocara leonina
136.
Trichinosis in man, which is maintained in the cycle of infection between wild carnivores and humans, is called?
a)
Bionomic cycle
b)
Synantropic zoonotic cycle
c)
Hypobiotic cycle
d)
Sylvatic-zoonotic cycle
137.
Liverfluke of elephants?
a)
Paramphistomum cervi
b)
Clonorchis sinensis
c)
Fasciolopsis buski
d)
Fasciola hepatica
138.
Gid or staggers a brain disease caused by the presence of the metacestode in the intermediate host of which parasite?
a)
Hymenolepis nana
b)
Taenia multiceps
c)
Taenia serialis
d)
Echinococcus granulosus
139.
Important lungfluke of carnivores?
a)
Schistosoma japonicum
b)
Paragonimus westermani
c)
Opisthorchis tenuicollis
d)
Limnatis africana
140.
Cause of sparganosis in man is?
a)
Spirocerca lupi
b)
Oesophagostomum stephanostomum
c)
Trichinella spiralis
d)
Spirometra mansoni
141.
Egg of this parasite is characteristically quadrilateral in shape?
a)
Moniezia benedeni
b)
Taenia solium
c)
Raillietina tetragona
d)
Dipylidium caninum
142.
The diagnosis of these parasites involves the finding of their eggs in the urine of their respective hosts, EXCEPT?
a)
Stephanurus dentatus
b)
Dioctophyme remale
c)
Capillaria plica
d)
Angiostrongylus vasorum
143.
This parasite causes catarrhal parasitic bronchitis in ruminants?
a)
Onchoceca gibsoni
b)
Hyostrogylus rubidus
c)
Dictyocaulus filaria
d)
Metastrongylus elongatus
144.
Infection in man with this species results from eating uncooked infected fish or frogs?
a)
Tetrameres americana
b)
Gnathostoma spinigerum
c)
Simondsia paradoxa
d)
Thelazia rhodesii
145.
Genetically inherited immunization against infection is possible in?
a)
Trichostrongylus colubriformis in sheep
b)
Ostertatia ostertagi in cattle
c)
Graphidium strigiosum in rabbit
d)
Strongylus vulgaris in equine
146.
This parasite is permanently in copula?
a)
Graphidium strigiosum
b)
Syngamus trachea
c)
Cyatosthoma bronchialis
d)
Haemonchus contortus
147.
A technique use in larval recovery is?
a)
Microscopic technique
b)
Flotation technique
c)
Baermann’s technique
d)
Concentration technique
148.
Most tapeworms have metameric repetition of their reproductive organs termed as?
a)
Proglottids
b)
Bothridia
c)
Body
d)
Strobila
149.
The following nematodes have no intermediate host, EXCEPT?
a)
Habronema
b)
Ancylostoma
c)
Bunostomum
d)
Strongyles
150.
This is known for the unusual shape of the mature female, which is almost spherical and lies embedded in the proventricular gland of birds?
a)
Tetrameres americana
b)
Oxyspirura mansoni
c)
Gnathostoma spinigerum
d)
Thelazia callipaeda
151.
The dog is the definitive host of this parasite, which is transmissible to man?
a)
Echinococcus granulosus
b)
Sarcocystis hirsuta
c)
Strongylus vulgaris
d)
Davainea proglottina
152.
This is an important cestode of freshwater carps?
a)
Raillietina echinobothridia
b)
Diorchis nyrocae
c)
Schistocephalus solidus
d)
Caryophyllaeus fimbriceps
153.
Intensive management in poultry has reduced cestode infections but this species can still remain a problem because its intermediate host is Musca domestica?
a)
Choanotaenia infundibulum
b)
Amoebotaenia cuneata
c)
Raillietina echinobothridia
d)
Davainea proglotinna
154.
A criteria differentiating eye lesions from others caused by visceral larva migrans is the presence of this?
a)
Anti-C isohaemagglutinin titre of 1200
b)
Persistent Eosinophilia
c)
Leucopenia
d)
Decreased red blood cell counts
155.
A highly pathogenic ascaris of cattle is?
a)
Ascaris columnaris
b)
Contracaecum spiculigerum
c)
Toxocara vitulorum
d)
Toxascaris leonina
156.
Osteoporosis due to low plasma phosphorous concentration is associated with?
a)
Capillaria infection in carabaos
b)
Liverfluke infection in cattle
c)
Hookworm infection in canines
d)
Trichostrongylus infection in sheep
157.
Haemonchus contortus increases its rate of survival by undergoing this phenomenon called?
a)
Hypobiosis
b)
Probiosis
c)
Symbiosis
d)
Phoresy
158.
Larvae of Ascaris do more damage in this organ during migration?
a)
Intestine
b)
Lungs
c)
Pancreas
d)
Liver
159.
Elaeophora schneideri is a common parasite of the?
a)
Aorta of cattle
b)
Eye of horse
c)
Common carotid artery of sheep
d)
Right atrium of carabao
160.
This parasite is an important factor in the development of esophageal sarcoma?
a)
Ascarops strongylina
b)
Spirocerca lupi
c)
Habronema muscae
d)
Oxyspirura mansoni
161.
This parasite is acquired by eating inadequately cooked frogs or fish causing eosinophilic meningitis in man due to its migration?
a)
Gongylonema puchrum
b)
Gnathostoma spinigerum
c)
Simondsia paradoxa
d)
Physocephalus sexalatus
162.
It is a pathological entity with symptoms in a child of enlarged liver, with eosinophilic granulomatous lesions, intermittent fever, loss of weight and persistent cough with a 50% circulating eosinophilia?
a)
Toxocara vitulorum infection
b)
visceral larva migrans
c)
Paragonimus westermani infection
d)
cutaneous larva migrans
163.
Claypipe stem fibrosis is associated with this trematode infection?
a)
Coccidiosis
b)
Hepatozoonosis
c)
Schistosomiasis
d)
Ascariasis
164.
Largest of all the nematodes (8 meters long, 2 cm thick; in sperm whale)?
a)
Elaeophora poeli
b)
Macrocanthorhynchus hirudinaceus
c)
Placentonema gigantissima
d)
Fascioloides magna
165.
Members of the family Taeniidae produce all but one of these metacestode?
a)
Cysticercus
b)
Tetrathyridium
c)
Coenurus
d)
Echinococcus or hydatid cyst
166.
What is not true for Toxocara canis, T. cati and T. vitulorum?
a)
Both prenatal and transmammary infections occur
b)
All have three lips
c)
Eggs are thick-shelled and unembryonated when laid
d)
Males are without copulatory bursa
167.
This species occurs in the intestine of monkeys?
a)
Taenia pisiformis
b)
Anatrichosoma cutaneum
c)
Habronema microstoma
d)
Bertiella studeri
168.
It is the smallest yet the most pathogenic poultry tapeworm?
a)
Raillietina cesticillus
b)
Hymenolepis cartioca
c)
Davainea proglottina
d)
Hymenolepis sp.
169.
A clinical feature, which differentiates haemonchosis and mecisticirrosis from trichostrongylosis, is?
a)
Haemoglubinuria
b)
Anemia
c)
Jaundice
d)
None of the above
170.
It is a thickened structure located in the buccal capsule of some nematodes, which carries the duct of the dorsal esophageal gland?
a)
Posterior duct
b)
Salivary duct
c)
Dorsal gutter
d)
Oral duct
171.
The cause of ‘hump sore’, a chronic dermatitis in cattle?
a)
Parafilaria bovicola
b)
Stephanofilaria assamensis
c)
Elaeophora schneideri
d)
Dipetalonema reconditum
172.
This refers to the cuticular fringes around the oral openings of some nematodes like the equine strongyles?
a)
Corona perfoliata
b)
Buccal fringes
c)
Corona radiata
d)
Cervial alae
173.
It is a condition in man caused by Angiostrongylus constaricensis?
a)
Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis
b)
Tropical bursati
c)
Eosinophilic granulomata of the intestine
d)
None of the above
174.
This is a specific condition caused by the larvae of Draschia megastoma and Habronema spp. deposited by flies on existing wounds of domesticated animals specially horses?
a)
Delhi boil
b)
Haemorrhagic filariasi
c)
Bursati
d)
Pustular mange
175.
This species of pig lungworms is characterized by a large cuticular swelling covering the vulva and anus?
a)
Metastrongylus salmi
b)
Metastrongylus pudendotectus
c)
Protostrongylus rufescens
d)
Mullerius capillaries
176.
It is where majority of the lesions of Strongylus vulgaris occur?
a)
Posterior mesenteric artery & arteries which derive from it
b)
Aorta & aortic arch
c)
Cranial mesenteric artery and the arteries, which derive from it
d)
Pulmonary artery
177.
Species of this genus is characterized by their spicules fused at the tip?
a)
Nematodirus
b)
Mecistocirrus
c)
Hemonchus
d)
Ascaris
178.
This species of hairworm affects man?
a)
Capillaria contorta
b)
Capillaria plica
c)
Trichuris vulpis
d)
Capillaria philippinensis
179.
This condition is caused in man by the larvae of the rat lungworm, Angiostrongylus cantonensis?
a)
Elephantiasis
b)
Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis
c)
Tropical pancytopenia
d)
Human gnathostomiasis
180.
This term is sometimes given to Trichostrongylus species because of the characteristic appearance of feces produced by animals infected by them?
a)
Black scours worms
b)
Barber’s pole worms
c)
Red feces thread worms
d)
Suphur-yellow dropping worms
181.
It is a fungus found common in cattle feces, which helps in the efficient dispersion of Dictyocaulus larvae in the pasture?
a)
Trichophyton
b)
Pilobolus
c)
Amanita
d)
Penicillum
182.
It causes “ring worm lesions” in the stomach of calves. Lesions are raised plaques comprising grayish flat areas with sharply demarcated borders?
a)
Trichostrongylus capricola
b)
Haemonchus placei
c)
Trichostrongylus axei
d)
Mecistocirrus digitatus
183.
This chemical is correlated with anorexia in Trichostrongylus colubriformis infection in sheep. The parasite appears to stimulate secretion of this substance leading to its increase level in the plasma and acts on the appropriate center in the brain to depress appetite?
a)
Cytokine (CK)
b)
Choline
c)
Colecystokinin
d)
Arecoline
184.
This is the cause of cascado (verminous dermatitis) in the muzzle and teat of cattle and water buffalo?
a)
Parafilaria bovicola
b)
Stephanofilaria okinawaensis
c)
Brugia malayi
d)
Onchocerca cebei
185.
It is the cause of parasitic otitis in bovines?
a)
Strongyloides papillosus
b)
Capillaria bovis
c)
Rhabditis bovis
d)
Trichuris bovis
186.
Between the human Taenia species, the gravid segments of this species spontaneously leave the host?
a)
Taenia solium
b)
Taenia saginata
c)
Taenia taeniaformis
d)
Raillietina madagascariensis
187.
Largest nematode in domesticated animals (100 cm.)?
a)
Toxacara vitulorum
b)
Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus
c)
Dioctophyme renale
d)
Ascaris suum
188.
Cause of swimmers’ itch, (cercarial dermatitis, schistosome dermatitis, clam-diggers’ itch, hunters’ itch, rice paddy itch, lakeside disease, badedermatitis, galede nageurs)?
a)
Fasciolides magna
b)
Stephanurus dentatus
c)
Horse strongyles
d)
Avian schistosomes
189.
Cause of rice paddy itch in Malaysia?
a)
Schistosoma mansoni
b)
Schistosoma spindale
c)
Schistosoma matheei
d)
Austrobilharzia bayensis
190.
Infection with this species in fishes is characterized by swollen abdomen caused by its large plerocercoids displacing the organs?
a)
Lytocetus intestinalis
b)
Ligula intestinalis
c)
Bothriocephalus aelognathi
d)
Schistocephalus solidus
191.
Eggs of this parasite are released through the gills of the fish host from adults in the circulatory system?
a)
Austrobilharzia bayensis
b)
Philometra sp.
c)
Sanguinicola inermis
d)
Bucephalus tentaculatus
192.
This filariid worm may produce small whitish nodules in the connective tissues of pig, which can be mistaken as young cysticerci?
a)
Stephanofilaria deodesi
b)
Suifilaria suis
c)
Bhalfilaria ladami
d)
Dirofilaria reconditum
193.
This nematode requires termites as intermediate host?
a)
Ascaria galli
b)
Capillaria annulata
c)
Hartertia gallinarum
d)
Heterakis beramporiae
194.
This species develops first in the leptomeningeal arteries then migrate to the carotid arteries of the definitive host and transmitted by tabanids?
a)
Elaeophora schneideri
b)
Brugia malayi
c)
Parafilaria bovicola
d)
Stephanofilaria assamensis
195.
Pyriform apparatus is present in the egg of the following, EXCEPT?
a)
Anoplocephala perfoliata
b)
Raillietina echinobothrida
c)
Moniezia expansa
d)
Paranoplocephala mamillana
196.
A roughly cross-shaped telamon is a feature of?
a)
Capillaria retusa
b)
Strongylus edentatus
c)
Hyostrongylus rubidus
d)
Ornithostrongylus quadriradiatus
197.
Leaf crowns are present in the following, EXCEPT?
a)
Oesophagostomum
b)
Stephanurus
c)
Ascaris
d)
Strongylus
198.
Nodule formation can be observed in the hosts infected with the following, EXCEPT?
a)
Ostertagia spp.
b)
Ornithostrongylus quadriradiatus
c)
Hyostrongylus rubidus
d)
Paracooperia nodulosa
199.
In Trichostrongylus colubriformis, the larva that is very susceptible to desiccation is the?
a)
5th stage
b)
2nd stage
c)
1st stage
d)
4th stage
200.
The cause of eosinophilic granlomatous lesions in the urinary bladder is?
a)
Setaria digitata
b)
Parafiliaria bovicola
c)
Stephanofilaria assamensis
d)
Elaeophora poeli
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