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AWS Cloud Practitioner Q5

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

#1 Which AWS service can be used to prepare and load data for analytics using an extract, transform and load (ETL) process?

a)

AWS Lambda

b)

AWS Glue

c)

Amazon EMR

d)

Amazon Athena

2.

#2 Which AWS service can be used to send automated notifications to HTTP endpoints?

a)

Amazon SQS

b)

Amazon SWF

c)

Amazon SNS

d)

Amazon SES

3.

#3 Which of the following constitute the five pillars for the AWS Well-Architected Framework? (Select TWO.)

a)

Operational excellence, security, and reliability

b)

Operational excellence, elasticity and scalability

c)

Cost prioritization, and cost optimization

d)

Data consistency, and cost optimization

e)

. Performance efficiency, and cost optimization

4.

#4 Assuming you have configured them correctly, which AWS services can scale automatically without intervention? (Select TWO.)

a)

Amazon RDS

b)

Amazon EC2

c)

Amazon S3

d)

Amazon DynamoDB

e)

Amazon EBS

5.

#5 Which AWS components aid in the construction of fault-tolerant applications? (Select TWO.)

a)

Elastic IP addresses

b)

ARNs

c)

AMIs

d)

Tags

e)

Block device mappings

6.

#6 A company wants to utilize a pay as you go cloud model for all of their applications without CAPEX costs and which is highly elastic. Which cloud delivery model will suit them best?

a)

Public

b)

Private

c)

Hybrid

d)

On-premise

7.

#7 Which of the following are advantages of using the AWS cloud computing over legacy IT? (Select TWO.)

a)

You are able to pass responsibility for the availability of your application to AWS

b)

You don't need to worry about over provisioning as you can elastically scale

c)

You don't need to patch your operating systems

d)

You can bring new applications to market faster

e)

You can bring services closer to your end users

8.

#8 Which AWS services form the app-facing services of the AWS serverless infrastructure? (Select TWO.)

a)

AWS Step Functions

b)

AWS Lambda

c)

Amazon API Gateway

d)

Amazon DynamoDB

e)

Amazon EFS

9.

#9 What is the name of the AWS managed Docker registry service used by the Amazon Elastic Container Service (ECS)?

a)

Elastic Container Registry

b)

ECS Container Registry

c)

Docker Container Registry

d)

Docker Image Repository

10.

#10 What are two benefits of using AWS Lambda? (Select TWO.)

a)

No servers to manage

b)

Integrated snapshots

c)

Continuous scaling (scale out)

d)

Flexible operating system choices

e)

Open source software

11.

#12 With which service can a developer upload code using a ZIP or WAR file and have the service handle the end-to-end deployment of the resources?

a)

AWS CodeDeploy

b)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

c)

Amazon ECS

d)

AWS CodeCommit

12.

#12 Which service can you use to monitor, store and access log files generated by EC2 instances and on-premises servers?

a)

AWS CloudTrail

b)

AWS OpsWorks

c)

Amazon CloudWatch Logs

d)

Amazon Kinesis

13.

#13 What offerings are included in the Amazon Lightsail product set? (Select TWO.)

a)

Virtual Private Server

b)

NoSQL database

c)

Managed MySQL database

d)

Object storage

e)

Serverless functions

14.

#14 Which AWS service is part of the suite of "serverless" services and runs code as functions?

a)

Amazon ECS

b)

Amazon EKS

c)

AWS Lambda

d)

AWS CodeCommit

15.

#15 To reward customers for using their services, what are two ways AWS reduce prices? (Select TWO.)

a)

Volume based discounts when you use more services

b)

Reduction in inbound data transfer charges

c)

Reduced cost for reserved capacity

d)

Discounts for using a wider variety of services

e)

Removal of termination fees for customers who spend more

16.

#16 Which type of Amazon RDS automated backup allows you to restore the database with a granularity of as little as 5 minutes?

a)

Snapshot backup

b)

Full backup

c)

Incremental backup

d)

Point-in-time recovery

17.

#17 Which DynamoDB feature provides in-memory acceleration to tables that result in significant performance improvements?

a)

Amazon ElastiCache

b)

Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX)

c)

Amazon EFS

d)

Amazon CloudFront

18.

#18 Which AWS service lets connected devices easily and securely interact with cloud applications and other devices?

a)

Amazon Workspaces

b)

AWS Directory Service

c)

AWS IoT Core

d)

AWS Server Migration Service (SMS)

19.

#19 Which AWS service enables developers and data scientists to build, train, and deploy machine learning models?

a)

Amazon Rekognition

b)

Amazon Comprehend

c)

Amazon SageMaker

d)

Amazon MQ

20.

#20 Which service provides alerts and remediation guidance when AWS is experiencing events that may impact you?

a)

AWS Trusted Advisor

b)

AWS Inspector

c)

AWS Personal Health Dashboard

d)

AWS Shield

21.

#21 What are the primary benefits of using AWS Elastic Load Balancing? (Select TWO.)

a)

High availability

b)

Elasticity

c)

Automation

d)

Caching

e)

Regional resilience

22.

#22 What is an Edge location?

a)

A public endpoint for Amazon S3

b)

A content delivery network (CDN) endpoint for CloudFront

c)

A virtual private gateway for VPN

d)

A VPC peering connection endpoint

23.

#23 What is the relationship between subnets and availability zones?

a)

You can create one or more subnets within each availability zone

b)

Subnets span across multiple availability zones

c)

You can create one subnet per availability zone

d)

Subnets contain one or more availability zones

24.

#24 How can you configure Amazon Route 53 to monitor the health and performance of your application?

a)

Using DNS lookups

b)

Using Route 53 health checks

c)

Using the Route 53 AP

d)

Using CloudWatch

25.

#25 A developer needs a way to automatically provision a collection of AWS resources. Which AWS service is primarily used for deploying infrastructure as code?

a)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

b)

AWS CloudFormation

c)

AWS CodeDeploy

d)

Jenkins

26.

#26 How can a company connect from their on-premises network to VPCs in multiple regions using private connections?

a)

AWS Managed VPN

b)

AWS Direct Connect Gateway

c)

Amazon CloudFront

d)

Inter-Region VPC Peering

27.

#27 Which of the following descriptions is incorrect in relation to the design of Availability Zones?

a)

AZ’s have direct, low-latency, high throughput and redundant network connections between each other

b)

Each AZ is designed as an independent failure zone

c)

AZs are physically separated within a typical metropolitan region and are located in lower risk flood plains

d)

Each subnet in a VPC is mapped to all AZs in the region

28.

#28 When designing a VPC, what is the purpose of an Internet Gateway?

a)

Provides Internet access for EC2 instances in private subnets

b)

Enables Internet communications for instances in public subnets

c)

t's a bastion host for inbound management connections

d)

It's used for making VPN connections to a VPC

29.

#29 What is the name of the online, self-service portal that AWS provides to enable customers to view reports and, such as PCI reports, and accept agreements?

a)

AWS Compliance Portal

b)

AWS Documentation Portal

c)

AWS Artifact

d)

AWS DocuFact

30.

#30 What are two correct statements about AWS Organizations with consolidated billing? (Select TWO.)

a)

Multiple bills are provided per organization

b)

One bill provided for multiple accounts

c)

Linked accounts lose their managementindependence

d)

Volume pricing discounts applied across multiple accounts

e)

CloudTrail can be configured per organization

31.

#31 Which AWS IAM best practice recommends applying the minimum permissions necessary to perform a task when creating IAM policies?

a)

Create individual IAM users

b)

Use roles to delegate permissions

c)

Grant least privilege

d)

Enable MFA for privileged users

32.

#32 What are the benefits of using IAM roles for applications that run on EC2 instances? (Select TWO.)

a)

Easier to configure than using storing access keys within the EC2 instance

b)

More secure than storing access keys within applications

c)

Can apply multiple roles to a single instance

d)

It is easier to manage IAM roles

e)

Role credentials are permanent

33.

#33 Under the AWS Shared Responsibility Model, which of the following is the customer NOT responsible for?

a)

Adding firewall rules to security groups and network ACLs

b)

Applying encryption to data stored on an EBS volume

c)

Applying bucket policies to share Amazon S3 data

d)

Installing firmware updates on host servers

34.

#34 Which type of storage stores objects comprised of key, value pairs?

a)

Amazon DynamoDB

b)

Amazon EBS

c)

Amazon EFS

d)

Amazon S3

35.

Which type of EBS volumes can be encrypted?

a)

Non-root volumes only

b)

Both non-root and root volumes

c)

Only non-root volumes created from snapshots

d)

Only root volumes can have encryption applied at launch time

36.

#36 What feature of Amazon S3 enables you to set rules to automatically transfer objects between different storage classes at defined time intervals?

a)

Elastic Data Management

b)

Object Lifecycle Management

c)

Auto Lifecycle Scaling

d)

S3 Archiving

37.

#37 What charges are applicable to Amazon S3 Standard storage class? (Select TWO.)

a)

Per GB/month storage fee

b)

Retrieval fee

c)

Minimum capacity charge per object

d)

Data ingress

e)

Data egress

38.

#38 How can a company protect their Amazon S3 data from a regional disaster?

a)

Archive to Amazon Glacier

b)

Use Cross-Region Replication (CRR) to copy to another region

c)

Use lifecycle actions to move to another S3 storage class

d)

Enable Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) delete

39.

#39 Which AWS support plan provides email only support by Cloud Support Associates?

a)

Basic

b)

Developer

c)

Developer

d)

Enterprise

40.

#40 Which support plan is the lowest cost option that allows unlimited cases to be open?

a)

Basic

b)

Developer

c)

Business

d)

Enterprise

41.

#41 Which service allows an organization to bring their own licensing on host hardware that is physically isolated from other AWS

accounts?

a)

EC2 Dedicated Instances

b)

EC2 Spot Instances

c)

EC2 Dedicated Hosts

d)

EC2 Reserved Instances

42.

#42 Which of the below is an example of optimizing for cost?

a)

Choosing the fastest EC2 instance to ensure performance

b)

Provision extra capacity to allow for growth

c)

Replace an EC2 compute instance with AWS Lambda

d)

Deploy resources with AWS CloudFormation

43.

#43 Which service is used for caching data?

a)

Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS)

b)

Amazon DynamoDB DAX

c)

AWS Key Management Service (KMS)

d)

Amazon Elastic File System (EFS)

44.

#44 Which service is used introduce fault tolerance into an application architecture?

a)

Amazon CloudFront

b)

Amazon ElastiCache

c)

Amazon Elastic Load Balancing

d)

Amazon DynamoDB

45.

#45 Which tools can you use to manage identities in IAM? (choose 2)

a)

Amazon CloudWatch API

b)

AWS Management Console

c)

AWS Command Line Tools

d)

EC2 Management Console

e)

Amazon Workspaces

46.

#46 Which of the following would be good reasons to move from on-premises to the AWS Cloud? (Select TWO.)

a)

Gain access to free technical support services

b)

Reduce costs through easier right-sizing of workloads

c)

Improve agility and elasticity

d)

Gain end-to-end operational management of the entire infrastructure stack

e)

Outsource all security responsibility

47.

#47 Which service runs your application code only when needed without needing to run servers?

a)

Amazon EC2

b)

Amazon ECS

c)

AWS Lambda

d)

AWS LightSail

48.

#48 Which AWS feature of Amazon EC2 allows an administrator to create a standardized image that can be used for launching new instances?

a)

Amazon Golden Image

b)

Amazon Block Template

c)

Amazon Machine Image

d)

Amazon EBS Mount Point

49.

#49 What information must be entered into the AWS TCO Calculator?

a)

The number of end users in your company

b)

The number of applications in your company

c)

The number of storage systems in your company

d)

The number of servers in your company

50.

#50 An Elastic IP Address can be remapped between EC2 instances across which boundaries?

a)

Regions

b)

Edge Locations

c)

Availability Zones

d)

DB Subnets

51.

#51 Which AWS service can assist with providing recommended actions on cost optimization?

a)

AWS Inspector

b)

AWS Trusted Advisor

c)

AWS Artifact

d)

Amazon CloudWatch Events

52.

#52 How can an online education company ensure their video courses play with minimal latency for their users around the world?

a)

Use Amazon S3 Transfer Acceleration to speed up downloads

b)

Use Amazon EBS Cross Region Replication to get the content close to the users

c)

Use Amazon Aurora Global Database

d)

Use Amazon CloudFront to get the content closer to users

53.

#53 Which AWS security service provides a firewall at the subnet level within a VPC?

a)

Security Group

b)

IAM Policy

c)

Bucket Policy

d)

Network Access Control List

54.

Which services allow you to store files on AWS? (Select TWO.)

a)

AWS Lambda

b)

Amazon LightSail

c)

Amazon EBS

d)

Amazon EFS

e)

Amazon SQS

55.

#55 Which AWS program can help an organization to design, build, and manage their workloads on AWS?

a)

APN Consulting Partners

b)

APN Technology Consultants

c)

AWS Business Development Manager

d)

AWS Technical Account Manager

56.

#56 Which of the following statements is correct about Amazon S3 cross-region replication?

a)

Both source and destination S3 buckets must have versioning disabled

b)

The source and destination S3 buckets cannot be in different AWS Regions

c)

S3 buckets configured for cross-region replication can be owned by a single AWS account or by different accounts

d)

The source S3 bucket owner must have the source and destination AWS Regions disabled for their account

57.

#57 Which of the following Amazon EC2 pricing models allows customers to use existing server-bound software licenses?

a)

Spot Instances

b)

Reserved Instances

c)

Dedicated Hosts

d)

On-Demand Instances

58.

#58 A company has deployed several relational databases on Amazon RDS. Every month, the database software vendor releases new security patches that need to be applied to the database. What is the MOST efficient way to apply the security patches?

a)

Connect to each database instance on a monthly basis, and download and apply the necessary security patches from the vendor

b)

Enable automatic patching for the instances using the Amazon RDS console

c)

In AWS Config, configure a rule for the instances and the required patch level

d)

Use AWS Systems Manager to automate database patching according to a schedule

59.

#59 A Cloud Practitioner needs to rapidly deploy a popular IT solution and start using it immediately. What should the Cloud Practitioner use?

a)

AWS Well-Architected Framework documentation

b)

Amazon CloudFront

c)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

d)

AWS Quick Start reference deployments

60.

#60 A cloud practitioner needs to decrease application latency and increase performance for globally distributed users. Which services can assist? (Select TWO.)

a)

Amazon ECS

b)

Amazon S3

c)

Amazon AppStream 2.0

d)

Amazon ElastiCache

e)

Amazon CloudFront

61.

#61 A company needs protection from distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks on its website and assistance from AWS experts during such events.

a)

AWS Shield Advanced

b)

AWS Firewall Manager

c)

AWS Web Application Firewall

d)

Amazon GuardDuty

62.

#62 Which of the following must be used together to gain programmatic access to an AWS account? (Select TWO.)

a)

An access key ID

b)

A primary key

c)

A secret access key

d)

A user ID

e)

A secondary key

63.

An application that is deployed across multiple Availability Zones could be described as:

a)

Being highly available

b)

Having global reach

c)

Being secure

d)

Having elasticity

64.

#64 A Cloud Practitioner is developing a disaster recovery plan and intends to replicate data between multiple geographic areas. Which of the following meets these requirements?

a)

AWS Accounts

b)

AWS Regions

c)

Availability Zones

d)

Edge locations

65.

#65 A user deploys an Amazon Aurora database instance in multiple Availability Zones. This strategy involves which pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework?

a)

Performance efficiency

b)

Reliability

c)

Cost optimization

d)

Security