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Advanced radiographic

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A T-Score is a Standard deviation of the amount of variation or dispersion of a set of values

a)

True

b)

False

2.

A patients with a T-Score of -0.5 will be classified with 

a)

Osteoporosis 

b)

Severe osteoporosis

c)

Normal bone density

d)

Osteopinia

3.

A patients with a T-Score of -2.6 will be classified with 

a)

Osteoporosis 

b)

Normal bone density

c)

Severe osteoporosis

d)

Osteopinia

4.

After 35 years of age, more bone is removed than replaced.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

An x-ray technologist understands the pain of the patient with a broken bone because the tech broke the same bone. This is and example of 

a)

Empathy

b)

Sympathy

6.

Anatomy for the CNS includes the brain, spinal cord and the spinal canal.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

As we age, brain size and weight remains the same. 

a)

True

b)

False

8.

As we age, mu scle cells atrophy leading to loss of lean muscle mass and bone density increase.  

a)

True

b)

False

9.

An x-ray technologist feels sorry for a patient with polytrauma injuries and minimizes patient motion as much as possible. This is an example of 

a)

Sympathy

b)

Empathy

10.

At what level of the lumbar spine is the prefer site for puncture

a)

L3-L4

b)

L1-L2

c)

L2-L3

d)

at any level

11.

Chronological age is a good indicator of physical or psychological health.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Clinical alerts for geriatric patients with immune system complications inlcude

a)

Abide by universal precautions

b)

Always wash your hands between patients

c)

Keep equipment clean

d)

Wear latex gloves and NP-95 mask

13.

Constipation is a common problem because of effective peristalsis

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Contrast media substance is used to enhance the contrast of anatomy with similar densities within the body.

a)

true

b)

false

15.

DEXA or DXA stands for Dual-Energy X-ray Absorption

a)

true

b)

false

16.

During a cisternal puncture, the patient must be erect and the site of puncture should be at the level of C1-C2.

a)

true

b)

false

17.

During elderly respiratory changes bony changes in the thorax increased lung distention.

a)

true

b)

false

18.

Elders are the core business of health care

a)

true

b)

false

19.

How many Radiation chambers control the patient dose?

a)

2

b)

1

c)

3

d)

5

20.

Identify and label the following anatomy

(a)  

21.

If an elderly patient is feeling tired, faint and uncomfortable, the x-ray technologist can suspect what geriatric change?

a)

Cardiovascular

b)

musculoskeletal

c)

Integument

d)

Gastrointestinal

22.

In the LINAR machine what generates the radiofrequency?

a)

Magnetron

b)

Electron Gun

c)

Wave Guide

d)

Arices

23.

Infections are more likely to be fatal to geriatric patients with sensory changes

a)

true

b)

false

24.

Intrathecal methods of administration refers to IV i njection

a)

true

b)

false

25.

Ionic iodinated contrast media were developed first, have less side effects compared to non-ionic iodinated contrast media.

a)

true

b)

false

26.



(a)  

27.

MR contrast media such as Gadolinium have the ability to pass blood brain barrier.

a)

true

b)

false

28.

Myelogram nonionic contrast media is secreted by 

a)

kidneys

b)

liver

c)

central nervous system

d)

small intestine

29.

Myelography clinical indications include

a)

HNP and spine tumors

b)

Blood in CSF and  cysts

c)

Arachnoiditis and tumors

d)

intracranial pressure and trauma

30.

Myelography uses fluoroscopy and contrast material to evaluate the spinal cord and spinal lining (meninges).

a)

true

b)

false

31.

Oral method of contrast administration is medical referred as

a)

Parenteral

b)

Retrograde

c)

Ingested

d)

Intrathecal

32.

Osteoblasts are bone cells that distroid new bone tissue

a)

true

b)

false

33.

Osteoclasts are bone cells that remove old bone cells, causing bone resorption.

a)

true

b)

false

34.

Place older patients in an upright position when they show respiratory distress.

a)

true

b)

false

35.

Post examination instructions for barium and other contrast studies should be clarified with doctor and nurse to prevent complications with patient constipation.

a)

false

b)

true

36.

A 1-year-old child comes to radiology for an erect abdomen. Which one of the following immobilization devices or techniques should be used during the exposure?

a)

tam em board

b)

stockinette

c)

pig-o-stat

d)

compression bands

37.

A 2-year-old child comes to radiology for a cervical spine series. The child is unable to hold still for the projections even with immobilization. Which of the following individuals should be asked to hold the child if present?

a)

Nurse wearing protective apron

b)

Older technologist wearing protective apron

c)

a radiography student wearing protective apron

d)

parent or guardian wearing protective apron

38.

A fragment of bone that is separated or pulled away by the attached tendon or ligament is termed a(n) _____ fracture.

a)

alvulsion

b)

depressed

c)

chip

d)

epiphyseal

39.

A health professional who prepares the operating room (OR) by supplying it with the appropriate supplies and instruments is a:

a)

circulator.

b)

scrub

c)

surgical assistant.

d)

 certified surgical technologist (CST).

40.

A high and transverse stomach would be found in a(n) ____ patient.

a)

hyposthenic

b)

asthenic

c)

sthenic

d)

hypersthenic

41.

a patient comes to radiology with a history of a gastric ulcer. Which of the following procedures would be most diagnostic to demonstrate this lesion?

a)

Oral, water-soluble upper GI series

b)

Single-contrast barium sulfate upper GI series

c)

Double-contrast upper GI series

d)

.Carbon dioxide upper GI series

42.

A patient enters the emergency department (ED) with a possible pneumothorax of the right lung. The patient is unable to stand or sit erect. Which specific position should be performed to diagnose this condition?

a)

left lateral decubitus

b)

AP supine

c)

right lateral decubitus

d)

Ventral decubitus

43.

A technologist’s attitude is one of the more important factors in making a pediatric procedure a success

a)

True

b)

False

44.

A telescoping, or invagination, of one part of the intestine into another is termed

a)

diverticulosis

b)

 intussusception

c)

volvulus

d)

colitis

45.

A twisting of the intestine on its own mesentery is termed

a)

 enteritis

b)

intussusception

c)

volvulus

d)

diverticulosis

46.

An aerosol cleaner should be used in cleaning the C-arm in surgery before a procedure

a)

True

b)

False

47.

An individual who prepares the sterile field and scrubs and gowns the members of the surgical team is a:

a)

circulator

b)

scrub

c)

. certified surgical technologist (CST).

d)

 surgical assistant

48.

Another term for short distance radiation therapy is

a)

 teletherapy.

b)

gamma exposure.

c)

external beam.

d)

 brachytherapy.

49.

At what level should the CR and image receptor be centered for the RAO or PA upper GI projection and/or position on asthenic body type of patient?

a)

L3-4

b)

L1

c)

Lower costal margin

d)

Iliac crest

50.

At what stage of respiration should the enema tip be inserted into the rectum?

a)

Suspended inspiration

b)

suspended expiration

c)

During deep breaths

d)

During shallow breaths

51.

CR centering for an esophagogram should be to the vertebral level of

a)

T7

b)

T5-T6

c)

T3-T4

d)

the sternal angle

52.

Cobalt-60–based units are used for intraoperative radiation therapy (IORT) procedures of the brain

a)

True

b)

false

53.

Computer-aided detection (CAD) is reported to improve cancer detection rates by

a)

5% to 15%

b)

50%

c)

4%

d)

2%

54.

Current multislice CT scanners can acquire up to 320 slices per x-ray tube rotation

a)

True

b)

False

55.

During the initial enema tip insertion, the tip is aimed:

a)

directly superior

b)

Toward the umbilicus

c)

directly posterior

d)

toward the coccyx

56.

Each gradient coil is an electromagnet

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Fear and combative resistance from a young child are common initial responses to a radiographic procedure

a)

true

b)

false

58.

For an average adult, the amount of barium ingested is one 16-oz cup for a small bowel only series

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

59.

Functional MRI is based on the

a)

decrease in signal produced during selective neural activity of the brain

b)

 increase in the uptake of contrast media within the brain

c)

 decrease in blood flow to the local vasculature that accompanies neural activity in the brain

d)

 changes in blood flow to the local vasculature that accompany neural activity in the brain

60.

Gonadal shielding should not be used for any studies of the pelvis for bilateral hip evaluation

a)

True

b)

false

61.

How is the CR aligned for the acanthiomeatal (reverse Waters) projection for the facial bones

a)

 15-degree cephalad angle to the orbitomeatal line

b)

Parallel to the mentomeatal line

c)

 Perpendicular to the plane of the IR

d)

Parallel to the lips-meatal line

62.

How much CR angulation should be used for an AP axial projection of the clavicle on an asthenic patient?

a)

10-degree cephalad

b)

15-degree caudal

c)

40-degree caudal

d)

30-degree cephalad

63.

How much barium is typically given to a 3- to 10-year-old child during an upper GI series

a)

6 to 12 ounces

b)

4 to 6 ounces

c)

1 cup

d)

14 to 16 ounces

64.

How much central ray (CR) angulation is required for the mediolateral oblique projection of an average-sized breast

a)

60 degrees

b)

70 degrees

c)

45 degrees

d)

90 degrees

65.

How much rotation away from the IR is required for a trauma scapular Y projection

a)

 15 to 20 degrees

b)

45 to 60 degrees

c)

 35 to 45 degrees

d)

 25 to 30 degrees

66.

How should a breast implant be moved for a craniocaudal projection

a)

it is displaced anteriorly toward the apex

b)

. It is displaced posteriorly toward the chest wall

c)

 No attempt should be made to move the implant because of the danger of rupture

d)

 It is displaced laterally

67.

How should the CR be aligned for a trauma PA projection of the elbow

a)

Parallel to the interepicondylar plane

b)

. None of the options; projection should be taken AP, not PA

c)

Perpendicular to the interepicondylar plane

d)

Perpendicular to the palmar surface of the hand

68.

How should the CR be aligned for an AP projection of the chest?

a)

Perpendicular to the long axis of the sternum

b)

 Perpendicular to the midcoronal plane

c)

Parallel to the midsagittal plane

d)

 Perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor (IR)

69.

Ideally, the horizontal beam lateral projections for the cervical spine require a ____ source–image receptor distance (SID)

a)

 40- to 44-inch (100- to 110-cm)

b)

72-inch (180-cm)

c)

35- to 40-inch (90- to 100-cm)

d)

96-inch (245-cm)

70.

In what position is the patient placed for the enema tip insertion?

a)

Lithotomy

b)

Prone

c)

 Sims

d)

Modified lithotomy

71.

In which quadrant of the left breast would the 7 o’clock position be located

a)

. LOQ

b)

UOQ

c)

 LIQ

d)

UIQ

72.

Increasing the SID to 50 inches (130 cm) without a change in technical factors will decrease pediatric exposure without a loss of image detail.

a)

True

b)

false

73.

It is the responsibility of the technologist to determine if child abuse has occurred and then report it to law enforcement.

a)

true

b)

false

74.

Lipids (fats) are broken down into fatty acids and glycerol as they are digested and absorbed by the:

a)

stomach only.

b)

none of the options (are not digested

c)

small bowel only.

d)

stomach and small bowel

75.

MRI can produce axial, sagittal, and coronal perspectives of the anatomy

a)

true

b)

false

76.

MRI uses a low-energy form of ionizing radiation

a)

true

b)

false

77.

OR tables are considered sterile only at the level of the tabletop

a)

True

b)

false

78.

On a T1-weighted image, fat appears as a ____ signal.

a)

. light gray

b)

dark

c)

bright

d)

 dark gray

79.

On a T2-weighted image, white brain matter appears as a ____ signal

a)

light gray

b)

bright

c)

dark

d)

dark grey

80.

Once food enters the stomach and is mixed with gastric secretions, it is termed:

a)

. biologic catalysts

b)

lipids

c)

bile

d)

chyme

81.

Only sterile items are allowed within the sterile field

a)

true

b)

false

82.

Patient preparation for an adult upper GI series includes:

a)

 NPO 24 hours before the procedure

b)

NPO 4 hours before the procedure

c)

 nothing; no patient preparation is required

d)

NPO 8 hours before the procedure.

83.

Postreduction projections of the upper and lower limbs generally require only the joint nearest to the fracture site

a)

true

b)

false

84.

Protective aprons worn during fluoroscopy must possess at least ____ mm lead equivalency (Pb/Eq.

a)

1

b)

0.25

c)

0.75

d)

0.5

85.

Submillimeter slice thicknesses are possible with multislice CT scanners

a)

true

b)

false

86.

The 2 o’clock position in the left breast corresponds to the ____ o’clock position in the right breast

a)

10

b)

2

c)

5

d)

8

87.

The AP reverse Caldwell projection for a trauma skull examination requires the CR be

a)

parallel to the orbitomeatal line

b)

parallel to the lips-meatal line

c)

parallel to the infraorbitomeatal line

d)

 15-degree cephalad to the orbitomeatal line

88.

The American Cancer Society estimates one in _____ women will develop invasive breast cancer.

a)

eight

b)

six

c)

four

d)

two

89.

the ImageGently ®.org campaign is designed to use minimal immobilization techniques and measures when imaging a young child

a)

false

b)

true

90.

The abbreviation ORIF refers to

a)

open reduction internal fixation

b)

orthopedic reduction internal fixation

c)

 open reduction internal fracture

d)

orthopedic rodding internal fixation

91.

The adhesive surface of the tape should be applied directly to the skin of infants to help prevent movement of the body part during the exposure

a)

true

b)

false

92.

The capability to create accurate reconstruction of patient data into alternative planes (coronal, sagittal, three dimensional) is termed

a)

algorithmic reconstruction

b)

 multiple image reconstruction.

c)

multiplanar reconstruction

d)

 maximum intensity projection

93.

The gantry houses the x-ray tube and the detector array

a)

true

b)

false

94.

The glandular tissue of the breast is divided into 15 to 20

a)

partitions

b)

sections

c)

ducts

d)

lobes

95.

The height of the enema bag must be set at 40 inches (100 cm) above the radiographic table at the onset of the study

a)

true

b)

false

96.

The horizontal beam lateral lumbar spine projection requires a CR position that is

a)

. angled 5- to 7-degree caudad

b)

perpendicular to the coronal plane

c)

 perpendicular to the vertebral column

d)

angled 5- to 7-degree cephalic

97.

the ideal kVp range for a double-contrast barium enema is

a)

100 to 125

b)

70 to 80

c)

130 to 140

d)

90 to 100

98.

The liver is located primarily in the ____ of the abdomen.

a)

RUQ

b)

RLQ

c)

LLQ

d)

LUQ

99.

the location of origin of the MR signal within the patient is determined by

a)

 wavelength of MR signa

b)

TE (time-to-echo

c)

relaxation time

d)

. frequency of MR signal

100.

The loud “knocking” heard during an MRI study is due to the gradient coils

a)

true

b)

false