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Amazon AWS CLF-C01 Chapter 5 - 6

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Your organization is setting up a solution in AWS. The solution needs to provide a storage solution that provides home directories for employees. Which AWS storage solution would you choose? Choose the best response
a)
Amazon S3
b)
Lake Formation
c)
Amazon EFS
d)
Amazon EBS
e)
Instance stores
2.
What is the primary kind of data that objects store? Choose the best response
a)
Structured
b)
Unstructured
c)
Semi-structured
3.
Which solution allows you to handle massive amounts of unstructured data for big data analytics? Choose the best response
a)
Instance stores
b)
AWS Lake Formation
c)
AWS EFS
d)
AWS EBS
e)
Amazon S3
4.
Which hybrid storage service enables an organization’s on-premises application to seamlessly use AWS cloud storage? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Storage Gateway
b)
AWS Snowball
c)
AWS Backup
d)
Amazon S3
e)
Amazon Direct Connect
5.
Which type of AWS storage can be considered as a virtual hard disk in the cloud? Choose the best response
a)
Instance store
b)
Amazon EFS file system
c)
Amazon EBS volume
d)
Amazon S3 archive
e)
Amazon file gateway
6.
Your organization wants to store copies of backups on Amazon S3. You need to have infrequent but rapid access to the backups. Which storage class fits these requirements? Choose the best response
a)
S3 Glacier Deep Archive
b)
S3 Standard
c)
S3 Glacier
d)
S3 One Zone-IA
7.
You are creating a web app on several AWS EC2 instances. Which storage service can you use if you need to connect multiple EC2 instances concurrently using file-level protocols? Choose the best response
a)
Instance stores
b)
Amazon EFS
c)
Amazon EBS
d)
File gateway
8.
Which of the following AWS storage services allow you to connect to storage from an on-premises application using standard file protocols? Choose the best response
a)
Instance stores
b)
Amazon EBS
c)
Amazon EFS
d)
Amazon S3
e)
Amazon Glacier
9.
What type of AWS storage would you use for media files that you want to access via the internet? Choose the best response
a)
Amazon EBS
b)
Amazon S3
c)
Amazon EFS
d)
Amazon FSx
10.
You are working on a media storage application. You want to be able to allow read/write access to your S3 buckets. Which of the following would be best suited for this requirement? Choose the best response
a)
IAM user
b)
IAM role
c)
IAM group
d)
IAM policy
11.
Your organization needs to import a large amount of structured data into a database service. What is the best suited AWS database service to achieve this? Choose the best response
a)
Amazon ElastiCache
b)
Amazon DynamoDB
c)
Amazon RDS
d)
Amazon DocumentDB
12.
You are creating a solution that requires a database that can handle semi-structured data. Which AWS solution would you suggest? Choose the best response
a)
Amazon Redshift
b)
Amazon DynamoDB
c)
Amazon RDS for PostgresSQL
d)
Amazon RDS for MySQL
e)
AWS Database Migration Services
13.
What AWS service provides five times the performance of a standard MySQL database? Choose the best response
a)
Amazon Redshift
b)
Amazon DynamoDB
c)
Amazon Aurora
d)
Amazon RDS for MySQL
e)
Amazon ElastiCache
14.
You work as an on-premises MySQL DBA. Your organization has decided to migrate to AWS cloud. Which of the following can help save time on the regular database tasks so you can focus on providing faster performance and high availability to your users?
a)
Amazon Redshift
b)
Amazon DynamoDB
c)
Amazon Aurora
d)
Amazon RDS
e)
AWS Database Migration Services
15.
What is the AWS database service that allows you to upload data structured in key-value format? Choose the best response
a)
Amazon Redshift
b)
Amazon DynamoDB
c)
Amazon Aurora
d)
Amazon RDS
e)
Amazon ElastiCache
16.
You are developing an app that generates semi-structured data. You are planning to use an Amazon RDS. Would this suit the requirement?
a)
Yes
b)
No
17.
You are developing an app that a high level of query performance on large amounts of data sets. You are planning to use an Amazon Redshift. Would this suit the requirement?
a)
Yes
b)
No
18.
Which of the following Amazon RDS features facilitates offloading of database read activity? Choose the best response
a)
Database snapshots
b)
Automated backups
c)
Multi-AZ deployments
d)
Read replicas
e)
In-memory caching
19.
You need to migrate an on-premises MySQL database to AWS RDS for MySQL. What type of migration is this?
a)
Homogeneous migration
b)
Heterogeneous migration
c)
On-premises migration
d)
Hybrid migration
20.
Which of the following is a feature of Amazon RDS that performs automatic failover when the primary database fails to respond? Choose the best response
a)
RDS snapshots
b)
RDS Write replicas
c)
RDS Single-AZ
d)
RDS Multi-AZ
21.
Which of the following are true about how publishers communicate using Amazon SNS? Select all that apply
a)
Publishers communicate asynchronously with subscribers.
b)
Publishers communicate synchronously with subscribers.
c)
Publishers communicate asynchronously with consumers.
d)
Publishers communicate synchronously with producers.
22.
Which of the following are A2P endpoints for Amazon SNS? Select all that apply
a)
Mobile push notifications
b)
Amazon SQS queues
c)
Mobile text messages (SMS)
d)
Email addresses
e)
HTTP/S
23.
What kind of queue can you use to preserve any messages that aren’t delivered before the delivery retry policy ends? Choose the best response
a)
Push queue
b)
Retry queue
c)
Hold-letter queue
d)
Dead-letter queue
24.
In Amazon SQS, which type of queue provides enhanced messaging between applications when the order of operations and events is critical or where duplicates can’t be tolerated? Choose the best response
a)
Dead-letter queue
b)
Standard queue
c)
FIFO queue
d)
Push queue
25.
What is the maximum length of an Amazon SQS message? Choose the best response
a)
156 KB
b)
256 KB
c)
356 KB
d)
498 KB
26.
Which of the following are true when building applications that use Amazon SQS? Select all that apply
a)
You can decouple your application’s functions into separate components.
b)
You cannot decouple your application’s functions into separate components.
c)
Decoupled applications tend to provide better resiliency across large workloads.
d)
Decoupling the application components does not allow them to scale independently.
27.
You are developing an IoT solution that requires a managed service that provides communication between AWS applications and massive numbers of your IoT devices. Which AWS service would you recommend? Choose the best response
a)
IoT Events
b)
IoT Device Defender
c)
IoT Analytics
d)
IoT 1-Click
28.
Which of the following AWS services provide a high level of security for IoT devices? Choose the best response
a)
IoT Core
b)
IoT Device Management
c)
IoT Device Defender
d)
IoT SiteWise
29.
Which AWS IoT service provides software that runs on a gateway that resides on-premises? Choose the best response
a)
IoT Core
b)
IoT Device Management
c)
IoT Events
d)
IoT SiteWise
30.
AWS IoT Core enables simple devices to trigger AWS Lambda functions. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
31.
With AWS IoT Device Management, you can send firmware updates OTA. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
32.
Which of the following is an AWS service that allows you to visually connect these different web services and devices when building your IoT applications? Choose the best response
a)
IoT Things Graph
b)
IoT Analytics
c)
IoT Events
d)
IoT SiteWise
33.
Your organization is creating an app that tracks humidity and temperature in refrigerated cases? You need to be able to analyze the data even though there might be gaps in the telemetry. Which AWS IoT service would help with this requirement? Choose the best response
a)
IoT Things Graph
b)
IoT Analytics
c)
IoT Events
d)
IoT SiteWise
34.
Which AWS IoT service allows you to select a preferred connection protocol? Choose the best response
a)
IoT Device Defender
b)
IoT Greengrass
c)
IoT Events
d)
IoT Core
35.
Which AWS IoT device software is an edge runtime?
a)
FreeRTOS
b)
IoT Greengrass
c)
IoT SiteWise
d)
IoT Core
36.
With IoT Events, you Define each event’s logic using basic if-then-else statements. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
37.
Which of the following is a serverless, interactive analytics service? Choose the best response
a)
Amazon Athena
b)
Amazon Quicksight
c)
Amazon EMR
d)
AWS Glue
38.
Which of the following is a fully managed, Apache Spark-based analytics platform optimized for AWS? Choose the best response
a)
Amazon Athena
b)
Amazon Quicksight
c)
Amazon EMR
d)
AWS Glue
39.
Which of the following does Athena integrated with that allows you to create a unified metadata repository across various services? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Glue Data Catalogs
b)
Amazon Quicksight
c)
Amazon Kinesis
d)
Amazon EMR
40.
An AWS Glue Dynamic Frame is self-describing. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
41.
In AWS Glue, which component is a program that connects to a data store, determines your data’s schema, and then creates metadata tables in the Glue Data Catalog? Choose the best response
a)
Job
b)
Crawler
c)
Cluster
d)
Dynamic Frame
42.
Which of the following is a fully integrated development environment for machine learning? Choose the best response
a)
AWS Glue
b)
Amazon Kinesis
c)
Amazon Quicksight
d)
SageMaker Studio
43.
Which AWS AI service would you choose to create an application with a conversational interface? Choose the best response
a)
Amazon Transcribe
b)
Amazon Polly
c)
Amazon Rekognition
d)
Amazon Lex
44.
Which Amazon SageMaker service radically reduces the time it takes to prepare and aggregate data for ML? Choose the best response
a)
JumpStart
b)
Ground Truth
c)
Data Wrangler
d)
Pipelines
45.
Your organization is setting up an AWS solution that requires the ability to analyze all of your data with a fast cloud data warehouse. Which of the following would you choose? Select all that apply
a)
Amazon Redshift
b)
AWS Lake Formation
c)
Amazon SageMaker
d)
Amazon Quicksight
46.
Your organization needs to create a repository for a development project. Which AWS service will fit this requirement? Select all that apply
a)
CodeCommit
b)
CodeArtifact
c)
CodeBuild
d)
CodeDeploy
47.
Which AWS development tool feature provides build and release services to support continuous integration of your apps? Choose the best response
a)
CodeBuild
b)
CodePipelines
c)
CodeDeploy
d)
X-Ray
48.
Which AWS development tool is an integrated development environment (IDE) that you use to write, run, and debug code? Choose the best response
a)
CodeStar
b)
CodeBuild
c)
CodeArtifact
d)
Cloud9
49.
An artifact is a group of build commands and associated settings that CodeBuild uses to run a build. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
50.
Which of the following AWS developer tools are NOT part of the Developer Tools console? Select all that apply
a)
Cloud9
b)
CodeBuild
c)
CodeDeploy
d)
X-Ray
e)
CodeStar
51.
Which one of the following AWS services provides a cloud-based service for creating, managing, and working with software development projects on AWS? Choose the best response
a)
CloudCommit
b)
CodeBuild
c)
CodeStar
d)
CodeDeploy
e)
Cloud9
52.
A pipeline must have at least two stages. True or false?
a)
true
b)
false
53.
Which of the following are the collections of data that are worked on by pipeline actions?
a)
Pipelines
b)
Artifacts
c)
Actions
d)
Deployments
e)
Repositories
54.
Which of the following services does X-Ray perform?
a)
Debugging
b)
Deployments
c)
Service mapping
d)
Tracing
e)
Code storage
55.
Your organization wants to deploy serverless AWS Lambda functions using CodeDeploy. Will CodeDeploy meet this requirement? Yes or No?
a)
Yes
b)
No